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ENJJPT (EK20) > T-6 DASH ONE > Flashcards

T-6 DASH ONE Flashcards

1
Q

What is the T-6 Gross Weight?

A

4.900 pounds

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2
Q

What is the T6 maximum take off gross weight?

A

6.500 pounds

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3
Q

May solo flights be conducted from the back seat?

A

No – only from the front seat.

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4
Q

How much Horse Power is the T-6 engine rated to produce?

A

1.100 HP

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5
Q

What is the oil capacity of the oil system?

A

18,5 quarts

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6
Q

The oil level must be serviced within ____ minutes of engine shutdown?

A

30 minutes

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7
Q

What is the EDM? What does EDM abbreviate?

A

Engine Data Manager.

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8
Q

What does SCU abbreviate? And what does the SCU do?

A

Signal Conditioning Unit.

Contains the logic to illuminate the warning annunciators on the Central Warning System (CWS).

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9
Q

What is wrong if the amber OIL PX annunciator illuminates a single momentary time during maneuvering?

A

Nothing is wrong – it illuminates due to the sensitivity of the SCU (Signal Conditioning Unit).

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10
Q

What is wrong if the oil pressure indicator indicates normal oil pressure while both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators are lit?

A

Failure of the Signal Conditioning Unit (SCU)

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11
Q

How is engine power output measured?

A

By the torque produced by the Reduction Gearbox (RGB).

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12
Q

What does the RGB (Reduction Gearbox) do – and where is it mounted?

A

The RGB reduce power turbine output of 30.000 RPM to the propeller operating at 2.000 RPM. It is mounted on the front of the engine and driven by hot gasses from the power turbine. No mechanical connection ties the RGB to the turbine.

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13
Q

What does PMU abbreviate? And what does the PMU do?

A

Power management unit.

Automatically controls the propeller blade angle (Pitch) and propeller speed (Np)

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14
Q

To which altitude is 100% torque available on a standard day?

A

Up to app. 12.000’ – 16.000’

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15
Q

What is the constant speed of the propeller in RPM?

A

2.000 RPM

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16
Q

How is the propeller maintained at a constant speed?

A

The PMU (Power Management Unit) controls the propellor RPM by varying the propellor blade angle (Pitch) through the PIU (Propellor Interface Unit).

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17
Q

How is propeller speed maintained at 2.000 RPM when the PMU malfunctions?

A

The mechanical flyweight over speed governor modulates oil pressure to maintain Np at or below 100 plus/minus 2% RPM.

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18
Q

Which are the methods to feather the propeller?

A

With PMU in NORM shutting down the engine with the PCL will give a signal til the prop servo valve to drain the propeller oil pressure. If PMU is OFF – no signal is send.

Placing the PCL to cut-off also activates micro switches that power the feather dump solenoid valve which also dumps oil pressure from the propeller.
If PROP SYS C/B is pulled the solenoids will not be powered.

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19
Q

What is wrong if dashes are displayed for the RPM and torque values?

A

By cycling the PMU switch you can reset the system if the fault occurred due to a propeller rate limit exceedance. But if the fault is caused by a faulty sensor resetting the system does nothing.
So by recycling the PMU switch you can find out, what is wrong.

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20
Q

How many positions does the starter switch have?

How does the starter switch work?

A

AUTO/RESET, NORM and MANUAL.
Spring-loaded to NORM.
Lift over detent to MANUAL.

Selecting MANUAL will engage the starter until moved out of MANUAL.

Momentarily placing the switch in AUTO will engage the starter and energize the ignition system.

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21
Q

What to do if the IGN SEL annunciator remains continuously illuminated?

A

Inform maintenance after the mission.

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22
Q

Which buttons and switches are located on the PCL’s (Power Control Lever)?

A

Rudder trim
Speed Brake
UHF/VHF comms
ICS (Intercommunications system)

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23
Q

If during ground operations the PCL is inadvertently moved to cutoff – do not attempt to move the PCL back to idle in an attempt to relight the engine?

TRUE / FALSE ??

A

TRUE

If done – severe damage to the engine could occur.

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24
Q

What does the EDM (Engine Data Manager) monitor?

A 
Engine parameters – and illuminates annunciators as necessary.
Also monitors:
Fuel balancing
Fuel quantity indications,
DC volts and AMPs,
HYD pressure,
Cockpit pressure altitude,
Cockpit differential pressure.
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25
Q

What is Np and Ni respectively?

A

Np is propeller speed.

Ni is gas generator speed.

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26
Q

How many Electronic Instrument Displays are there in each cockpit?
Which?

A

3:
Primary Engine Data Display
Alternate Engine Data Display
Engine/System display

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27
Q

What is wrong when “EDM FAIL” is displayed in the lower portion of the affected Electronic Instrument Display (EID)?

A

The EID is not receiving all the required data In the proper format.

Only those data replaced by dashes are invalid – the rest are functioning normal.

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28
Q

How is the PMU (Power Management Unit) normally powered?

If primary power source is lost?

A

By the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA).

The battery bus is the secondary backup power source.

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29
Q

When does the PMU (Power Management Unit) switch from primary power source (PMA) to the secondary power source (Battery)?

A

When the PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) fails.
or
When the propeller RPM (Np) drops below 40-50%.

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30
Q

What are the two operating modes of the PMU (Power Management Unit)?
Describe them?

A

Ground and Air mode.

Weight on wheels switches on the main gear strut controls the modes.

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31
Q

What is idle power on the ground and in the air?

A

60-61% Ni on the ground.
Minimum 67% Ni in the air.
Above 10.000’ the PMU raises the Ni to maintain the Np above 80%.

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32
Q

What is wrong if the idle Ni is 67% on the ground (Normal is 60-61% Ni)?

A

The LDG GR CONT c/b may be tripped
or
Weight on wheel issue

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33
Q

The PMU provides an autostart capability with a built in automatic shutdown feature in case of hot/hung starts.
Are the autostart and shutdown features available on ground and in the air?

A

Autostart is available on ground and in the air. The shutdown feature is available on the ground only.

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34
Q

During an autostart, when will the PMU perform the auto shutdown process?

A

If a hung, hot or no start is projected.

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35
Q

Will the PMU (Power Management Unit) always use the IOAT for engine starts?

A

No.
A IOAT at or below 96º C will be used by the PMU.
If IOAT is greater than 96º C but less than 121º - 121º C will be used.
If temperature is greater than 121 C the PMU will go offline and will not reset before IOAT is below 121 C

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36
Q

Describe the autostart sequence.

A

Move PCL to autostart position.
ST READY annunciator illuminates
Wait 3 seconds or more
Place starter switch to AUTO/RESET momentarily.
Move PCL to IDLE when Ni is at or above 60% RPM.

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37
Q

What should be done if the green ST READY annunciator extinguishes during a normal start sequence?

A

Move the PCL to OFF if it has been placed in IDLE.
Reselecting the starter switch to AUTO/RESET.

Perform the ABORT START PROCEDURE.

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38
Q

What is the ABORT START PROCEDURE

A

A procedure to burn residual fuel and/or to lower ITT.

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39
Q

What does the FIREWALL SHUTOFF HANDLE do?

A

When pulled it closes valves at the firewall cutting off fuel and hydraulic fluids as well as bleed air to the engine.

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40
Q

The fuel auto balance system keeps the fuel level in the fuel wing tanks within _____ pounds of each other?

A

20 pounds.
The system closes the light wing’s transfer valve if an imbalance of 20 pounds or more is detected for more than 30 seconds.

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41
Q

What happens if the fuel imbalance is not automatically reduced to less than ____ pounds within ___ minutes?
What should then be done?

A

30 pounds
2 minutes
The FUEL BAL annunciator turns on and auto balance system shuts off.
Reset the fuel balance system – may be done multiple times. Place the FUEL BAL switch to MAN/RESET momentarily – then back to AUTO.

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42
Q

When does the L FUEL LO or R FUEL L annunciators illuminate?

What are the colors of the annunciators?

A

Amber.

Illuminates with fuel less than app. 110 pounds..

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43
Q

How much fuel in each wing?

In Collector tank?

A

527 pounds in each wing.

47 in Collector tank.

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44
Q

When should you not attempt to manually balance the fuel?

A

If alternate engine data display is indicating FP FAIL.

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45
Q

When does the M FUEL BAL annunciator illuminate?.

A

When the fuel balance switch is in the MAN/RESET position.

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46
Q

How many fuel probes is used in the fuel quantity indicating system?
Where are the probes located?

A

7 probes.

3 in each wing – 1 in the collector tank.

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47
Q

Does automatic fuel balancing and the fuel low warning lights work with FP FAIL indicated?

A

The low fuel warning lights will work – but the automatic fuel balancing will not work.

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48
Q

During inverted flight a minimum of ____ seconds of fuel supply will be provided.

A

60 seconds

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49
Q

What to do if the FUEL PX annunciator illuminates and the fuel boost pump activates during inverted fligt?

A

Cease inverted flight – and notify maintenance after the flight.

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50
Q

Which power sources does the electrical system consist of?

A

28 VDC, 300 AMP starter/generator,
Aerobatic 24 VDC battery
24 VDC AUX BAT
External power receptable.

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51
Q

The generator needs to supply a minimum of ____ volts to charge the battery?

A

25 volts

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52
Q

How may the generator be reset?

A

Cycle the generator switch to off and back on.
Or
Use the generator reset button.

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53
Q

If the RED GEN annunciator illuminates the _______ is the only equipment automatically shed.

A

Air Condition

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54
Q

The battery is used for engine start and is capable of powering all electrical systems, except the _____.

A

Air Condition.

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55
Q

In an emergency situation the AUX BAT powers ____, _____, _____, _____ and _____ for app. _____ minutes.

A 
The standby instruments
The standby instruments’ lighting
The UHF transceiver
The backup UHF control
Fire warning system

30 minutes

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56
Q

When should external power not be connected to the aircraft?

A

When the battery voltage is below 22,0 volts. Connecting could cause damage to the battery.

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57
Q

If the BUS TIE switch is set to OPEN, then the BUS TIE annunciator illuminates, and the battery and generator busses are separated.
If the battery/battery bus fails with the BUS TIE OPEN, then the _____ is not powered.
If the generator fails with the BUS TIE OPEN, then the ______ is not powered.

A

Equipment on the battery bus is not powered

Equipment on the generator bus is not powered..

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58
Q

What to do if brake pressure appears to fade during application?

A

Fully relieve pressure from the brakes in both cockpits – then reapply pressure.

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59
Q

The hydraulic system has a ____ quart capacity.

A

5

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60
Q

At _____ PSI is the pressure relief valve in the hydraulic system activated?

A

3.250 – 3.500 PSI

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61
Q

The normal hydraulic system pressurization is_____ PSI?

A

3.000 plus/minus 120 PSI

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62
Q

How much pressure is needed in the hydraulic system in order to operate the landing gear, main gear doors, flaps, speed brake and nose wheel steering?

A

1.800 PSI

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63
Q

When does the HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminate?

A

When the hydraulic reservoir level has dropped below app. 1 quart of hydraulic fluid.

64
Q

If hydraulic pressure drops below _____ PSI, the hydraulic pressure display will change from white to _____?

A

1.800

Amber

65
Q

When does the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminate?

A

When the emergency accumulator pressure drops below 2.400 plus/minus 150 PSI.

66
Q

If the hydraulic pressure drops below _____ PSI, – will there be enough pressure to lower the landing gear and flaps using the main hydraulic system – or should the emergency system be used?

A

1.800 PSI
There may not be sufficient pressure remaining to use the main hydraulic system to lower landing gear and flaps. The emergency system may have to be used.

67
Q

A DOWNLOCK OVERRIDE button is located in the front/aft/both cockpits?

A

Front only

68
Q

Which lights/annunciators comes on, when the PCL is approaching idle with the gear handle up – regardless of airspeed and position of landing gear handle?

A

Gear handle light (RED) and each RED gear indicator.

69
Q

With a failure of the weight-on-wheels micro-switch in the right gear, use of the downlock override button will allow the gear handle to raise and the landing gear to retract.

TRUE/FALSE?

A

FALSE

The gear handle can be raised, but the landing gear will not retract.

70
Q

A normal landing gear extension/retraction normally takes _____ seconds?

A

6 seconds

71
Q

Is electrical power required for using the Emergence Extension of the landing gear?

A

No.

The gear is lowered by the emergency hydraulic accumulator.

72
Q

Does the gear handle have to be in the down position for the Emergency Gear Extension to fully work?

A

No – the gear will extend regardless of the position of the gear handle.

73
Q

After using the Emergency Gear Extension, what are the gear indications in the cockpits?

A

Red light in the gear handle.
Green nose gear indication.
Red and green indication for the main gear (Red because the doors are open – green for the gear is down and locked)

74
Q

When does the landing gear position warning sound?

A

Weight on wheels and gear handle not DOWN.
Flaps in LDG and all gear not indicating down and locked.
Gear handle not down – and PCL aout mid-range (App. 87% Ni), airspeed below 120 KIAS and flaps in UP or TAKEOFF

75
Q

At which speeds should the NWS (Nose Wheel Steering) be used?

A

At ramp speeds only – if used at high taxi speeds directional control can become a problem due to increased sensitivity of the NWS.
Use rudder and differential braking at higher taxi speeds.

76
Q

If NWS (Nose Wheel Steering) is used and directional control is lost (System malfunctions), what should you do?

A

Disengage the NWS. Use rudder and differential braking for directional control.

77
Q

What is wrong if the flap indicator pointer moves to a position counterclockwise of the UP position?

A

Electrical power to the indicator is lost – e.g. battery switch to OFF – or battery failure.

78
Q

When is the speed brake indicator illuminated?

A

Any time the speed brake is extended.

79
Q

How does the speed brake switch work?

A

Three positions.
Forward – in.
Back – out.
Spring loaded to center position.

80
Q

How and why is the speed brake connected to the elevator?

A

Via cables, pulleys and push-pull cables for trim tab actuator automatically inputs to trim as the speed brake is opened.

81
Q

How is the speed brake retracted?

A

Move speed brake switch forward.
Extend the flaps.
Move the PCL (Power Control Lever) to MAX

82
Q

If pilots in both cockpits are trimming – who has the priority?

A

The rear cockpit.

83
Q

How are the rudder pedals adjusted?

A

By using the hand crank located on the center console in each cockpit.

84
Q

When does the TAD (Trim Aid Device) assist in directional (Yaw) trimming?

A

During airspeed and power changes.

85
Q

Which inputs does the TAD (Trim Aid Device) use in order to trim the directional control (Yaw)?

A

Engine Torque
Altitude
Airspeed
Pitch Rate

86
Q

The TAD (Trim Aid Device) automatically sets _____ trim in the _____ axis when the trim aid system is switched on after engine start.

A

Take off trim

Yaw axis

87
Q

When does the TAD (Trim Aid Device) begin to give trim inputs?

A

Until aircraft has accelerated to above 80 KIAS
or
There is no weight on wheels.

88
Q

The TAD (Trim Aid Device) will not completely trim the aircraft in yaw.

TRUE / FALSE

A

True – pilot input is required to fine tune trim.

89
Q

The TAD (Trim Aid Device) may give inputs to the rudder trim that the pilot may notice as rudder pedal movement.

TRUE / FALSE

A

True.

During phases of flight involving high rates of power, airspeed or pitch changes – it may occur.

90
Q

What is the GUST LOCK?

Where is it located?

A

Device used to lock control surfaces of the aircraft when parked on the ground.
It is located in the front cockpit.

91
Q

How is the ADC (Air Data Computer) powered up?

A

When the Avionics Master switch is set to ON.

92
Q

Where does the ADC (Air Data Computer) receive inputs from?

Which outputs does it provide?

A

Receives pitot/static air inputs from the primary system located on the right wing - and statics port on the sides of the plane.
Develops airspeed, altitude and climb rate – used for display and navigation – including the transponder..

93
Q

On the Airspeed Indicator, when is the Mach number blanked out?

A

Below 0,4 M.

94
Q

What is the primary and secondary power source of the Standby Attitude Indicator?

After all electrical power is lost to the Standby Attitude Indicator – indicated by a ____ ____ in the ____ side of the indicator - it provides accurate indications for a period of ____ minutes?

A

Main battery – AUX BAT.

9 minutes

95
Q

How do you start “ET” (Elapsed time) count-up on the digital clock?

A

Press the SEL until the function indicator is above the “ET” label – then press CTL to start.

If CTL is pushed again then it resets and starts again.

96
Q

When can the AOA indexer be used?

A

When the gear is down

97
Q

Which aircraft AOA (____ units on the AOA gage) equals the angle of stall?

When is the stall warning activated?

What is the stall warning indication in the cockpit?

A

18 units on the AOA gage
3 units prior 18 units
Stick shaker

98
Q 
On the AOA gage – what is the:
Red arc?  \_\_\_\_ units?
Green arc?  \_\_\_\_ units?
White diamond? \_\_\_\_ units?
White triangle? \_\_\_\_ units?
A

Red – indicates stall – 18 units
Green – optimum speed – 10-11 units
Diamond – max. endurance – 8,8 units
Triangle – max range – 4,9 units

99
Q

Which speed does the AMBER donut in the AOA indexer equal?

What does the RED (Lower) chevron indicate?
What does the GREEN (Upper) chevron indicate?

A

1,3 times the stall speed.

RED is too fast.
GREEN is too slow.

100
Q

For a normal approach, flaps at LDG and the PCL set for a 3º approach, the optimum speed (Indicated by the ____ donut) is app. ____ KIAS?

A

AMBER

100 KIAS

101
Q

The optimum approach airspeed will decrease with ____ KIAS for every ____ of fuel used?

A

KIAS

100 pounds of fuel

102
Q

How do you check the AOA system?

A 
AOA test switch to LOW:
AMBER on
AOA gage shows 10,5 ±0,25
AOA test switch to HIGH:
GREEN on
AOA gage shows 18 ± 0,25
Stick shaker on
AOA test switch release.
103
Q

At which speed does the stick shaker activate?

At how many units at the AOA gage

A

5-10 knots prior stall.

15-16 units on the AOA gage

104
Q

How does the external canopy fracture system (CFS) operate?

A

It has been rendered inoperative.

105
Q

During ejection, when should you use the Manual Override (MOR) handle?

A

When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding 8.000’ MSL.

Or

If separation from the seat is wanted above 14.000’ MSL.

106
Q

Where is the MOR (Manual Override) Handle located?

The emergency oxygen handle / green ring?

The survival kit manual release handle?

The leg restraint quick release handle?

A

MOR is located on the right side of the seat.

Oxygen green ring is located on the left side of the seat.

Left side of the seat – forward of the Green Ring.

Forward left side of the seat.

107
Q

For how long time is oxygen provided from the Emergency Oxygen System?

The system is charged to ____PSI at ___º F?

To approximate acceptable bottle pressure add or subtract ____PSI for each ___ º F above ____ º F ?

A

App. 10 minutes

1800 PSI at 70º F

3,5 PSI per 1 degree F above 70º F

108
Q

The onboard Interseat Sequencing System (ISS) have the following modes: ___, ___ and ___.
Which seat/seats ejects in the different modes?

A

SOLO – each seat ejects separately by own command.

BOTH – both seats ejects no matter which seat initiates the ejection.

CMD FORWARD – if initiated by rear seat, rear seat is ejected, if initiated by front seat both seats are sequenced to eject.

109
Q

With the ISS in both – will a seat eject if the seat pin is installed and the ejection sequence is initiated from the other seat?

A

Yes – in BOTH mode, both seats will eject no matter if the pin is in the seat not initiating the sequence.

110
Q

Which ejection sequence is initiated if the ISS handle is not locked in a detent?

A

The firing sequence is unpredictable…

111
Q

What is the SEAWARS?

A

SEAWARS is the automatic mode of separating the parachute risers from the pilot upon landing in salt water.

112
Q

How do you prevent hot bleed air from entering the cockpit?

A

Both the BLEED AIR INFLOW and the DEFOG switches must be in OFF.

113
Q

How do you maximize the volume of bleed air entering the cockpit?

A

When the DEFOG switch is set in ON, the inflow valve is fully opened to maximize the volume of bleed air entering the cockpit.

114
Q

How do you normally control the TEMP in the cockpit?

What is the provided temperature range: ___ to ____ º F.

How do you manually control the temperature in the cockpit?

A

By using the temperature control switch labelled TEMP CONTROL placed in the front cockpit.

60 - 90º F.

Turn the TEMP CONTROL switch to MANUAL (6 o’clock position)

115
Q

Which three things happen, when the DEFOG switch is turned to ON?

A
  1. The defog valve is opened.
  2. The bleed air inflow valve is automatically set to high.
  3. The Air Conditioner is turned on to remove moisture from the air.
116
Q

What should be monitored and not exceeded when using the DEFOG in the ON position?

A

ITT should be monitored – and ensured not exceeded by retarding the PCL.

117
Q

Which cabin pressure does the system automatically maintain?

  • Outside pressure until ____’.
  • Then maintains a cabin pressure of ____’ until a max differential pressure of ___ ± ___ PSI is reached.
  • The difference is reached at ____’.
  • Then a differential pressure of ___ ± ___ is maintained.
A

It maintains:

  • Outside pressure until 8.000’.
  • Then maintains a cabin pressure of 8.000’ until a max differential pressure of 3,6 ± 0,2 PSI is reached.
  • The difference is reached at 18.069’.
  • Then a differential pressure of 3,6 ± 0,2 is maintained.
118
Q

What does the PRESSURIZATION switch do in:
NORM: _____
DUMP: _____
RAM/DUMP:_____

How do you turn off the bleed air from entering the cockpit?

A

NORM: The pres system operates auto.
DUMP: Opens the dump valve, Bleed air inflow continues
RAM/DUMP: Opens the dump valve, opens fresh air valve, Bleed air continues to flow.

BLEED AIR INFLOW switch to OFF.

119
Q

How can the Air Conditioner be turned on?

A

The AIR COND switch to ON.

The DEFOG switch to ON.

120
Q

May the AIR COND be in ON during take off?

A

Yes.

The use of the AIR COND has negligible effect on aircraft engine performance.

121
Q

If used (Opened), when does the fresh air (RAM air) valve automatically close?

A

App. at 8.000’ as the cabin starts to pressurize.

122
Q

On the Audio Control Panel a toggle switch is labeled:
V for: ____?
R for: ____?
Both for ____?

Used for the _____ ?

A

V for voice only
R for morse only
Both for voice and morse

VHF NAV

123
Q

On the Audio Control Panel a toggle switch Is labelled:
NORM for: ____ ?
ALTN for: ____?

In ALTN the ____ and the ___ will not be heard.

A

NORM for normal mode of the UHF radio.
ALTN for bypassing the amplifier and receiving raw audio.

VHF and intercom

124
Q

When pressing the ICS KEY on either PCL with the interphone control switch in HOT does: _____?

A

Mutes all external incoming audio.

125
Q

The UHF/VHF key toggle switch is located on the _____ ?
Toggle up to transmit on the ____ ?
Toggle down to transmit on the ____?

A

PCL
UHF – UP
VHF - down

126
Q

Which are the modes of the transponder?

Which mode must be selected in order to transmit altitude information from the ADC?

In which mode/modes is ADS-B information broadcasted?

A

STBY
ON
ALT (Altitude reporting)

ALT

ADS-B info will be broadcast in either ON or ALT.

127
Q

When should the UHF Backup Control Unit be used?

A

In case of failure of the RMU (Radio Management UNIT.

In case of battery failure

128
Q

How do you reset the HDG BUG to the aircraft present heading (Lubber line)?

A

Turn the HDG select knob.

Or

Pull out the HDG select knob.

129
Q

What happens if you pull put in the Course Select Knob?

A

It resets the CRS pointer and digital course readout to a direct course to the selected NAV AID (NAV) or waypoint (GPS)..

130
Q

What are the standard EHSI modes?

How many different display formats does each standard mode have?

A

Enroute and Approach

Five different displays

131
Q

Which buttons/functions are located on the control stick?

A

Aileron/Elevator trim button – on top
Trim interrupt button – next to Trim button
TAS switch – left side of stick - thumb
NWS – front low – ring finger button

132
Q

What are the modes of the TAS?

Which altitude ranges do they each cover?

The TAS normally processes traffic between ____’ to ____’ out to ___NM, but only display traffic in accordance with the selected range (NORM, BLW, ABV)

A

NORM: ± 2.700’
ABOVE: - 2.700’ to +8.700’
BELOW: -8.700’ to +2.700’

-10.000 to +10.000

133
Q

How do you shift between TAS modes?

A

By the TAS switch on the control grip (Thumb)

134
Q

Where are TAS traffic info displayed?

Which range/ranges can be selected on the display?

Where do you change range for TAS?

A

TAS traffic info is displayed on the VSI/TAS.

TAS ranges are: 3, 5, 10, 20 and 40 NM.

Range can be changed on the side panel of the VSI/TAS display.

135
Q

Which sensitivity modes does the TAS have?

A

A – gear down

B – Gear up

136
Q

What does the following TAS traffic display symbology represent:
Open White Diamond:
Filled White Diamond:
Filled Yellow Circle:

A

Open White Diamond: Non-Threat traffic, >±1.200’ or > 5NM

Filled White Diamond: Proximity Traffic,

137
Q

Which Caution Annunciators can be displayed on the VSI/TAS indicator?

A

VSI – VSI has failed (No ADC)
TCAS – TAS has failed
TEST – Pilot Initiated test

138
Q

When adjusting the Brightness of the instrument lightning panel adjust the ____ panel rheostat clockwise and monitor the _______ - the rest of the electronic display will match it.

A

INST rheostat

AOA indexer

139
Q

When adjusting the knee board light, that are located at the ____ - do not ____? Why?

A

Glareshields.
Do not adjust them further out than the edge of the glareshield.
Due to interference in case of ejection.

140
Q

Where are the LDG and TAXI lights located?

What is required for them to function properly?

A

LDG – left side
TAXI – right side

Switch must be on.
All three landing gears must be down and locked.

141
Q

When placing the LAMP test switch to TEST the following lights/lamps will be tested?

A 
All lights on the annunciator panel
MASTER caution
MASTER warn
FIRE
LDG gear handle
All gear lights
All switch and control lights
142
Q

If the light for the AUX BAT test does not illuminate during the test, the AUX BAT voltage is below ____% ?

A

50%

143
Q

When the AOA system test switch is placed in HIGH the _____, _____ and _____ will be configured for a _____ AOA condition.

When the AOA system test switch is placed in LOW the _____ and _____ will be configured for an _____ AOA condition.

A

AOA indexer, gages and stick shaker.
High AOA condition.

AOA indexer and gages.
On-speed / optimum speed AOA condition

144
Q

How many pounds of luggage are allowed in the baggage compartment?

A

Up to 80 pounds.

145
Q

What are the external power requirements?

A

28 – 28,5 VDC
1.000 AMPS for 5 sec.
500 AMPS for 3 secs
300 AMPS continuous

146
Q

What are the off-station acceptable external power voltage limits for engine starts?

A

24,0 – 29,5 VDC

147
Q

In case the ____ does not terminate the start automatically, manually abort when?
ITT appears to exceed _____ ºC
ITT appears to remain between ___ - ___ for more than ____ seconds?
Normal ___ increase is halted (____ start).
No rise of ITT within ___ seconds after fuel flow indications.
____ annunciator illuminates during start.
___ is moved, or ___ annunciator light out

A

PMU

  • 1.000
  • 871 – 1.000, 5 seconds
  • N1 (Hung start)
  • 10 seconds
  • BAT BUS annunciator
  • PCL, ST READY
148
Q

If the start was initiated with the PCL in OFF, how do you manually abort a start?

A

Starter switch to AUTO/RESET.

149
Q

If the start using external power was aborted by any reason – do not attempt more than ___ more attempts.

A

0 – do not do any subsequent attempts if a start using external power has been aborted.

150
Q

What should be done in case during an aborted take off you realize that there is a raised barrier on the RWY?

A

Steer around it. It is better to depart a prepared surface or ejecting compared to going into a raised barrier.

151
Q

Which are the approved airstart procedures?

A
  1. PMU – NORM
  2. PMU – OFF
  3. Immediate airstart (PMU NORM)
152
Q

How much altitude will app. Be lost during an airstart attempt at best glide airspeed of 125 KIAS?

A

App. 1.200’

153
Q

Even if you are on a minimum glide profile to an airfield you should continue doing an airstart?

TRUE / FALSE

A

NO, consideration should be given to NOT attempt an airstart if on a minimum glide profile to an airfield, since repeated airstart attempts will result in excessive altitude loss.

154
Q

When is a PMU OFF airstart required?

A

If the PMU FAIL annunciator is illuminated

155
Q

What is the airstart envelope?
___-___ KIAS for ____ to ____ ‘?
and
___-___ KIAS for ____ to ____ ‘?

A

125-200 KIAS, SL-15.000’

135-200 KIAS, 15.001-20.000’

156
Q

How quickly will the STARTER switch drain the battery if left in MANUAL during an airstart attempt?

A

In 10 minutes

ENJJPT (EK20) (4 decks)

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