Targeting inflammation: Rheumatoid arthritis Flashcards

1
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

-An autoimmune inflammatory disease where our immune cells infiltrate our joints.
- Principally affect the synovial joints.
- Antibodies produced include: rheumatoid factor & antibodies against post-translational modified proteins (ACPA)

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2
Q

What is inflammation?

A
  • An essential defence system that is highly regulated by our immune system to help protect our tissues from injury/ infection.
  • In RA, inflammation is unchecked and leads to tissue damage.
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3
Q

Discuss acute vs chronic inflammation.

A
  1. Acute:
    - Response to infection or trauma
    - Vasodilation allows immune cells access the site of infection
    - Inflammation also triggers healing.
    - It is then terminated by production of resolvins
  2. Chronic:
    - Failure to terminate inflammation leads to chronic inflammation.
    - Resulting in tissue damage and fibrosis.
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4
Q

What does inflammation resolution entail?

A
  • Removal of pro-inflammatory mediators
  • Neutrophil apoptosis
  • Release of pro-resolving mediators
  • Transformation of M1 (inflammatory) macrophages to M2 (phenotype)
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5
Q

Discuss inflammatory pain.

A
  • Inflammatory mediators such as PGs, 5HT and bradykinin sensitise pain fibres.
  • Rather than cause pain they sensitise pain fibres making them more likely to respond to other pain signals
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6
Q

What is the role of local mediators in inflammation and pain?

A
  • Local mediators include prostaglandins, leukotrienes, PAF, histamines etc.
  • They are secreted by immune cells.
  • Responsible for the symptoms of inflammation such as vasodilation.
  • Pain happens when inflammation occurs near a pain fibre.
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7
Q

What is the mechanism of action NSAIDs?

A
  • Used to treat inflammation.
  • They act to inhibit cyclooxygenase and prostaglandin production.
  • They are anti-inflammatory, analgesic and anti-pyretic.
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8
Q

What are the adverse effects of COX inhibition?

A
  1. Gastric ulceration:
    – Due to COX inhibition in stomach
    – Responsible for protective mucus layer
  2. Bleeding problems
    – COX activates platelets
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9
Q

Discuss COX 1 and COX 2.

A
  • They are very similar: 65% AA sequence homology and near-identical catalytic sites.
  • Most significant difference between the isoenzymes, which allows for selective inhibition, is the substitution of isoleucine at position 523 in COX-1 with valine in COX-2.
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10
Q

What influence does valine in COX-2 have?

A
  • Valine (smaller) allows access to hydrophobic pocket in enzyme which Isoleucine sterically hinders.
  • Drugs like Rofecoxib bind to this alternative site and is considered to be a selective inhibitor of COX-2.
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11
Q

Discuss COX-2 inhibitors.

A
  • E.g. celecoxib and rofecoxib.
  • Developed to protect against Gastric Ulceration.
  • Similar efficacies to that of the non-selective inhibitors, decreases GIT effects by 50%.
  • Associated with reduced prostaglandin I2 (PGI2 / prostacyclin) production by vascular endothelium.
  • Little or no inhibition of potentially pro-thrombotic platelet thromboxane A2 production.
  • Therefore an exaggerated prothrombotic effect will be observed in patients treated chronically with Coxibs!
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12
Q

When are NSAIDs contraindicated?

A
  • All NSAIDS except Naproxen appear to increase cardiovascular risk.
  • The increased risk is dose dependent.
  • Avoid NSAID use in patients at high risk of cardiovascular event.
  • Use lowest dose for shortest period.
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13
Q

Is paracetamol an NSAID?

A
  1. No. Used in fever & pain not inflammation.
  2. MOA unclear:
    - Thought to be COX 2 selective inhibitor.
    - Its major metabolite NAPQI activates TRPA1 in the spinal cord producing anti-nociceptive response.
    - Help control pain without impacting neutrophil function and prevent development of chronic pain.
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14
Q

Discuss glucocorticoids.

A
  • Increase lipocortin production which inhibits phospholipase A2.
  • Reduces the production of IL-1 and 2, interferon, prostaglandins and leukotrienes.
  • Decreases basophils, eosinophils and monocytes, lymphocytes but increase in neutrophils.
  • Adverse effects on carbohydrate metabolism.
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15
Q

Discuss sulfasalazine.

A
  • Developed for treatment of “infective poly-arthritis”.
  • Anti-inflammatory: Salicylic Acid.
  • Antibiotic: Sulfapyridine
  • Salicylic acid and sulfapyridine joined by an azo bond.
  • Reduced by the bacterial enzyme azo reductase to sulfapyridine and 5-amino-salicylic acid (5-ASA) in bowel
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16
Q

What is Sulfasalazine MOA?

A
  • Active moiety is 5-amino-salicylic acid not sulfapyridine
  • MOA unclear:
    1. Affects neutrophil activity,
    2. Reduced production of IL-1,
    3. TNF from monocytes/macrophages,
    4. Inhibits T-cell proliferation etc.
17
Q

What are the adverse effects of Sulfasalazine?

A
  • These are primarily due to sulfapyridine. Include:
    – Skin reactions,
    – Hepatitis,
    – Pneumonitis,
    – Agranulocytosis,
    – Aplastic anaemia
    – Males - oligospermia and infertility
    – GI upset less severe haematological toxicities
18
Q

Discuss Hydroxyquinone.

A
  • Anti-malarial medication found useful for the treatment of inflammatory arthritis.
  • MOA unclear - penetrate cell walls and stabilise lysosomal membranes.
  • Inhibit metabolism of deoxyribonucleotides.
  • Interferes with cell’s ability to degrade and process proteins.
19
Q

What are the common side effects of Hydroxyquinone?

A

– Rash, nausea, diarrhoea
– Ocular – retinopathy/colour vision - rare but requires monitoring
– Depigmentation
– Myopathy

20
Q

What are the drugs that target IL-1?

A
  1. Anakinra soluble recombinant IL-1RA can be used to inhibit action of IL-1
    - Approved for use in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  2. Canakinumab
    - Multiple autoimmune disease including RA
    - Blocks anti-IL-1β antibodies
  3. Gevokizumab
    - Development on hold
    - Blocks anti-IL-1β antibodies
  4. Rilonacept
    - Used for some orphan indications
21
Q

Discuss the use of B cell depletion in RA.

A
  • B-Cells cannot act as antigen presenting cells to activate T-Cells
  • B-Cells cannot produce Rheumatoid Factor
  • B-Cells cannot release cytokines
22
Q

Discuss Rituximab.

A
  • Monoclonal antibody to CD20 (B cell surface marker).
  • Specific for B-cells.
  • Triggers complement formation and cell lysis.
  • Used to treat: B cell lymphoma and RA resistant to anti-TNF therapy.
  • Patients can develop fatal SIRS & PML
23
Q

Discuss the pathway that Rituximab opsonised B cells are subject to attack.

A

Via at least three pathways:
1. Complement
2. Direct lysis
3. Fcy receptor mediated opsonic phagocytosis of ADCC

24
Q

Discuss Tofacitinib.

A
  • Janus kinase (JAK) 1 mediates signalling from some cytokine receptors.
  • Tofacitinib is a small molecule inhibitor of JAK1.
  • Only used as under a REMS (risk EVAL.)
  • Limitations of use:
    1. Not recommended to be used in combination with biologic DMARDs or potent immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and cyclosporine.
    2. ^ risk of serious infections.
    2. People with known malignancies.
    3. Lab abnormalities: lymphocytes, neutrophils, hb & lipids to be monitored.
25
Q

List the approved RA drugs.

26
Q

What are disease modifying drugs?

A
  • Disease modifying Anti-Rheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
  • Disease modifying agents in MS.
  • Disease modifying drugs act to:
    1. Symptom Control (control inflammatory features)
    2. Modify the course of disease:
  • Reduce joint damage and deformity
  • Reduce radiographic progression
  • Reduce long-term disability
  • Reduce the progression of MS symptoms
  • Reduce number of lesions by MRI in MS
27
Q

Discuss disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDSs).

28
Q

Discuss therapeutic strategies in RA.

A
  1. Symptomatic treatment for immediate pain relief
  2. Early use of DMARDs
  3. Start with Mono-therapy – ideally Methotrexate
    * If Mono-therapy doesn’t work
    – Combinations of Conventional DMARDs
    – Combinations of DMARD plus Biologic agents
29
Q

Discuss the symptomatic treatment of RA.

A
  1. NSAIDs.
    – Symptomatic relief, improved function
    – No change in disease progression
  2. Low-dose prednisone (<10 mg qd)
    – May substitute for NSAID
    - Used as ‘bridge therapy’
    – If used long-term, add Ca, Vit D, or bisphosphonates for osteoporosis risk
    – Possible disease modifying effect
  3. Intra-articular/parenteral steroids
    – For flares of symptoms
30
Q

Discuss the common DMARD combinations.

A
  1. Triple Therapy
    – Methotrexate,
    – Sulfasalazine,
    – Hydroxychloroquine
  2. Double Therapy
    – Methotrexate & Sulfasalazine
    – Methotrexate & Hydroxychloroquine
    – Sulfasalazine & Plaquenil
  3. If all else fails - Biologic Therapy
31
Q

Define gout.

A
  • A monosodium urate crystal deposition disease.
  • Metatarsal phalangeal joint at the base of the big toe is most often affected.
  • May also present as tophi, kidney stones, or urate nephropathy.
  • Caused by elevated uric acid levels in the blood, an end product of purine metabolism and present in the serum and tissues in the form of monosodium urate (MSU).
  • With prolonged tissue deposition , gouty arthropathy and tophi develop.
  • Also increased risk with age.
32
Q

Describe the treatment strategies for gout.

A
  1. Prevention of inflammation/ acute attack
    - NSAIDs
    - Colchicine
    - Corticosteroids
  2. Decrease synthesis of urate
    - Allopurinol
  3. Increase excretion of urate
    - Probenecid
    - Rasburicase
33
Q

Discuss Colchicine.

A
  • Extracted from plant Colchicum.
  • Anti-inflammatory: reduces inflammatory response to deposited crystals
  • Interferes with neutrophil function (binds to
    tubulin leading to micro-tubular depolymerisation)
  • Diminishes PMN phagocytosis of crystals
  • Blocks cellular response to deposited crystals.
  • Used in both acute and chronic gout.
34
Q

Discuss colchicine toxicity.

A
  1. GI:
    - Nausea, vomiting, cramping, diarrhoea, abdominal pain
  2. Haematological:
    - agranulocytosis, aplastic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
  3. Hair loss:
    - Due to inhibition of mitosis.
  4. Muscular weakness

**Adverse effects are dose-related & more common when patient has renal or hepatic disease.

35
Q

What is Allopurinol?

A
  • A xanthine oxidase inhibitor which is administered orally.
  • Used to treat hyper-uricemia (excess uric acid in blood plasma) and its complications, including chronic gout.
  • It does not alleviate acute attacks of gout
  • Useful in chronic gout to prevent future attacks.
36
Q

Discuss the food with low, moderate and high purine levels.