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Infantry ALC > Tactics > Flashcards

Tactics Flashcards

1
Q

What is tactics?

A

The employment, ordered arrangement, and directed actions of forces in relation to
each other.

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2
Q

What is the the art of tactics?

A

The creative and flexible array of means to accomplish missions, decision making under conditions of uncertainty when faced with a thinking and adaptive enemy, and the understanding of the effects of combat on Soldiers.

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3
Q

What is the science of tactics?

A

The understanding of those military aspects of tactics—capabilities, techniques, and procedures—that can be measured and codified.

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4
Q

What is the difference between the art and science of tactics?

A

An art, as opposed to a science, requires exercising intuition based on operational experiences and cannot be learned solely by study.

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5
Q

What is unified action?

A

The synchronization, coordination, and/or integration of the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort.

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6
Q

What are some unified action partners?

A

Joint Forces
Multi-national forces
U.S. Government agencies

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7
Q

What is the Army’s contribution to unified action?

A

Unified land operations

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8
Q

What is unified land operations?

A

The simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, and defense support of civil authorities across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action.

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9
Q

What is the goal of unified land operations?

A

To establish conditions that achieve the JFC’s end state by applying landpower as part of a unified action to defeat the enemy.

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10
Q

What is the central idea of ULO?

A

How the Army applies combat power through:

1) simultaneous offensive, defensive, and stability, or DSCA, to
2) seize, retain, and exploit the initiative, and
3) consolidate gains.

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11
Q

What are the foundations of ULO?

A

Executed through decisive action
By means of Army core competencies
Guided by mission command

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12
Q

What are the beginning and end points of ULO?

A

The exercise of individual and operational initiative.

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13
Q

What is decisive action?

A

The continuous, simultaneous execution of offensive, defensive, and stability operations or defense support of civil authority tasks.

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14
Q

What is an offensive operation?

A

An operation to defeat or destroy enemy forces and gain control of terrain, resources, and population centers.

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15
Q

What is a defensive operation?

A

An operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability operations.

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16
Q

What is Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA)?

A

Support provided by DOD personnel in response to requests for assistance from another primary agency, lead federal agency, or local authority.

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17
Q

Where does DSCA take place?

A

In the homeland and U.S. territories.

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18
Q

Who has lead responsibility for homeland defense?

A

The DOD

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19
Q

What are the four tenets of Army operations?

A

Simultaneity
Depth
Synchronization
Flexibility

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20
Q

What does the operations structure consist of?

A

Operations process
Combat power
Operational framework

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21
Q

The ________ provide a common organization for critical functions within the operations structure.

A

Warfighting functions

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22
Q

What is combat power?

A

The total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit or formation can apply at a given time.

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23
Q

How do Army forces generate combat power?

A

By converting potential into effective action.

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24
Q

What are the eight elements of combat power?

A 
Leadership
Information
Command and control
Movement and maneuver Intelligence
Fires
Sustainment
Protection
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25
Q

What are the six warfighting functions?

A 
Command and control
Movement and maneuver 
Intelligence
Fires
Sustainment
Protection
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26
Q

How do commanders apply combat power through the warfighting functions?

A

Using Leadership and Information

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27
Q

Commanders apply ______ through mission command.

A

Leadership

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28
Q

_____ enables commanders to make informed decisions on how to best apply combat power.

A

Information

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29
Q

______ encourages the greatest possible freedom of action from subordinates.

A

Mission command

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30
Q

Movement and maneuver include what tasks?

A 
Move
Maneuver
Employ direct fires
Occupy an area
Conduct mobility and counter-mobility operations
Conduct reconnaissance and surveillance
Employ battlefield obscuration
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31
Q

_____ includes understanding threats, adversaries, and weather; and synchronizes information collection with the primary tactical tasks.

A

Intelligence

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32
Q

What warfighting function includes delivering fires; integrating all form of Army, joint, and multi-national fires; and conducting targeting?

A

Fires

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33
Q

Sustainment includes what tasks?

A

Conduct logistics
Provide personnel services
Provide health service support

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34
Q

_____ determines the degree to which potential threats can disrupt operations and then counters or mitigates those threats.

A

Protection

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35
Q

______ is the process a small-unit leader goes through to prepare the unit to accomplish a mission.

A

Troop Leading Procedures

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36
Q

When do the TLPs begin?

A

When the leader is alerted

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37
Q

What are the TLPs?

A 
Receive the mission
Issue the WARNORD
Make a tentative plan
Initiate movement
Conduct reconnaissance
Complete the plan
Issue the order
Supervise and refine
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38
Q

What must happen after receiving the mission?

A

Mission analysis using METT-TC

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39
Q

What is METT-TC?

A 
Mission
Enemy
Terrain and weather
Troops available
Time available
Civilian considerations
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40
Q

What is the 1/3 - 2/3 rule?

A

Leaders use no more than 1/3 of available time for planning and issuing OPORD
Subordinates get 2/3 of available time to plan and prepare for operation

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41
Q

Use _______ to schedule preparation time.

A

Backwards planning

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42
Q

When is the WARNORD issued?

A

As soon as possible after receiving the mission

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43
Q

Things to cover in WARNORD:

A

Who is participating
Time of the operation
Time and place for OPORD

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44
Q

Use _____ as the basis for an estimate of the situation while developing a tentative plan.

A

METT-TC

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45
Q

When can movement be initiated?

A

Anytime throughout the

sequence of the TLPs.

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46
Q

What should a leader seek to do with a reconnaissance?

A

Confirm the PIR supporting their tentative plans.

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47
Q

What is the minimum reconnaissance a leader must conduct?

A

Map recon

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48
Q

The leader completes the plan based on ______ and _______.

A

Reconnaissance

Changes to the situation

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49
Q

During the OPORD, leaders must ensure all soldiers _________.

A

Understand the mission

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50
Q

At a minimum, each subordinate

leader should be able to back brief ______, _______, _______, and _______.

A

Unit mission and intent
Immediate higher commander’s intent
His own tasks and purpose
Time he will issue his unit’s OPORD

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51
Q

Supervise by conducting ______ and ______.

A

Rehearsals

PCCs/PCIs

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52
Q

What is a patrol?

A

A detachment sent out by a larger unit to conduct a specific mission that operates semi-independently and return to the main body upon completion of mission.

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53
Q

Patrolling fulfills the Infantry’s primary function of _______ or report his disposition, location, and actions.

A

Finding the enemy to engage him

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54
Q

Patrols act as ______ or ______ for larger units and the planned action determines the type of patrol.

A

Ground sensors

Early warnings

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55
Q

A patrol can consist of a unit as small as ______.

A

A fire team

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56
Q

Regardless of the type of patrol, the unit needs a clear ______.

A

Task and purpose

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57
Q

What are several specific purposes which can be accomplished by patrolling?

A

Gathering information on the enemy, on the terrain, or on the populace.
Regaining contact with the enemy or with adjacent friendly forces.
Engaging the enemy in combat to destroy him or inflict losses.
Reassuring or gaining the trust of a local population.
Preventing public disorder.
Deterring and disrupting insurgent or criminal activity.
Providing unit security.
Protecting essential infrastructure or bases.

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58
Q

What are the two types of patrols?

A

Combat

Reconnaissance

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59
Q

What are the three types of combat patrols?

A

Raid
Ambush
Security

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60
Q

What are the three types of reconnaissance patrols?

A

Area
Zone
Route

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61
Q

What are the elements of a patrol organization?

A 
Headquarters element
Aid and litter team
Detainee teams
Surveillance team
En route recorder (RTO)
Compass and pace man
Assault team
Support team
Breach team
Search team
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62
Q

Small unit leaders plan and prepare for patrols using ______.

A

Troop Leading Procedures

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63
Q

Because patrols act semi-independently, move beyond the supporting range of the parent unit, and often operate forward of friendly units, ______ must be thorough and detailed.

A

Coordination

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64
Q

What must the leader give when he or other individuals separate from the main body?

A

A five-point contingency plan (GOTWA)

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65
Q

As the patrol leader completes his plan, the following elements are considered:

A 
Essential and supporting tasks
Key travel and execution time
Primary and alternate routes
Signals
Challenge and password
Location of leaders
Action on enemy contact
Contingency plans
66
Q

The departure from friendly lines, or from a fixed base, must be thoroughly ______
and ______.

A

Planned

Coordinated

67
Q

The following patrol base activities at a minimum should be taken into consideration:

A 
Use
Site selection
Planning considerations
Security measures
Occupation
Priorities of work
68
Q

What are the types of rally points?

A 
Initial
Enroute
Objective (ORP)
Reentry
Near- and far-side
69
Q

During ______, the leader pinpoints the objective, selects positions for his squads, teams and adjusts his plan based upon his observation of the objective.

A

His reconnaissance

70
Q

The leader ensures that the objective ______ once he decides to return to the ORP.

A

Remains under continuous observation

71
Q

A ______ provides security and harasses, destroys, or captures enemy troops, equipment, or installations.

A

Combat patrol

72
Q

What is a raid?

A

A surprise attack against a position or installation for a specific purpose other than seizing and holding the terrain.

73
Q

What is an ambush?

A

A surprise attack from a concealed position on a moving or temporarily halted target.

74
Q

What are the types of ambush?

A

Point

Area

75
Q

What are the two planning factor times for an ambush?

A

Hasty

Deliberate

76
Q

A ______ is sent out from a unit location when the unit is stationary or during a halt to search the local area, detect enemy forces near the main body, and to engage and destroy the enemy within the capability of the patrol.

A

Security patrol

77
Q

What are the three essential elements for a combat patrol?

A

Security
Support
Assault

78
Q

______ elements accomplish the mission during actions on the objective.

A

Assault

79
Q

_____ elements suppress or destroy enemy on the objective in support of the assault element.

A

Support

80
Q

______ elements assist in isolating the objective by preventing enemy from entering and leaving the objective area as well as by ensuring the patrol’s withdrawal route remains open.

A

Security

81
Q

A ______ collects information or confirms or disproves the

accuracy of information previously gained.

A

Reconnaissance patrol

82
Q

What is the intent of a reconnaissance patrol?

A

To avoid enemy contact

To accomplish its tactical task without engaging in close combat.

83
Q

______ reconnaissance patrols focus on obtaining detailed information about the enemy activity, terrain, or specific civil considerations within a prescribed area.

A

Area

84
Q

How does an area recon differ from a zone recon?

A

Areas are normally smaller than zones, so units conduct an area recon quicker than a zone recon.

85
Q

______ reconnaissance patrols focus on obtaining detailed information about a specified route and terrain where the enemy could influence movement along a route.

A

Route

86
Q

______ reconnaissance involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, enemy forces, or specific civil considerations within a zone defined by boundaries.

A

Zone

87
Q

What type of recon patrol is deliberate, time-consuming process that takes more time than any other recon mission, and is normally conducted over an extended distance and starts from a line of departure?

A

Zone reconnaissance

88
Q

What are some methods of conducting a zone recon?

A 
Fan
Box
Converging route
Successive sector
Stationary element
89
Q

What are some special types of recon patrols?

A 
Point recon
Contact recon
Civil recon
Tracking recon
Presence recon
90
Q

What are some urban patrolling considerations?

A

Restricted movement
Mounted vs. dismounted
Combined arms
Fire control measures

91
Q

Offensive tasks impose _____.

A

The commander’s will on the enemy

92
Q

What are the characteristics of the offense?

A

Surprise
Concentration
Audacity
Tempo

93
Q

_____ is not a characteristic of the offense.

A

Flexibility

94
Q

What are the four types of offensive operations?

A

Movement to contact
Attack
Exploitation
Pursuit

95
Q

______ is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and to establish or regain contact.

A

Movement to contact

96
Q

Subordinate variations

of a movement to contact include ______ and ______.

A

Search and attack

Cordon and search operations

97
Q

______ is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both.

A

An attack

98
Q

Ambush, counterattack, demonstration, feint, raid, and spoiling are variations of what type of offensive operation?

A

Attack

99
Q

An attack may be _____ or _____, depending on the time available for assessing the situation, planning, and preparing.

A

Hasty

Deliberate

100
Q

______ are distinct tactical combinations of fire and movement with a unique set of doctrinal characteristics that differ primarily in the relationship between the maneuvering force and the enemy.

A

Forms of maneuver

101
Q

What are the six forms of maneuver?

A 
Envelopment
Turning movement
Frontal attack
Penetration
Infiltration
Flank attack
102
Q

_____ is a form of maneuver in which an attacking force seeks to avoid the principal enemy defenses by seizing objectives behind those defenses that allow the targeted enemy force to be destroyed in their current positions.

A

Envelopment

103
Q

_____ is a form of maneuver in which the attacking force seeks to avoid the enemy’s principle defensive positions by seizing objectives behind the enemy’s current positions thereby causing the enemy force to move out of their current positions or divert major forces to meet the threat.

A

A turning movement

104
Q

_____ is a form of maneuver in which an attacking force conducts undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage behind those enemy positions while exposing only small elements to enemy defensive fires.

A

An infiltration

105
Q

_____ is a form of maneuver in which an attacking force seeks to rupture enemy defenses on a narrow front to disrupt the defensive system and gain access to the enemy’s rear.

A

A penetration

106
Q

_____ is a form of maneuver in which an attacking force seeks to destroy a weaker enemy force or fix a larger enemy force in place over a broad front.

A

A frontal attack

107
Q

_____ is a form of offensive maneuver directed at the flank of an enemy.

A

A flank attack

108
Q

What is an example sequence of events for an attack?

A 
Assembly area
Recon and surveillance
Movement to LOD
Maneuver
Deployment
Assault
Consolidation and reorganization
109
Q

The _____ warfighting function is the related tasks and a system that enable commanders to synchronize and converge all elements of combat power.

A

Command and control

110
Q

The _____ warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that move and employ forces to achieve a position of relative advantage over the enemy and other threats. Direct fire and close combat are inherent in maneuver.

A

Movement and maneuver

111
Q

The _____ warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that facilitate understanding the enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations, and other significant aspects of the operational environment.

A

Intelligence

112
Q

The _____ warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that create and converge effects in all domains against the adversary or enemy to enable operations across the range of military operations.

A

Fires

113
Q

The _____ warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that provide support and services to ensure freedom of action, extend operational reach, and prolong endurance.

A

Sustainment

114
Q

The _____ warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that preserve the force so the commander can apply maximum combat power to accomplish the mission.

A

Protection

115
Q

A combat patrol can be organized into what essential elements?

A

Assault element
Breach element (when needed)
Support element
Security element

116
Q

An attack can be organized into what elements?

A

Security force
Main body
Reserve

117
Q

The following comprise what?

  • Mass the effects of fire.
  • Destroy the greatest threat first.
  • Avoid target overkill.
  • Employ the best weapon for the target.
  • Minimize friendly exposure and fratricide avoidance.
  • Plan for limited visibility conditions.
  • Develop contingencies.
A

Principles of direct fire control

118
Q

What are the types of indirect fires available?

A 
M320/M203
Mortars
Artillery
Close air support
Naval gun support
119
Q

What are the methods of fire control?

A 
Oral
Hand-and-arm signals
Prearranged signals
Personal contact
Range cards
SOPs
120
Q

A _____ is an operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability operations.

A

Defensive operation

121
Q

The immediate purpose of the defense is generally to create conditions favorable for the _____.

A

Offense

122
Q

What are the characteristics of the defense?

A 
Disruption
Flexibility
Maneuver
Massing Effects
Operations in Depth
Preparation
Security
123
Q

What are the three types of defensive operations?

A

Area
Mobile
Retrograde

124
Q

What are the three types of obstacles?

A

Tactical
Protective
Supplementary

125
Q

What are the seven defensive techniques?

A 
Sector
Battle Position
Strongpoint
Perimeter
Linear Defense
Non-linear Defense
Reverse Slope
126
Q

A _____ defense consists of phase line sectors arrayed in depth as mutually supporting BP’s on armor restrictive terrain.

A

Sector

127
Q

A _____ defense is a series of mutually supporting BP’s that cover likely enemy areas of approach in a more linear and centralized way.

A

Battle Position

128
Q

A _____ defense holds key or decisive terrain by providing a pivot point and canalizing the enemy.

A

Strong Point

129
Q

A _____ defense disperses the unit in a circular configuration for all around security when there are no adjacent friendly units.

A

Perimeter

130
Q

A _____ defense is used when interlocking and overlapping fields of fires and observation to the front are needed.

A

Linear

131
Q

A _____ defense is used when leaders find it hard to select one decisive point on which to focus combat power.

A

Non-linear

132
Q

A _____ defense is used on terrain that is masked from enemy direct fires and controls the crest of a hill.

A

Reverse Slope

133
Q

What is an engagement area?

A

Where the commander intends to contain and destroy an enemy force using the massed fires of all available weapons.

134
Q

What are the steps for Engagement Area Development (EA DEV)?

A

Identify likely enemy avenues of approach
Determine likely enemy schemes of maneuver
Determine where to kill the enemy
Plan and integrate obstacles
Emplace weapon systems
Plan and integrate IDF
Rehearse the execution

135
Q

What are some defensive priorities of work?

A 
Establish security
Position key weapons
Clear fields of fire and prep range cards
Prepare fighting positions
Emplace obstacles
Prepare alternate positions
Stockpile supplies
136
Q

What is the primary purpose of the reserve force?

A

To regain the initiative through counterattack.

137
Q

An _____ is a communication, written, oral, or by signal, which conveys instruction from a superior to a subordinate.

A

Order

138
Q

What are the two types of orders?

A

Administrative

Combat

139
Q

What are the five types of combat orders?

A 
OPORDs
Service support orders
Movement orders
WARNOs
FRAGOs
140
Q

A _____ is a preliminary notice of an order to follow and does not authorize execution other than planning.

A

WARNO

141
Q

A _____ is an order issued by a commander covering the details for a move of the command.

A

Movement Order

142
Q

An _____ is a directive issued by a commander to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinated execution of an operation.

A

OPORD

143
Q

An OPORD contains, at a minimum, what essential elements?

A 
Task organization
Terrain analysis
Situation
Mission
Execution
Sustainment
Command and Control
144
Q

An OPORD must always specify _____.

A

An execution date and time

145
Q

A _____ is an abbreviated form of an operation order usually issued on a day-to-day basis that eliminates the need to restate unchanged information.

A

FRAGO

146
Q

A _____ is an order that directs the service and support of operations, including administrative movements.

A

Service support order

147
Q

A _____ may be issued with an OPORD.

A

Service support order

148
Q

When is the task organization always given?

A

Before the situation paragraph.

149
Q

What are the two formats for task org?

A

Matrix

Outlined

150
Q

In which paragraph of the OPORD would you find the verbatim mission statements of two echelons higher?

A

Situation

151
Q

What is a mission statement?

A

A short sentence or paragraph describing the unit’s essential task and purpose.

152
Q

In which paragraph of the OPORD would you find the Commander’s Intent?

A

Execution

153
Q

The execution paragraph should contain at a minimum ______ and _____.

A

Scheme of maneuver

Concept of fires

154
Q

Who typically briefs the sustainment paragraph of an OPORD at the platoon level?

A

Platoon sergeant

155
Q

______ are directives given verbally or portrayed graphically by a commander to subordinate units in order to assign responsibilities, coordinate fires and maneuver, and control combat operations.

A

Control measures

156
Q

Graphical control measures include:

A 
Land maneuver
Fire support
Mission command
Mobility operations
Sustainment
157
Q

True or false: Maneuver requires a base of fire to suppress or destroy enemy forces with accurate direct fires; and bounding elements to gain positional advantage over the enemy.

A

True

158
Q

Approach march is historically used when?

A

When fighting conventional military.

159
Q

What publications cover:
Infantry Platoon and Squad
Infantry Rifle Company
Infantry Battalion

A

ATP 3-21.8
ATP 3-21.10
ATP 3-21.20

160
Q

What publication covers Operations?

A

ADP 3-0

161
Q

What publications cover Offense and Defense?

A

ADP 3-90
FM 3-90-1
FM 3-90-2

Infantry ALC (6 decks)

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