Targeting TNF and Co-stimulation Flashcards

1
Q

What is Tumour necrosis factor?

A
  • Important pro-inflammatory cytokines
  • Low concentrations activate host defense
  • High concentrations cause organ damage
  • Released as trimers of 17 kDa monomers:
    1. TNFa
    2. Lymphotoxin a (formerly TNFb)
    3. Lymphotoxin b
  • Cleaved from the membrane by TNFa converting enzyme (TACE).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the TNF receptors?

A
  • Both TNF and LT bind to a family of receptors
  • TNF receptor 1 (TNFR1, p55, CD120a):
    1. Constitutive on all cells except RBC
  • TNF receptor 2 (TNFR2, p75, CD120b
    1. Inducible on endothelial & haematopoietic cells
  • LTb receptor binds LT only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the key actions attributed to TNF-A?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is TNF inhibited?

A
  1. Via three approaches:
    - Bind to receptor and block TNF binding
    - Bind to TNF and block binding to receptor
    - Block TNF synthesis
  2. No inhibitors of receptor
    -Which receptor to inhibit?
  3. Thalidomide blocks TNF synthesis
  4. Targeting TNF is main strategy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Discuss the Anti-TNF therapies.

A
  1. Anti-TNF monoclonal antibodies:
    - Infliximab (25% murine/ 75% human).
    - Adalimumab (100% human)
  2. Soluble TNF receptors:
    - Etanercept (100% human).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are TNF biologics?

A
  • TNF inhibitors.
  • Drugs that help stop inflammation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give example of TNF inhibitors.

A
  1. Etanercept
    - Human TNFR2-Fcg fusion
  2. Infliximab
    - Chimeric whole antibody
  3. Adalimumab & golimumab
    - Whole human antibodies
  4. Certolizumab
    - Humanised Fv conjugated with PEG
    *Typically 60-70% response rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the connection of Anti-TNF therapy to infection?

A
  • Increases risk of infection.
  • TB is a serious issue in Etanercept and Infliximab patients.
  • Pre- screening of patients is recommended.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the effect of antibody formation on anti-TNF drugs?

A
  • Antibodies reduce efficacy of Moabs
  • Reflected in loss of efficacy
  • Requires dose escalation
  • Not a problem with etanercept
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Discuss the clinical use of Anti- TNF agents.

A
  • Used for treatment of a number of autoimmune diseases (not all agents approved for all indications):
    1. Rheumatoid arthritis
    2. Poly-articular juvenile idiopathic arthritis
    3. Psoriatic arthritis
    4. Psoriasis
    5. Ankylosing spondylitis
    6. Crohn’s disease
    7. Ulcerative colitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is co-stimulation and what is co-inhibition?

A
  1. Co-stimulation: co- stimulatory receptors triggering T cell receptor activation:
    - CD28 activation is also required
    - APC B7-1 (CD80) & B7-2 (CD86) are CD28 ligands
    - Activated T-cells express CTLA-4 which inhibits T-cell activation and Ligands are B7-1 & B7-2.
  2. Co-inhibition:
    - Activated T-cells also express Programmed Death (PD)-1
    - Bind PD-Ligand 1 (PD-L1)
    - Inhibits T-cell activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Discuss the structure of B7/CD28 family.

A
  • Structures are modelled on the crystal determinations.
  • Loops have been added to one end of the IgV domains to emphasise the orientation of the CDR-like loops and their interaction with ligand or lack thereof.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Progressive multifocal leukoadenopathy (PML)?

A
  • A disease of the white matter of the brain.
  • Caused by a virus infection that targets cells that make myelin neurons.
  • Viruses:
    1. Re-activation of JC virus in the brain
    2. Herpes virus 6 re-activation also seen
  • High mortality rate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?

A
  1. Categorised as having 2 or more:
    - Fever of > 38°C or < 36°C
    - Hr > 90 beats per minute
    - Respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths/min or PaCO2<32 mm Hg
    - Abnormal WBC (>12,000/mL or <4,000/mL)
  2. Infectious or non-infectious
  3. Due to activation of pro-inflammatory cytokines
    - TNF
    - IL-1,6&8
    - IFNg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Discuss CTLA-4 fusion proteins: Abatacept & Belatacept.

A
  • Binds to B7-1&2 preventing their interaction with CD28.
  • Reduces TNFa, IFNg and IL-2 secretion.
  • Abatacept has higher affinity for B7-1 (CD80) than B7-2 (CD86):
  • Approved for RA and not transplantation
  • Belatacept differs from abatacept in two amino acids and has higher affinity for CD86:
  • Approved for organ transplantation (2011)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Discuss immunotherapy in Cancer.

A
  • Potential for immune system to deal with cancer.
  • However, tumours can circumvent the immune system.
  • Drugs that block the inhibitory pathways can be used to enhance anti-tumour activity.
  • Known as checkpoint inhibitors.
17
Q

Give examples of immunotherapy drugs used in cancer.

A
  • Ipilimumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to CTLA-4 and blocks the inhibitory pathway.
  • Nivolumab and pembrolizumab bind PD-1.
  • Atezolizumab binds PD-L1.
  • Primarily used for melanoma and lung cancer.
18
Q

Discuss adaptive immune system resistance.

A
  • Adaptive up-regulation of PD-L1 is mediated predominantly by IFNγ through activation of the STAT proteins.
  • The adaptive expression of PD-L1 has been observed in the surface of cancer cells, stromal cells, and infiltrating immune cells, including T cells.
19
Q

What is CD2?

A
  • Another co-stimulatory receptor on T-cells.
  • It binds LFA-3 on antigen presenting cells.
20
Q

Discuss fusion protein: Alfacept.

A
  • Blocks LFA-3 on APC and Fc portion of IgG1
  • Approved for use in plaque psoriasis
  • Binds to CD2 on memory T-cells preventing activation
  • Triggers NK cell-mediated apoptosis of activated T-cells.
  • Withdrawn.
21
Q

Discuss a Anti-CD28 Antibody (TGN1412).

A
  • Superagonist antibody
  • Activates immune system
  • In animal models increases type 2 helper cells and regulatory T cells
  • Showed benefit in animal autoimmune disease models
  • In human study serious adverse effects
    1. Cytokine storm
    2. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
  • Withdrawn.
21
Q

Discuss a Anti-CD28 Antibody (TGN1412).

A
  • Superagonist antibody.
  • Activates immune system.
  • In animal models increases type 2 helper cells and regulatory T cells.
  • Showed benefit in animal autoimmune disease models.
  • In human study serious adverse effects:
    1. Cytokine storm
    2. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
  • Withdrawn.
22
Q

What is the role of adhesion molecules?

A
  • Immune cells must adhere to target to be effective.
  • Full activation often requires adhesion.
  • Adhesion is mediated by families of adhesion receptors:
    1. Integrins
    2. Immunoglobin superfamily
23
Q

What are Integrins?

A
  • Family of cell adhesion molecules.
  • All are a/b dimers.
  • Involved in many cellular functions:
    1. GPIIb/IIIa (aIIbb3) on platelets.
    2. b2 integrins on lymphocytes.
  • Ligands are usually proteins.
24
Q

Discuss Integrin activation.

25
Q

Discuss the MOA of Efalizumab.

A
  • Monoclonal antibody to aLb2 (LFA-1, CD11a)
  • Blocks T-cell binding to endothelial cells
  • Used in the treatment of psoriasis
  • Withdrawn from the market due to PML (Progressive multifocal leukoadenopathy).
26
Q

Discuss the MOA of Natalizumab (Tysabri).

A
  • Monoclonal antibody
  • Binds to a4 integrins (a4b7 & a4b1)
  • Thought to block binding of inflammatory cells to endothelium
  • Prevents infiltration by lymphocytes into brain
  • Shows some benefits in MS
  • Causes PML (2 per 1000 cases).
27
Q

Compare RMP & REMS.

A
  1. REMS: Risk evaluation and mitigation strategy
    - Tysabri Outreach Unified Commitment to Health (TOUCH).
    - FDA REMS uses specific company communication plans.
  2. RMP: Risk Management Plan.
    - EMA equivalent .
    - Uses summary of product characteristics (SMP) to communicate precautions with drugs.
28
Q

Discuss other a4b7 antagonists.

A
  • Vedozilumab is an antibody that binds to a4b7.
  • Etrolizumab is an anti-b7 antibody.
  • Both are approved for Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.