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2022 LT Study > Tac Manual > Flashcards

Tac Manual Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 stages of fire development?

A

Incipient stage
Growth Stage
Full Developed Stage
Decay Stage

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2
Q

Describe Flashover

A

a rapid transition between Growth and Fully Developed stage of a fire.
Flashover is not a stage of the fire.
Temperature driven event

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3
Q

Define the Incipient Stage

A

The stage immediately after ignition.

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4
Q

Incipient stage identifiable factors include:

A 
Fire has not affected anything beyond immediate vicinity
Smoke has not reduced visibility
Civ can still breath
Civ can escape without difficulty
Heat from fire is relatively low
Smoke alarms may sound during this stage
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5
Q

Factors effecting extinguishment in Incipient stage

A

Proximity of other flammable fuels
Fire’s access to oxygen
Whether civ can extinguish the fire

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6
Q

According to the author, what is established burning?

A

when a fire is generating enough heat to cause a positive heat to initiate combustion among surrounding fuel sources. Fire spreads from origin to fuels in its path.

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7
Q

Identifying factors for Growth Stage

A

Plume or layer of smoke visible above fire.
Room temp has increased
Windows start to turn brown and may crack
Condensation no longer visible on windows
Shortest stage of fire
Often ends in Flashover

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8
Q

Define the Fully Developed stage

A

When a fire reaches its hottest point and is engulfing all available fuel sources.

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9
Q

What is the most dangerous stage of a fire?

A

The Fully Developed stage due to intense heat.

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10
Q

In the Fully Developed Stage, fire is fought from…

A

a distance.

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11
Q

Define the Decay stage

A

When fire runs out of oxygen or fuel.

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12
Q

Which stage is the longest stage of a fire.

A

The decay stage

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13
Q

Define the Heat Release Rate (HRR)

A

The rate at which heat is produced by a fire.

How quickly specific objects will generate heat to surrounding fuel.

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14
Q

How is Heat Release Rate measured

A

measured in Kilowatts or Megawatts

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15
Q

What examples of Heat Release Rate are given by this author?

A

Christmas Tree 650kW
Mattress and box spring 660kW
Upholstered Chair 2,100kW
Upholstered sofa 3,120kW

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16
Q

How is Heat Flux defined

A

The amount of heat transferred per unit of area. Typically measured in kW per meter squared

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17
Q

What has caused the reduction in time to flashover?

A

Increased use of synthetic materials

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18
Q

Define FlowPath

A

movement of heat and smoke from higher air pressure to lower air pressure locations.
Every opening is a potential flow path

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19
Q

How is flow path commonly used in the fire service?

A

to describe smoke movement and the travel of combustion gases

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20
Q

What is the first step a firefighter can take to reduce the threat of being injured or killed in a flow path?

A

Understand the concept of controlling flow paths

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21
Q

What can be done to impact the movement of smoke and gases? (control flow path)

A

close doors and windows to impact flow path.

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22
Q

How can door control be achieved?

A

Leave one man at the door to help advance hose and control the door as much as possible.

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23
Q

What best describes a ventilation limited fire?

A

A fire whos growth is limited by the amount of available air.

Not enough air to sustain combustion.

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24
Q

A ventilation limited fire can be dangerous because it is similar to…?

A

It is visually similar to a fire in early growth stage.

Introduction of oxygen at this stage can cause a rapid transition back to fully developed

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25
Q

How is combustion described in this book?

A

chemical reaction that depends on fuel, heat, and oxygen.

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26
Q

When does a fire become fuel controlled?

A

When a fire has insufficient combustible material and the HRR is not high enough to ignite nearby fuels.

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27
Q

What are identified as the 4 basic qualities of smoke?

A

Volume, Velocity, Density, and Color

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28
Q

What quality of smoke is the number one warning sign of impending flashover?

A

Velocity/Flow Speed

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29
Q

Laminar smoke indicates

A

The structure is absorbing heat

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30
Q

Laminar smoke is pushed by

A

volume, not heat

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31
Q

Using velocity, what method is described to determine fire location?

A

Look for the fastest smoke coming from the most restrictive opening.

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32
Q

What does density of smoke indicate?

A

the color of smoke, the quality of burning, and the severity of the event

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33
Q

Using smoke density, what can indicate a vent-limited fire?

A

Air sucking into thick smoke indicates vent limited.

likely to grow explosively.

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34
Q

What does the color of smoke indicate?

A

the stage of heating and helps find the fire

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35
Q

White smoke indicates

A

comes from clean white moisture from the early state of heating of any material. Should be slow and laminar

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36
Q

Dirty White smoke indicates

A

early pyrolysis of plastic (slow smoke) or a hot fire far away (fast smoke that has been filtered)

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37
Q

Tan/brown smoke indicates

A

unfinished wood that is pyrolyzing just prior to ignition.

can be a collapse warning sign in lightweight construction.

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38
Q

Black smoke indicates

A

materials heated to the fullest extent

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39
Q

Flat Black smoke indicates

A

mostly carbon infused smoke from serious heating

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40
Q

Glossy black smoke indicates

A

mostly hydrocarbon infused smoke from plastics and other petroleum based products

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41
Q

What are the three steps to smoke assessment?

A

Compare Volume, Velocity, Density, Color
Consider the building and weather influences
Gauge the rate of change

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42
Q

When comparing velocity, volume, density, color, what can turbulent smoke indicate

A

turbulent smoke that fills a box can mean imminent flashover

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43
Q

What can the same color, density, and velocity of smoke from multiple openings indicate?

A

a deep seated fire in walls, floors, or basement

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44
Q

When considering building influences while reading smoke, what can light smoke indicate?

A

a serious fire in a medium, large, or mega structure

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45
Q

What one phenomena is described to turn black smoke to white smoke

A

Subfreezing temperatures

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46
Q

What can thinning smoke density and a lightening of color indicate

A

Fire knocked Down

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47
Q

What happens as smoke density increases and color darkens?

A

chance of smoke ignition increases

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48
Q

At what temperatures does flashover normally occur?

A

Between 900 and 1,100 degrees F

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49
Q

What are some signs of flashover

A

High heat conditions and/or flaming combustion overhead
Dense black smoke
Smoke that pushes out of doorways or windows
Presence of finger of flame at ceiling
Lack of water droplets falling back to floor from attack line.

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50
Q

Flashover can occur in as little as how many seconds?

A

As little as 10 seconds

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51
Q

Describe Backdraft

A

A smoke explosion that can occur when a fire has consumed all available oxygen in a room and more oxygen is rapidly introduced.

An air driven event

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52
Q

What are some signs of backdraft?

A 
Lack of visible flames
Pulsing smoke plumes from openings
Auto-ignition of hot gases at openings
Yellow or brown smoke
Windows look stained (black or brown)
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53
Q

Causes of backdraft include

A

rapid re-introduction of oxygen to an oxygen depleted environment

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54
Q

A carcinogen can be defined as

A

a substance(s) that is capable of causing cancer in living tissues.

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55
Q

How can carcinogens enter the body?

A

The can be inhaled, ingested, or absorbed through skin.

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56
Q

What phenomena can cause an increase in carcinogen absorption?

A

Increased skin temperature

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57
Q

What areas on the body have the highest absorption?

A

neck, groin, forehead, and back

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58
Q

How long after a fire is extinguished can carcinogens remain at high levels

A

Can remain at high levels 45 minutes after extinguishment.

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59
Q

What is the vapor density of Carbon Monoxide (CO)

A

Vapor density of .96

CO will hover, not sink or rise

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60
Q

At what level should CO detectors be mounted?

A

At mid level (3-5 feet)

In the zone where people are breathing

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61
Q

How does CO affect the body?

A

chemical asphyxiant that binds with hemoglobin at a rate 200 times greater than oxygen.

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62
Q

What are some signs of CO poisoning?

A

Disorientation
Weakness
Fainting

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63
Q

What is Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN)?

A

A toxic, flammable, chemical asphyxiant produced during incomplete combustion involving both nitrogen and carbon.

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64
Q

Examples of products that can produce HCN during fires are

A

wool, cotton, resins, upholstered furniture, nylon, polyester

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65
Q

How many more times toxic is HCN than CO

A

HCN is 35 times more toxic than CO

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66
Q

How does HCN enter the body

A

Can be inhaled, ingested, or absorbed into the body.

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67
Q

Signs of HCN in low concentrations

A

eye irritation, nausea, headaches, and confusion

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68
Q

What structures can present an increased risk to fire personnel? (Extremely Dangerous Structure)

A

Enclosed with limited entry/egress
Large-area structure w significant square footage
Below grade fire
Structure with burglar bars
Any other structure that prevents rapid retreat and increases chance of disorientation.

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69
Q

Personnel should not proceed more than how many feet into an Extremely Dangerous Structure

A

No more than 100 feet.

Extra consideration should be given any further than this distance.

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70
Q

What features are important to identify in wind driven fires?

A

High pressure side and Low pressure side

Upwind side and downwind side

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71
Q

What wind speeds should be indicators of possible wind driven fire

A

Wind speeds in of 20 mph or more and/or gusts of 30 mph or more

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72
Q

What is the lowest wind speed given for possible wind driven fire?

A

As low as 6 mph

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73
Q

Where should you not approach a building in wind driven fire situation.

A

Do not approach from low pressure side.

Do not position in the flow path

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74
Q

What is the difference between a potentially wind driven fire and a wind driven fire

A

High wind and Fire in a structure that has all openings closed can be a potentially wind driven fire.

If an opening is made, it becomes a wind driven fire

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75
Q

What is one of the most important characteristics of walls

A

Whether they are load bearing or not.

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76
Q

Describe non load bearing walls

A

Walls not built to support structural elements or contents. Can be decorative or functional to divide spaces.

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77
Q

What are the three types of fire walls mentioned in this publication?

A

Fire Walls
Fire Barriers
Fire Partition

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78
Q

Describe a Fire Wall

A

non combustible masonry walls that extend continuously from the base of a building and terminate above the roof.
Designed as freestanding

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79
Q

Describe a Fire Barrier

A

interior walls of gypsum board or drywall on wood or metal studs that extend from the floor to floor or floor to roof, including concealed spaces.
Subdivide portions of a building, Not structurally self sufficient

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80
Q

Describe a Fire Partition

A

interior walls of gypsum board or drywall on wood or metal studs designed to further compartmentalize a structure.
Not required to extend through concealed spaces

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81
Q

What tactical concerns should be considered for fire walls

A

Adjacent rooms on all sides of walls should be checked for extension
Fire can travel through concealed spaces and man made penetrations in walls
TIC is useful in identifying hot spots behind drywall and gypsum

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82
Q

Describe partition walls

A

A non load bearing interior wall that only supports the material on the wall itself.
Do not support the ceiling or roof
Extend from floor to floor or floor to ceiling joist

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83
Q

Tactical concern for Partition Walls

A

Limited fire rating but can slow fire spread

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84
Q

Describe Party Walls

A

A load bearing wall that is common to two adjoining buildings or rooms and forms the boundry between them.
Usually very thick and support floors and roofs of both structures

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85
Q

Tactical concerns for party walls

A

Failure of this wall will usually lead to building collapse

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86
Q

Describe a parapet wall

A

Free standing non load bearing wall that extends above the roof line for several feet

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87
Q

How can you often estimate the height of a parapet wall?

A

Look for the drainage scuppers in the wall.

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88
Q

Tactical concern for parapet walls

A

Dangerously unstable
Avoid striking with master stream
Do not rest aerial on parapet wall
Consider using a roof ladder to form an A frame to access roof
Collapse zone can span the entire length of the building.

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89
Q

What height range does the author give for tilt walls?

A

Typically 15 - 20 ft tall. May be as high as 40 ft.

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90
Q

How are tilt walls insulated?

A

Tilt walls are insulated with sheets or billets of rigid plastic insulating foam

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91
Q

What weight is given for a tilt wall measuring 8 ft tall, 37 feet long, and 1 foot thick?

A

Over 20,000 pounds.

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92
Q

Testing can give tilt walls a fire rating of how many hours?

A

up to a 4 hour rating.

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93
Q

How are tilt walls joined?

A

By metal tabs welded to steel plates embedded in the walls.

Some walls may only be supported by adjoining walls.

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94
Q

What structural elements are used to stabilize tilt walls and columns against lateral movement?

A

Girders, joists, and floor panels

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95
Q

What are some tactical concerns for tilt walls?

A

Weakest points are the connections in the system.

During collapse, it is likely the structural components will break apart at connections.

Many components may remain connected after collapse and will have to be cut apart.

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96
Q

How do precast concrete walls behave in partial or total collapse.

A

Walls will come down as a unit or in large pieces falling away from or into a building.

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97
Q

What is likely to happen in collapse of precast concrete walls set on foundation walls?

A

Walls are likely to fail at that joint. Sometimes the metal tabs are pulled from the concrete during collapse.

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98
Q

What is likely to happen in collapse of precast concrete walls set on footings?

A

Walls tend to break at or above grade (floor level)

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99
Q

Describe Truss systems

A

a series of structural members joined together to form a rigid framework consisting of rafters, chords, posts, and struts.

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100
Q

What are the 4 types of trusses?

A

Lightweight wood truss
Parallel chord truss
bowstring truss
open web steel bar joist trusses

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101
Q

What are the characteristics of lightweight wood truss?

A

Usually triangular in shape
Most often built using 2x3 or 2x4 board connected with gusset plates
Gusset plates are flat metal connection pieces that penetrate the wood approximately 3/8”

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102
Q

What are the characteristics of parallel chord truss?

A

Constructed by a top and bottom chord running parallel to each other
Can have either wood support pieces or a solid sheet of mdf between the chords.
MDF parallel chord is also called a wide flange beam

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103
Q

What are the characteristics of bowstring truss?

A

Identified by the arch or curve of roof.
Top members are curved pieces of lumber either sawed or laminated to curve.
Bottom pieces are larger straight chords attached with bolts

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104
Q

What are the characteristics of open web steel bar joist truss?

A

Metal truss system used in commercial buildings to support roof or floor systems.
Formed by two flat metal chorts with a bent bar welded at the connection points.

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105
Q

When should the truss system be identified?

A

When preplanning especially when a building is undergoing construction or remodeling.

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106
Q

Where should the attack line be position when dealing with a truss system?

A

Between the exit and the concealed space being opened.

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107
Q

Bowstring trusses tend to force walls in what direction(s)?

A

Outwards and downwards

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108
Q

What time is given for open web steel bar joists to fail when exposed to fire?

A

In as little as 10 minutes

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109
Q

What time is given for lightweight wood trusses when exposed to fire?

A

In as little as 5 minutes

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110
Q

What are the three basic styles of roof given in this publication?

A

Flat, pitched, and curved

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111
Q

Describe flat roof

A

Slight pitch to assist with drainage

Found on warehouses, factories, shopping centers, schools, and commercial buildings.

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112
Q

What roof styles fall into the pitched roof category?

A

Gable, Hip, Gambrel, Mansard, Butterfly, Monitor, Sawtooth, and Shed.

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113
Q

How is pitch measured for roofing systems?

A

Pitch is measured rise of height over run in length.

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114
Q

What range of measurements are used for a Low slope?

A

1/12 to 5/12 or up to 25 degrees

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115
Q

What range of measurements are used for Medium to High slopes?

A

6/12 to 12/12
or
from 25 to 50 degrees

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116
Q

What describes an extreme slope roof?

A

pitch exceeds 15/12 or 55 degrees

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117
Q

When is vertical ventilation performed?

A

Vertical ventilation is not performed unless authorized by On Scene Battalion Chief or FSC.

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118
Q

What roofs are easiest for FF to work on?

A

Flat roof easiest but provide false sense of security.

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119
Q

What must be done before operating on a roof?

A

BC/FSC must get a report from inside to determine where the fire is located and whether roof is involved.

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120
Q

What factors are given to help determine if a pitched room is safe to work on?

A

Slope, roofing materials, and weather conditions

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121
Q

What slope roofs require a roof ladder for operations?

A

Medium to high slope roofs with pitch greater than 12/12 require roof ladders.

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122
Q

What is a commercial structure?

A

Business occupancies that include strip centers, warehouses, highrise buildings, big box stores, and stand alone stores.

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123
Q

How to best describe a podium structure?

A

A mixed use commercial building with commercial stores on the lower level and residential occupancies on upper floors.

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124
Q

Describe strip centers?

A

row of shops that share a common roof system.

May be one to three stories and usually have large display windows

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125
Q

What are characteristics of strip centers?

A

Flat roofs with unprotected steel bar joist truss.
Utilities on rear of building
Partition walls that may not extend to roof
Storerooms and offices almost always in back
Rear doors almost always metal clad with drop bar
Suspended ceilings can hide fire and smoke.

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126
Q

What are characteristics of warehouses?

A 
industrial building used for storage or manufacturing.
high fuel loads
presence of hazardous materials
industrial machinery
large footprint
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127
Q

What are characteristics of high rise buildings?

A

75 ft or more above grade
six or more floors in design
Broadly classified as commercial high rise or residential high rise

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128
Q

What are characteristics of mid rise buildings?

A

Commercial structure with 5 or fewer floors.

Share same features as high rise

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129
Q

What are characteristics of Big Box Stores?

A 
Tall ceilings
high fuel loads
Large foot print
installed sprinkler systems
may be difficult to ventilate
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130
Q

What is one of the most critical initial decisions when dealing with commercial structure fires?

A

selecting the best point of entry to minimize the distance to the fire.

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131
Q

What is one of the most critical tactical decisions when dealing with commercial structure fires?

A

Put the fire out.

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132
Q

What are some of the challenges when fighting commercial structure fires?

A 
entrapment or personnel
entanglement and maneuverability inside
heavy life load
high fuel load 
difficult to access
difficult to search
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133
Q

What are some of the dangers associated with warehouse fires?

A 
long hose lays
disorientation
ventilation challenges
high fuel load
hazardous materials
industrial machinery
large footprint
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134
Q

In a solar system, what is a module?

A

a rectangular unit of solar cells encased in a frame that possesses electrical capacity.
Usually 5.5 ft by 3.5 ft

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135
Q

In a solar system, what is a solar panel?

A

a series of modules connected in a row that captures solar energy in the form of Direct Current.

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136
Q

In a solar system, what is an inverter?

A

Converts DC power from panels to AC power for the building.

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137
Q

What is typically the failure point for a suspended ceiling?

A

the overhead connection to the roof/floor

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138
Q

When making a hole to the attic, what is the recommended size according to this publication?

A

4’ x 4’ minimum.

large enough to clearly see the space and access it.

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139
Q

What are the principal routes of fire extension to the attic?

A

vertical voids and pipe chases

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140
Q

What should be done before removing any panels to HVAC units?

A

shut off the electricity

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141
Q

What picture is often used to indicate the panel to be removed on HVAC units

A

a picture of a hand being pinched in gears

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142
Q

How does this document classify stairs?

A

Open stairs(unenclosed and open to the environment)

Enclosed stairs(compartmentalized from the building to prevent smoke from entering stairwell)

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143
Q

How do you determine if a stairwell has roof access?

A

Typically Roof Access or an R is stenciled at the entrance.

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144
Q

How should stairwells be identified?

A

By using the fire ground orientation. “Bravo stairwell” “Delta Stairwell” etc.

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145
Q

What 3 stairwell conditions must the IC be notified of?

A

Doors that allow entry to the stairwell but no re-entry to the floor

Civilians exiting the stairs as firefighters are ascending

Smoke inside the stairwell

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146
Q

In a high rise, where is the connection to the standpipe made

A

On a lower landing than the fire floor

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147
Q

Which stairwell is best used as the attack stairwell?

A

A stairwell with roof access.

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148
Q

What is the stairway well hole?

A

The gap between the banisters on each landing

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149
Q

What weather can trigger Reverse stack effect?

A

Hot air outside the building can cause reverse stack effect.

hot air rises, stalls at neutral plane, and then pushes down.

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150
Q

What actions are given to pressurize stairwells?

A

Protect the Lobby by venting. Use outside wind to assist.
If smoke in stairwell, use ppv at base. Add more as needed
Boost pressure by placing ppv on an upper (clean) floor. Set back about 4-6 feet
Keep doors to stairwell closed to maintain pressure.

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151
Q

Fire department connections are typically what size?

A

Typically 2 1/2 inch connections.

Newer buildings have Storz connections.

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152
Q

What would require pumping into a building via FDC?

A

If the engineered water sources fail or become overwhelmed.

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153
Q

Where should the apparatus be placed when considering connection to FCD?

A

As close as safely possibly to minimize length.

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154
Q

When should a key pumper be used when pumping an FDC?

A

When the nearest hydrant is more than 200 feet away.

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155
Q

What is the minimum number of connections made to an FDC?

A

Use all intakes if possible, minimum is 2 connections.

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156
Q

What should be done when pressures above 200 psi are needed?

A

utilize tandem pumping. A key pumper at the hydrant will also help with pressures above 200 psi.

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157
Q

Standpipes are designed to provide what pressure from the farthest connection on the top floor?

A

65 psi in older buildings

100 psi in buildings built after 1993

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158
Q

What is the typical friction loss per floor for standpipes?

A

Typically lose 5 psi per floor but can vary.

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159
Q

What are the 4 types of standpipe systems?

A

Wet System
Automatic dry Standpipe
Semi-automatic dry standpipe
Manual dry standpipe

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160
Q

Describe a semi automatic dry standpipe.

A

Water in pipes from source to deluge valve. Pressurized air in most piping from deluge valve to hose outlets. Suited for pipes exposed to freezing temps. Activated when hoses are connected to outlets.

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161
Q

Describe a manual dry pipe system.

A

Think parking garage. No fire pump supplying this system. Requires fire department to pump into them.

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162
Q

Details for Class I standpipe system.

A

2.5 inch connections for FD. Found in high rise without sprinkler system and locations beyond reach of aerial.
Class I is primary means for firefighting.

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163
Q

Details for Class II standpipe system.

A

1.5 inch hose lines provided for occupants to use until FD arrives.

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164
Q

Details for Class III standpipe system.

A

1.5 inch hose stations for trained occupants and 2.5 inch connections for FD.

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165
Q

Where does this publication advise to connect to standpipe?

A

One level below the fire floor.

166
Q

Sprinkler systems are designed to flow what percentage of total number of heads.

A

Designed to flow only 10 percent of the total number of heads.

167
Q

Apartments can have FDC connections as small as?

A

As small as 1.5 inches

168
Q

In a sprinkler system, what is a water control valve?

A

an indicator valve that shows whether or not water is supplied to the system. Tampering will also activate an alarm.

169
Q

In a sprinkler system, what is a wet-pipe valve?

A

automatic valve that is held closed until sprinkler activates. The drop in pressure opens the valve.

170
Q

What are the most common mechanism of action for sprinkler heads?

A

Fusible link
Frangible bulb
Chemical pellet.

171
Q

Where are spare sprinkler heads stored?

A

In the sprinkler cabinet in the sprinkler control room.

172
Q

A sprinkler system is designed to provide water to the highest sprinkler and still have what residual pressure.

A

Still have 15 psi residual pressure.

173
Q

When should you pump into a sprinkler system?

A

Not until ordered to do so by the IC.

174
Q

What tool is used to stop the flow from a sprinkler head?

A

Sprinkler tongs.

175
Q

What sprinkler system elements should be identified in a preplan?

A

The sprinkler riser rooms and the isolation valves.

176
Q

What devices are identified as smoke detectors?

A

Thermal sensor for fire
Ionization sensor for low smoke location
photoelectric sensor to identify smoke
rate of rise sensors

177
Q

What are the alarm conditions described in this document?

A

Alarm: is an active sensor
Supervisory: may indicate a problem with system(low air pressure, shut valve, etc)
Trouble: could indicate low battery, power outage, dirty smoke detector, or electrical fault.

178
Q

What process is described to silence an alarm during response?

A

First press acknowledge and then press silence.

179
Q

Phase I Operation for elevators is?

A

an elevator recall that occurs when alarm is activated at any elevator lobby or in the machine room.

180
Q

How do you identify the elevator recall location?

A

The floor marked by the star on the elevator control panel.

181
Q

How is Phase I operations initiated if its not automatic?

A

Find panel in elevator lobby, insert key and turn to ON position. Phase I initiated for that bank.

182
Q

Phase II elevator operation is ?

A

When fire service takes control of the elevator cars using elevator keys.

183
Q

Process for conducting Phase II operatons?

A

Insert key into elevator control panel and turn to ON.
Perform function test
Move to desired floor (2 floors below fire)
Confirm no fire and turn key to OFF position when exiting elevator. Leave key in switch. This returns car to Phase I ops.

184
Q

Process for elevator function test in phase II ops?

A

Hold door close and release before doors are completely closed. did the doors auto open?
Hold door open and release before doors are completely open. did doors auto close? (peek function)
Select floor and then hit Cancel. Verify floor no longer selected.

185
Q

Phase I elevator ops is automatically activated when?

A

Smoke detected in an elevator lobby or machine room. Or by an elevator key.

186
Q

Do Not enter an elevator without?

A

Flash light, radio, bunker gear, SCBA, forcible entry tools

187
Q

What does a blinking Fire Service Indicator mean?

A

Elevator operation is compromised.

188
Q

When should fire escapes be used?

A

Firefighters should not use fire escapes unless there is no other option to move up and down the structure.

189
Q

What is added to natural gas to give it an odor?

A

Mercaptan is added. Rotten egg odor.

190
Q

Natural gas has a vapor density ______ than air?

A

vapor density lower than air. Will accumulate in elevated locations.

191
Q

Propane has a vapor density _______than air?

A

vapor density higher than air and will sink.

192
Q

Who carries the equipment to detect LEL of natural gas or propane?

A

CPS Energy, BC, HMRT, and TRT.

193
Q

What is the safe operation threshold of airborne gas?

A

10% of the LEL

194
Q

What are the three general basement types described in this text?

A 
No exterior access
Limited exterior access (smaller windows)
Exterior Access (one or more doors)
195
Q

What should be done prior to entry in to a working fire below grade?

A

utilize a quick hit
establish backup line
on deck crews at point of entry

196
Q

Many burglar bars can be attacked at___?

A

The locks or hinges. Connection points to building are often easier to defeat.

197
Q

What are the 3 most common types of wall collapse

A

Inward/Outward
curtain fall
90 degree angle

198
Q

What are the 5 main types of floor collapse

A 
lean to collapse
V shaped collapse
Pancake collapse
Cantilever collapse
A framed collapse
199
Q

Collapse zone for walls?

A

1.5 times the height of the wall.

200
Q

How many volts are usually carried through the primary electrical wires?

A

Usually 7200 volts

201
Q

Voltage is the measure of what in an electrical system?

A

The measure of electrical pressure in a system. The force the electricity is moving through the line

202
Q

Current is the measure of what in an electrical system?

A

measure of electrical volume or flow in a system. measured in amps.

203
Q

A vacant building is described as?

A

uninhabited or not in use.

204
Q

What term is commonly used to describe a home or structure that has fallen into disarray because the inhabitants have accumulated high volumes of materials?

A

Hoarder home/structure

205
Q

What is the purpose of a floor system?

A

support its own weight as well as anticipated static and dynamic loads.

206
Q

What should be considered before opening a window?

A

stage of fire, fire control efforts, wind direction and speed, and the impact this will have on flow path.

207
Q

Where are most rolling doors found?

A

commercial structure loading platforms.

3-5 foot drop adjacent.

208
Q

The SAWS water grid serves how many hydrants?

A

Over 28,000 hydrants normally in the 80-100 psi range.

209
Q

Unauthorized Burn Response

Under International Building Code, SAFD has authority to extinguish any fire that is determined to be…?

A

any fire determined to be unsafe

210
Q

Guideline for open flame cooking devices.

A

Commercial/Multi family occupancy: not allowed on balcony or within 10 ft of combustible surface. Unless using 1 lb propane container

Single family residential: 10 ft rule does not apply. must be commercially sold device

211
Q

Guideline for Fire Pits

A

commercially sold devices permitted.
operated within intended use
Fire attended
means of extinguishment readily available.

212
Q

The key elements of Incident Command are found in what policy.

A

SAFD Incident Management Policy. IMS

Most things under the Response, Arriva, and Situation Evaluation section tell you to refer to IMS policy.

213
Q

This manual states that Engines establish initial attack positions by…?

A

establishing an uninterrupted supply of water.

214
Q

This manual defines the Forward Engine as?

A

usually the first arriving engine, closest to the fire, supplied first, has attack lines deployed from it.

215
Q

For defensive operations, apparatus are to be spotted how far away from masonry or wood structures?

A

spot 1 to 1.5 times the full height of the building. Minimum 30 ft away

216
Q

For defensive operations, apparatus are to be spotted how far away from tilt wall structures?

A

Spot 1.5 times the height of the building.

217
Q

When protecting exposures near defensive areas, where should the pivot point of master streams be placed?

A

place pivot points of master streams on the walls that need to be protected.

218
Q

Engine mounted or ground mounted master streams are most effective when used to apply water through which openings?

A

when applied through horizontal openings as opposed to lobbing water over a wall.

219
Q

Level 1 staging is automatically activated when?

A

the officer of the initial unit arrives and gives their initial radio report and assumes command.

220
Q

Where do apparatus “Level 1?”

A

in an uncommitted position in a direction related to the scene.

221
Q

During 3-1-1 or 4-2-2 response, which units respond directly to the scene?

A

The first arriving unit and the first arriving BC. All others Level 1.

222
Q

Level 2 staging is defined as?

A

used for greater than first alarm.

A location near the incident scene where later arriving resources will assemble.

223
Q

Who identifies the Level 2 location?

A

The IC works with Dispatch to designate the Level 2 location.

224
Q

Which apparatus assumes and manages Level 2 responsibilities?

A

The first arriving Engine company. Designated Level 2 staging manager.

225
Q

The level 2 staging manager has what options for his crew?

A

use them to assist with Level 2 responsibilities
Assign to another company
Can establish a minimum 2 person company

226
Q

How should the Level 2 staging manager relay assignments to companies from IC?

A

Either via Level 2 radio channel or face to face.

227
Q

What information is relayed to Level 2 companies when they are assigned?

A

TLO( Task, Location, Objectives)
Division/Group sup they are to report to
Tac channel they are to operate

228
Q

Characteristics of a Smooth Bore nozzle?

A

Greater penetration.
Can be used on 1 3/4, 2, and 2.5 inch lines
Less Steam conversion

229
Q

Characteristics of a Fog nozzle?

A

Increased heat absorption/expansion
Shorter reach
Can be used on 1 3/4, 2, and 2.5 inch lines
Most effective for protecting exposures.

230
Q

Characteristics of a 1 3/4” hand line?

A

Fast deployment
Most mobile when charged
150-200 GPM

231
Q

Characteristics of 2’ hand line?

A

Slower deployment and mobility
GPM depends on pump pressure and nozzle type
Typically 185-250 GPM

232
Q

Characteristics of 2.5” hand line

A

Slowest deployment
Difficult to move when charged
Usually used with smooth bore nozzles
200-325 GP

233
Q

Characteristics of Engine Mounted master Streams?

A

Fast to set up and operate
Large volume
Great reach and penetration
500-1,000 GPM

234
Q

Characteristics of Ground master streams?

A

Slow to set up

500 GPM

235
Q

Characteristics of Elevated master streams?

A

Slow to set up

500-2,000 GPM

236
Q

A horizontal standpipe should be considered when?

A

In situations where 200’ of hose will not reach the fire.

Apartment complexes, commercial structures, etc.

237
Q

Once fire knockdown is achieved, fire control crews must continue to reduce the interior temperature below ___ to improve survivability.

A

reduce temp below 200 F

238
Q

All hose lines entering the hot zone for fire control must have what minimum flow?

A

Minimum 150 GPM

239
Q

What is the maximum distance attack crews enter a structure?

A

No further than 170 feet.

240
Q

How does this manual indicate a wind driven fire is to be attacked?

A

Identify the high pressure side of the structure. Attack from the high pressure side by applying water from the outside before entering.

241
Q

For a wind driven or potentially wind driven fire, never enter or advance from what side of the structure?

A

Never enter from the low pressure side

242
Q

What unit is in the best position to evaluate overall effectiveness of the fire attack?

A

A strategically positions IC is in best position.

Interior crews in worst position.

243
Q

What are the seven sides of a fire?

A 
The interior/inside
The top (includes ceilings, attics, and floors above)
The bottom (includes floor below, crawl spaces, basements.)
The 4 sides and the concealed spaces of those sides.
244
Q

Fire Knocked Down bench mark indicates>?

A

Fire has been knocked down but Not checked for extension

245
Q

Fire Control benchmark indicates

A

main body of fire has been extinguished and no extension is found.

246
Q

When does the IC transmit the Under Control benchmark

A

When all units/DGS transmit Fire Control, primary and secondary all clear, and no other resources are required to complete the remaining tactical priorities.

247
Q

The rescue/fire control/exposure problem is solved by?

A

fast, well placed water application that puts water on the fire as soon as possible.

248
Q

How does this manual define a Quick Hit?

A

an initial offensive tactic in which water is applied from the exterior just prior to entry.

249
Q

Which conditions may warrant a Quick Hit?

A

Fire companies have not yet made entry
Significant fire or smoke is venting from an opening
There will be a delay in attacking the fire

250
Q

What stream is used for a Quick Hit?

A

Always use a straight stream or smooth bore. Never use a semi fog or fog stream.

251
Q

What is the goal of a Quick Hit?

A

knock the fire down to allow entry. Should take no longer than 45 seconds.

252
Q

What are the 4 main types of forcible entry tools?

A 
Cutting tools(axes, saws, bolt cutters)
Prying tools(haligan, pry bar, hydraulic tools)
Striking tools(maul, flat head, denver tool)
Pushing/pulling tools(pike poles and hooks)
253
Q

Company forcible entry tools should include?

A

One striking tool and one prying tool.

254
Q

How does this manual define Fire Extension (simply extension)?

A

a thorough inspection to ensure that the fire has been completely extinguished.

255
Q

How is the Key Pumper defined?

A

an engine that makes direct connection to a hydrant and then pumps water to the forward engine.

256
Q

Why would a Key pumper be used?

A

To overcome friction loss in the supply hose(up to 1,000 feet) and delivers max GPM possible from hydrant(up to 2,000 GPM using 5”)

257
Q

How is a Relay Pumper defined?

A

An engine between the key pumper and forward engine.
Flows of 1,000 GPM or less, placed every 1,000 ft
Flows over 1,000 GPM, placed every 500 ft.

258
Q

When is a manual hose lay used?

A

firefighter pulls 5 inch supply from forward engine to hydrant and make direct connection. Within 200 ft.

259
Q

How is Dual Pumping defined?

A

a supplied engine sharing water with another apparatus.

Connection is intake to intake

260
Q

How is Tandem Pumping defined?

A

An engine pumping to another engine or aerial from a pressurized discharge.
Key pumper is tandem pumping to forward engine.

261
Q

How is a Horizontal Standpipe defined?

A

extending a 3” hose from the engine to the fire scene.

Can supply blitzfire, a 2.5 inch attack line, 2 1.75 inch attack lines, elevated standpipe.

262
Q

How is the Tank Transfer Evolution defined?

A

supporting engine connects to forward pumper from 2.5 inch discharge to 2.5 inch inlet. water is pumped from supporting pumper to forward pumper.

263
Q

This manual defines a significant working fire as?

A

one that will require 400 gpm or more.

almost always requires a key pumper unless hydrant within 300 ft.

264
Q

Level 1 for engines?

A

one block from fire scene at a hydrant.

265
Q

This manual defines what as the key to effective attack positioning?

A

Water is the key to effective attack positioning.

266
Q

The max apparatus speed when laying supply line is?

A

max speed is 10 mph.

267
Q

When making water supply tactical decisions, what estimations for GPM are given?

A

2 hand lines: 400 gpm
1 master stream: 1,000 gpm minimum
2 master streams: 2,000 GPM minimum

268
Q

A 6 inch main is estimated to flow how many gpm?

A

800 gpm

269
Q

An 8 inch main is estimated to flow how many gpm?

A

1,600 gpm

270
Q

A 10 inch main is estimated to flow how many gpm?

A

3,000 gpm

271
Q

Where can main sizes be found

A

On the CAD map display

272
Q

What is the average pressure of hydrants in San Antonio?

A

Average of 75 psi.

273
Q

What friction loss can be expected in 5 inch hose?

A

flowing 1,000 gpm: 8 psi per 100 ft

flowing 2,000 gpm: 32 psi per 100 ft

274
Q

What friction loss can be expected in 3 inch hose

A

flowing 200 gpm: 3 psi per 50 ft

flowing 350 gpm: 10 psi per 50 ft

275
Q

What is NFPA 1901 and how does it pertain to apparatus?

A

It is a safety feature on engines. Cavitation protection

Electronic pressure governor will return to idle if inlet pressure drops 30 psi or more in a 3 second period.

276
Q

How does staging key pumpers on hydrants enhance fire ground safety?

A

Ensures uninterrupted water supply
Provides max hydrant volume
Reduces scene congestion
Provides ability to pump through forward engine in the event of mechanical failure.

277
Q

Lines supplying aerial devices, large bore master streams, or several hand lines should be pumped when distances exceed ___?

A

lays exceeding 300 ft in length should be pumped in these situations.

278
Q

Water shuttle operations should be set up when?

A

A hydrant is not located close enough to the scene to provide pressurized water.

279
Q

This manual defines what as the solution to a successful water shuttle operation?

A

the initial portable water tank set up location and minimizing the idle time of water shuttling apparatus.

280
Q

What are the three main components to a water shuttle operation?

A

Dump site
Travel time
Fill site

281
Q

What consideration must be made when establishing a dump site for water shuttle operations?

A

apparatus must be spot to maximize water shuttle apparatus access in and out, around the water tanks, and the scene in general.

282
Q

What order is given by this manual when choosing fill sites for water shuttle operations?

A

Hydrants that are locates closest to the scene
Well pumping stations that are located closest to the scene
Drafting location

283
Q

What does this manual say is the Best tactic used in addressing the Life Safety tactical priority?

A

control the fire as quickly and safely as possible.

284
Q

What three methods are given for the IC to address Life Safety in offensive fires?

A

Protect in Place
Primary search
Secondary search.

285
Q

The Rescue Order is used to prioritize and manage searches. What is the Rescue Order?

A

The most endangered
The largest group
The remainder of the fire area/structure
The exposures

286
Q

What is given as the most urgent reason for requesting a greater alarm?

A

to cover the life safety tactical priority.

287
Q

Which tactic is more effective to address life safety when encountering larger, high density, compartmentalized multi unit/room residential structures?

A

The Protect in Place tactic for persons not directly exposed to the incident hazards.

288
Q

What must command do when primary search companies encounter victims?

A

assign other companies to continue to cover the interior search positions vacated by those companies.
must also request necessary medical treatment for victims.

289
Q

When does this manual say that primary searches should not be conducted?

A

In large, non residential spaces where companies will outwork their air supplies.
Defensive operations

290
Q

What does this manual say is a good rule of thumb for primary searches?

A

Primary searches should be considered on any occupancy with beds.

291
Q

In general, the order of search priority is?

A

The fire floor
Floor above the fire
Top floor
Remaining floors starting with the second to top floor working down.

292
Q

What is given as the exception to the rule that Search always be protected by a hose line?

A

conducting the Vent, Enter, Isolate, Search tactic.

293
Q

The oriented search method is not suitable for which structures?

A

Not suitable for large area structures

294
Q

In the Oriented Search tactic, what is the primary focus of the oriented person?

A

monitor conditions as well as maintaining orientation and crew integrity.

295
Q

What is the general description of the VEIS search technique?

A

involves firefighters enter a structure through a window, isolate the room by closing the door, quickly searching the room, and exiting back through the window.

296
Q

In what structures can VEIS be used?

A

single and/or multi-story structures as well as buildings where multiple points of entry are needed for rescue.

297
Q

How many firefighters are needed for the VEIS techinique?

A

2 to 3 firefighters.
1 to 2 searchers and
1 to monitor conditions from outside the window.

298
Q

If using a ladder for VEIS, where should the ladder rungs be placed?

A

ladder rungs should be placed at the bottom of the window sill to facilitate entry and exit.

299
Q

During VEIS, what is the first thing that must be done after entering the structure.

A

First thing is to close the door. Even if a victim is found.

300
Q

In early stages of decay when a fire becomes vent controlled, what is the limiting factor for fires progression?

A

lack of oxygen.

301
Q

Vertical ventilation shall not be considered until after what benchmark?

A

No Vertical ventilation until after Fire Knocked Down is achieved.

302
Q

What three techniques are given for effective horizontal ventilation?

A

Natural ventilation
Hydraulic ventilation
Mechanical Ventilation

303
Q

Natural ventilation is utilized when wind speeds are above?

A

wind speeds above 6-8 mph.

Mechanical ventilation below this speed.

304
Q

With proper manipulation, fog and smooth bore nozzles can move how many CFM?

A

10,000 to 18,000 CFM when flowing through horizontal openings

305
Q

Where is the RIT team positioned>

A

Just outside the hazard zone.

306
Q

RIT responsibilities include?

A 
Bring tools
Identify which companies are inside
Perform 360
Soften the structure(remove burglar bars etc.)
Consider a hose line to the door.
307
Q

What tools does this manual indicate the RIT team should carry?

A

RIT bag
Forcible entry tools (including saw)
TIC
Hand lights

308
Q

Research has shown that firefighter Mayday rescues are performed by a dedicated RIT team in what percentage?

A

Only 11 percent of the time by a RIT team.

309
Q

On deck is defined as?

A

a “forward staging” position located immediately outside the hot zone.

310
Q

What is the on deck crews first priority when assigned?

A

They are first and foremost a RIT until given an assignment in the hot zone.

311
Q

As occupants arrive at occupant services, what information should be gathered.

A

Name, telephone number, and number of occupants including pets.
Any emergency shelter needs
Salvage priorities including important medications.

312
Q

Occupant supplies are stored on what apparatus?

A

The MAC

313
Q

When is Occupant services demobilized?

A

when occupants have shelter or other arrangements secured and transportation has been arranged.

314
Q

Where should salvage efforts begin?

A

in areas most severely threatened by damage.

315
Q

What is the goal of Overhaul?

A

goal is to reduce the incidence of secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize the incident scene while providing for firefighter safety.

316
Q

Overhaul should be closely coordinated with what other unit?

A

Closely coordinated with the Fire Investigators.

317
Q

This manual recommends Command establish how many REHAB locations at working incidents.

A

Establish at least 1 REHAB location.

318
Q

Who informs REHAB where to set up on scene?

A

The IC or Logs informs REHAB where to set up.

319
Q

Units can be assigned what two options once REHAB is complete?

A

assigned back to the incident scene through the REHAB manager or demobilized.

320
Q

Recycling is defined as?

A

a timely and efficient means of air bottle replacement.

321
Q

If conditions permit, a crews work cycle could be up to how many bottles?

A

up to 2 to 3 air cylinders

322
Q

Elements of a roof report include?

A 
Featured indicating fire involvement
Temperature differences found with a TIC
Sagging
Fire walls
High loads such as HVAC units, solar panels
323
Q

What is softening the structure?

A

Making the scene safer for interior fire personnel.

Removing obstacles from entry/egress points.

324
Q

When selecting an entry point in an Extremely Dangerous Structure, what consideration should be given?

A

consideration should be given before committing more than 100 feet into an extremely dangerous structure

325
Q

What actions should be avoided at an Extremely Dangerous Structure?

A

companies operating alone inside the structure
operating inside without a nearby hoseline to protect them
Extending inside beyond 100 ft.

326
Q

What is given as one of the frequent causes of wind driven fire?

A

The sudden failure of a window from high heat or unplanned ventilation.

327
Q

Over pressurization of a compartment can cause a fire to show what behavior?

A

Can cause a fire to “burp” or pulsate

328
Q

Wind reports given by dispatch are usually taken from what point in the city?

A

Usually taken from the airport

329
Q

What is the preferred location to enter a structure in a wind driven fire?

A

Enter from the flanks

330
Q

What actions should be avoided in a wind driven or potentially wind driven fire?

A

Entering the structure from the low pressure side.
Placing your apparatus on the low pressure side
uncoordinated ventilation

331
Q

What is the primary concern for food on the stove fires?

A

fire extension into concealed spaces above and around the stove.

332
Q

Any fire involving the vent hood justifies?

A

opening spaces above and around the ductwork

333
Q

What actions should be avoided in Food on the Stove fires.

A

Cancelling companies before extension is completed
Secondary damage due to unnecessary water usage
Carrying boiling or burning food products through any part of the structure to cool outside.

334
Q

What is the preferred agent for extinguishing Grease fires?

A

ABC agent or CO2 extinguishers

335
Q

For grease fires in ductwork, consider applying extinguishing agent from where?

A

Consider applying extinguishing into the exhaust system from the top.

336
Q

What actions should be avoided during Grease fires?

A

Cancelling companies before checking for extension.
Using water for grease fires
Plunging a stream into grease. (splash burns)

337
Q

What considerations should be given for electric vehicle fires?

A

Establish water supply and request another engine
Keep your distance as batteries can rapidly ignite
Buses may have batteries on roof
Consider calling HMRT for excessive runoff

338
Q

What actions should be avoided during vehicle fires?

A

Approaching from downwind
Approaching from front/rear of vehicle
Tunnel vision on the fire and ignoring traffic hazards.

339
Q

The MC306/406 identifier is used for what vehicle?

A

Cargo tank trailer. Commonly referred to as Gasoline tankers

340
Q

As a rule of thumb, gasoline will burn at what rate?

A

Will burn at a rate of one foot of depth per hour regardless of surface area

341
Q

At what temperature will an aluminum cargo tank melt?

A

1,200 F

342
Q

BLEVE in an MC306/406 is highly unlikely due to the low operating pressure of?

A

3 psi

343
Q

How much class B foam is carried on each of the two HMRT engines?

A

Each engine carries 300 gallons of Class B foam (AR-AFFF)

344
Q

What type of foam should be used for ethanol fires?

A

Alcohol Resistant foam should be used

345
Q

What actions should be avoided for MC306/406 fires?

A

Approaching from downwind, downhill
Parking apparatus close to the fire
Using solid streams of water
Directing runoff into storm drains

346
Q

Vehicle fires in a parking garage should be approached from what direction?

A

Should be approached from uphill. Any leaking fuel will run downhill.

347
Q

What actions should be avoided in Parking garage fires?

A

Firefighters becoming separated from hose line.
Approaching from downhill
Utilizing residential tactics

348
Q

What extinguishing agent should be used for electrical fires in energized equipment?

A

Non conductive agents such as CO2.

349
Q

What actions should be avoided in electrical fires?

A

Using water on or near electrically charged equipment
Pulling electrical meters
Checking for extension without ensuring electricity is turned off
Re-energizing any area that was involved in fire

350
Q

What main concerns are given for electrical vault fires?

A

High voltage, electrocution, toxic smoke, explosions

351
Q

Does SAFD enter electrical vault?

A

Not for any reason before CPS energy arrival.

352
Q

Structures with solar panels receive electricity from what three sources?

A

the solar panels,
back up batteries
CPS Energy

353
Q

When applying hose stream to a 1,000 volt DC source, the nozzle should be adjusted to what spray pattern?

A

A solid stream adjusted to a 10-degree semi fog cone pattern.
Can reduce measured current below perception as close as 5 ft.

354
Q

This manual states firefighters must not approach within how many feet of a DC power source?

A

Do not approach within 10 ft.

355
Q

What procedure is used to disconnect power into the structure with solar panels?

A

Open DC disconnect switch at the inverter
Shut off the AC disconnect to stop outside electricity
Disconnect any batteries

356
Q

What actions should be avoided on Solar panel fires?

A

Using a solid stream on solar panels
Stepping on panels
Contacting or handling leaking contaminants
Operating in areas where solar panel equipment may slide off roof.
Assuming solar equipment is ever de-energized

357
Q

What is the most common structure fire?

A

Residential structure fires

358
Q

What must be considered a priority at residential structure fires?

A

Occupant life safety is critical and must be a priority.

359
Q

When exposed to fire, lightweight construction can fail is as little as…?

A

as little as 10 minutes.

360
Q

What actions should be avoided during single family residential structure fires?

A

Complacency due to Routine attitude
Freelancing
Disregarding accountability
Unnecessary secondary damage.

361
Q

What concerns are given to consider for garage fires?

A

Collapse of overhead door
Collapse of overhead storage
Rapid fire growth, high fuel load
Unfinished garage can lead to rapid spread to attic.

362
Q

How does this manual recommend to cut an overhead door?

A

Vertical cuts approximately six inches from the tracks and horizontally across the top.

363
Q

What action should be avoided in garage fires?

A

Attacking from the interior of the house.

364
Q

In apartment fires, when does this manual say a second alarm should be requested?

A

Request a second alarm for a working fire

365
Q

What equipment should be taken when investigating apartment fires?

A

Take a portable extinguisher.

366
Q

How does this manual recommend apartment numbers be given to command?

A

include the floor and orientation

(into 1504, floor 2, on the Charlie side.

367
Q

For fires in apartment buildings, where does this manual indicate is ideal to set up cut off points?

A

Breezeways and stairwells are ideal for cut off points.

368
Q

What actions should be avoided during apartment fires?

A

Confusion regarding fire ground orientation
Using red line for fire control
Relying solely on private hydrants
Apparatus congestion
Failing to forecast incident progression.

369
Q

Townhomes are similar to apartments. What concerns are given for townhomes that are different from apartments?

A

Townhomes are larger and each unit will have 2 or more floors. Stairs accessed in each individual unit.
Companies cannot move laterally from unit to unit on upper floors.

370
Q

What action should be avoided in Townhome fires?

A

Failure to identify the structure as a townhome.

371
Q

What companies are sent for the initial response to a highrise fire?

A

2 BC, 5 Engines, 3 Aerials, 1 MOF, 1 Medic, Safety.

372
Q

What companies are sent for a second alarm at a highrise fire?

A

4 Engines, 2 Aerials, 3 BC, 1 FSC, 1 MSC, 2 MAC, 2 MOF, 2 Medics, Rehab bus, Command bus

373
Q

In a highrise fire, what should be the priority even when resources are lacking?

A

Fire control should be the priority.

374
Q

Initially at highrise fires, what best practices to accomplish?

A 
Size up using alarm panel an info from responsible party.
Call for 2nd alarm for working fire
Attack
Lobby Control
Supply FDC
Vent group to protect stairwell
On deck pool in lobby from first alarm
375
Q

What actions should be avoided at highrise fires?

A

Deploying crews prior to confirming fore location
Using elevators prior to confirming safe operation
Breaking exterior windows on upper floors without authorization
Launching an attack with civilians in same stairwell

376
Q

In a highrise fire, where is the dedicated RIT staged?

A

One floor below the fire

377
Q

In a highrise fire, what is done 2 floors below the fire?

A

Rehab

Personnel and Equipment staging

378
Q

When considering a quick hit on a highrise fire, this manual indicates aerial master streams can reach how many floors?

A

Aerial streams can reach approx 12 floors

379
Q

What action should be taken on elevators that are not automatically recalled?

A

They should be placed in Phase I operation.

380
Q

What to conditions will dictate elevator use in Phase II at highrise fires?

A

Working Fire - Do not use bank that serves fire floor unless authorized by IC.
Nothing Showing - ascend to 2 floors below suspected floor.

381
Q

In highrise fires, what shall be reported while in the stairwell?

A

Evacuation progress
Smoke in stairwell
Stairwell doors locked

382
Q

What additional tools are listed for first alarm companies to a highrise fire?

A

Highrise pack
Tools for forcible entry and extension
TIC
PPV to lobby

383
Q

Where is the standpipe connection made in highrise fires?

A

1 floor below the fire

384
Q

What is the priority order for pressurizing stairwells from smoke?

A
  1. Attack stairwell

2. Evacuation stairwell.

385
Q

Which group is accountability for all companies entering and leaving the highrise building?

A

Lobby Control

386
Q

Midrise buildings share the most of the same concerns as highrise buildings. What concerns are given in addition to the highrise concerns?

A

Most modern midrise buildings are lightweight construction which could lead to rapid fire spread and early collapse.
Lack of or Inoperable stanpipe

387
Q

What actions should be avoided in midrise fires?

A

Using elevators.

Using fire escapes in older buildings

388
Q

Podium/Mixed use buildings usually consist of how many floors?

A

Usually 4 - 5 floors.

389
Q

What actions should be avoided during fires in podium/mixed use buildings?

A

Using elevators

Confusion regarding fire ground orientation.

390
Q

What concerns are given for Strip center fires?

A

HazMat can be present
Lateral fire spread
Heavy security on rear doors

391
Q

At a strip center fire at night, what should be considered when initial companies report light smoke?

A

Consider Vent limited fire

392
Q

What actions should be avoided in strip center fires?

A

Vertical ventilation above a working fire

Getting onto the roof without authorization from IC.

393
Q

In commercial structures/big box stores, sprinkler activation can create what condition?

A

Can create cold smoke resulting in rapidly deteriorating visibility.

394
Q

What actions should be avoided in commercial/big box store fires?

A

No company should operate alone or without hose protection
Committing too far into the structure
Taking dry lines into the structure.

395
Q

What indications are given for possible below grade fires?

A

Smoke lazily issuing from multiple floors and windows with no visible flame.
Smoke that does not life when an entry point is made into the structure.

396
Q

What special designation should be given to below grade fires?

A

Should be declared Extremely Dangerous Structure.

Include in initial or follow up report.

397
Q

For below grade fires, where should crews not be positioned?

A

Above the fire on in the flow path.

398
Q

What actions should be avoided in below grade fires?

A

Personnel operating over the fire area
Uncoordinated ventilation
Crew entering the sub level alone

399
Q

What is the priority in wildland fires when resources are lacking?

A

The protection of residential structures is should be the priority.

400
Q

What weather conditions are a concern for wildland fires?

A

High winds (direction and speed)
Relative Humidity
Temp
Drought Conditions

401
Q

What attack method is given as a key priority during wild land fires?

A

Get to the flanks and push into the fire from the sides.

402
Q

What special outside agency should be considered to assist with wildland fires?

A

Consider calling Eagle for assistance

403
Q

During wildland fires, where should rehab be established?

A

Rehab should be established in each division.

404
Q

What actions should be avoided in wildland fires?

A

Frontal attack on the fire
Downwind attack
Positioning at the head of the fire
Positioning uphill of the fire

405
Q

What actions should be avoided during mulch fires?

A

Allowing the responsible party to operate independently of SAFD
Walking on mulch piles
Positioning apparatus too close to piles.

406
Q

What is a critical consideration for small aircraft fires?

A

Scene preservation is critical.

Do not move things unless absolutely essential.

407
Q

What common sources of smoke and odor are inside HVAC units?

A

Broken/Damaged fan belt
Failed Motor
Burned electrical wiring

408
Q

What action should be avoided for HVAC fires?

A

Avoid relying on the buildings HVAC system for smoke removal.

409
Q

What action is given to avoid for Hoarder home fires?

A

Committing to an early primary search prior to Fire Knocked Down.

410
Q

When is it possible that the Mercaptan is removed from natural gas?

A

For leaks below ground, mercaptan can be scrubbed rendering natural gas odorless.

411
Q

What actions should be avoided during gas leaks/fires?

A

Reopening the valve once the gas is shut off
Relighting pilot lights
Extinguishing a gas fire before isolating the source.

2022 LT Study (8 decks)

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