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T-38 MQFs > T-38C-1 > Flashcards

T-38C-1 Flashcards

1
Q

The _______ sensing system varies the nozzle area to maintain EGT within limits at
both MIL and MAX range throttle positions

A

T5

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2
Q

Avoid fingerlift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding
throttles toward idle.

A

True

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3
Q

The throttles, when placed at OFF, electrically shut off fuel to the engine at the main
fuel control and mechanically shut off fuel to the engine at the fuel shutoff valves

A

False

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4
Q

After a 1.0 hour leg on a cross-country, the oil consumption was one quart. This is
acceptable.

A

False

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5
Q

Normally, gravity feed will ensure sufficient fuel flow to operate the engines at up to
MAX power from sea level to approximately_____ feet

A

25,000

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6
Q

By specification, gravity feed operation is guaranteed only to ______ feet MSL

A

6,000.

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7
Q

If a fuel pressure caution light blinks while initiating the afterburner

A

This is normal, continue the mission

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8
Q

If one or both transformer-rectifiers fail, the XFMR RECT OUT light on the console will
illuminate

A

False

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9
Q

A single transformer-rectifier failure is indicated by

A

a Pilot Fault List (PFL) display

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10
Q

Which lights cannot be dimmed using the Warning/Caution/Advisory Light Bright/Dim Switch?

A

Fire warning lights.

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11
Q

If one of the flap motors fails as you lower the flaps, you may expect

A

both flaps to continue because they are interconnected by a rotary shaft

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12
Q

The flap slab interconnect will not:
A. reposition the slab to minimize the pitch changes due to flap movement.
B. increase amount of slab travel in the nose-down direction.
C. increase amount of slab travel in the nose-up direction.
D. change the pitch authority of the control stick by increasing the amount of horizontal tail deflection per inch of stick travel.
E. all of the above.

A

C. increase amount of slab travel in the nose-up direction

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13
Q

How can you deactivate the nosewheel steering system?

A

A. Release the nosewheel steering button.
B. Place a throttle in MAX.
C. Rotate the aircraft so that weight is no longer on the nosewheel.

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14
Q

If an open canopy has been exposed to jet blast, it should be checked for normal
operation. If the canopy will not close:
A. taxi back to the chocks and have maintenance inspect the canopy mechanism.
B. reattempt to close the rear canopy first, then the front.
C. do not taxi the aircraft until cleared by a qualified maintenance technician.
D. try to force it closed.

A

do not taxi the aircraft until cleared by a qualified maintenance technician

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15
Q

The ______ will personally ensure that the rear canopy is closed and locked.

A

pilot

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16
Q

While stowing the outside handle, do not apply _____ pressure after the canopy is
locked.

A

clockwise

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17
Q

If the aircraft will not accept external AC power, and the APU checks good

A

cycle the battery OFF, then ON

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18
Q

On the ground, the minimum RPM required for engine start is _______.

A

12%

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19
Q

While accomplishing the flight controls check, the pilot must visually confirm proper
movement of the actual flight control surfaces.

A

True

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20
Q

Nosewheel tires are severely damaged when maximum deflection turns are attempted
at speeds in excess of _____ knots.

A

10

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21
Q

To prevent possible canopy downlock mechanism damage, taxi with _____ and
pressurized whenever practical

A

Both canopies open or both canopies closed

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22
Q

Allow a minimum of _____ minute(s) before takeoff behind any large type aircraft or helicopter and a minimum of _____ minutes behind heavy type aircraft.

A

two, four

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23
Q

Abort the takeoff if the afterburner does not light in _______ seconds

A

5

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24
Q

When flying in gusty winds, increase which speeds by half the gust factor?

A

Final approach.

Touchdown.

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25
Q

After the gear is lowered from the back seat, what must the front seat pilot do?

A

Physically check the handle down.

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26
Q

After selecting RAM DUMP, you may have to wait _____ for the pressure to equalize

A

several seconds.

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27
Q

When an _________ fuel is used, you should annotate it in the AFTO 781

A

Alternate or emergency

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28
Q

Anytime the aircraft departs a hard surface (taxiway or runway):

A

Immediately shut down both engines

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29
Q

If either canopy fails to open or jettison, break through the canopy using the canopy
breaker tool

A

True

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30
Q

During an abort, in order to minimize the possibility of skidding, blown tires, etc.,
optimum braking should not be attempted at airspeeds above _____

A

100 KCAS

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31
Q

When MA-1A barrier engagement is imminent, attempt to:

A

engage it perpendicular, in a three-point attitude, and if possible, in the center.

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32
Q

Flaps should not be repositioned during a high speed abort until the aircraft slows below
no flap final approach speed

A

False

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33
Q

Tests have demonstrated that optimum braking is difficult to achieve and should not be
attempted at airspeeds above _____ KCAS.

A

100

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34
Q

MA-1A barrier engagement is unlikely with the

A

WSSP installed and/or speedbrake open.

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35
Q

While accelerating to SETOS + 10 KCAS during a single-engine takeoff:

A. maintain forward stick pressure, allowing the nose wheel to “dig-in”.
B. accelerate in a three point attitude, with the stick forward of the takeoff trim setting.
C. the nose wheel tire limit may be exceeded prior to reaching SETOS + 10 KCAS.
D. all the above.

A

C. the nose wheel tire limit may be exceeded prior to reaching SETOS + 10 KCAS

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36
Q

If engine failure occurs after takeoff, it may be necessary to allow the aircraft to settle
back to the runway.

A

True

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37
Q

The BAK-15 is a large web-type barrier that fighter-type aircraft have successfully
engaged at speeds up to ______ knots

A

200

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38
Q

During single-engine takeoff, the flap indicator should be checked to ensure flaps are
within 60% range (55-65%) after the flaps are set at 60 %.

A

True

39
Q

You experience gear retraction failure; after placing the landing gear lever down and a safe gear down indication is obtained, do not retract or recycle the gear unless a greater emergency exists.

A

True

40
Q

If the decision is made to zoom and eject because of dual engine failure at low altitude, it is imperative that the ejection sequence be initiated prior to reaching a:

A

stall or rate of sink

41
Q

If dual engine failure occurs, attempt to restart the _____ engine first

A

right

42
Q

With dual engine failure, the battery switch is not required to be ON to provide ignition if
windmilling rpm is available

A

False

43
Q

If you suspect engine damage during a compressor stall, you should

A

advance the throttle above idle only if required.

44
Q

A compressor stall may be recovered prior to complete flameout by

A

rapidly retarding the throttle to idle and pressing the affected engine’s start button.

45
Q

If the engine cannot be shut down with the throttle, the _____ switch (affected engine) should be closed

A

fuel shutoff

46
Q

With boost pumps inoperative, engine flameout may occur if above 25,000 feet

A

True

47
Q

Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air conditioning system may
indicate air conditioner turbine failure. You should _____.

A

Select oxygen - 100%
Descend below FL250
Select RAM DUMP

48
Q

After losing a canopy, the minimum drag airspeed is approximately _____ KIAS

A

225

49
Q

Simultaneous failure of the engine RPM and oil pump (oil pressure zero) may be an
indication of:

A

Oil pump shaft shear

50
Q

If the operating engine requires shutdown, the previously shutdown engine for an oil system malfunction may be restarted

A

True

51
Q

Under controlled flight, do not delay ejection below _______ feet in futile attempts to
start the engines or for other reasons that may commit you to an unsafe ejection

A

2,000

52
Q

Simultaneous illumination of the generator and hydraulic caution lights for the same
engine may indicate a gearbox failure. This can be confirmed by checking the appropriate _____ indicator

A

hydraulic pressure

53
Q

Hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine will allow control of the
aircraft for landing

A

False

54
Q

If utility hydraulic pressure is depleted
A. land with all gear up.
B. stop straight ahead and have the gear pins installed prior to clearing the runway.
C. the flight control hydraulic system backs up all the utility driven systems.
D. the flaps will not extend.

A

B. stop straight ahead and have the gear pins installed prior to clearing the runway.

55
Q

With dual hydraulic system failure

A

eject.

56
Q

Touchdowns as high as _______ KCAS are possible

A

200

57
Q

If takeoff is made with flap-slab interconnect system failure (non-locking):
A. a lighter than normal stick force will be required for rotation.
B. a reduced amount of stick travel will be required for rotation.
C. until the flaps are retracted, significant forward stick pressure will be required to keep the
pitch from increasing.
D. all of the above.

A

all of the above.

58
Q

During single-engine landing, at high density altitude or high gross weights, selecting
full flaps in the flare, an immediate touchdown and premature landing may occur

A

True

59
Q

Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air-conditioning system may
indicate failure of the _______.

A

air conditioner turbine

60
Q

Normal load capacity of the WSSP is approximately _____ pounds

A

140

61
Q

An overstress failure of the main landing gear sidebrace trunion may occur if the gear
is:

A

Extended/retracted with greater than 45 degrees of bank or extended at greater than 1.5 Gs.

62
Q

Do not exceed _______ KIAS while taxiing with the canopies open

A

50

63
Q

The nosewheel tire is rated to ___ knots groundspeed

A

174

64
Q

Nozzle position at MIL is _______%.

A

0 - 20

65
Q

If full aileron deflection in the direction of the spin is not maintained, spin recovery may
be prolonged or prevented

A

True

66
Q

If normal crossfeed operation is continued until the active system runs dry
A. dual engine flameout will occur.
B. gravity feed will supply sufficient fuel from the other fuel system.
C. only the corresponding engine will flameout.
D. engine restart will be impossible due to air in the lines.

A

dual engine flameout will occur.

67
Q

After flight through icing conditions, which result in icing accumulations on the front canopy, a 781 writeup is necessary so that the engines will be inspected for damage

A

True

68
Q

If flight through moderate precipitation is unavoidable, you should
A. slow to minimum practical airspeed to lessen rain damage.
B. fly at maximum practical airspeed to minimize time in the precipitation.
C. set a high power setting with anti-ice on to preclude engine flameouts.
D. b and c.

A

slow to minimum practical airspeed to lessen rain damage

69
Q

Flight in moderate precipitation may damage the

A

A. nose cone.

B. vertical stabilizer.

70
Q

The recommended best penetration airspeed if turbulence and thunderstorms are experienced is _______ KCAS

A

280

71
Q

On solo missions, the rear cockpit standby ADI should be _____.

A

uncaged

72
Q

Which component(s) is(are) lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed in RAM DUMP?

A

A. Anti-G suit.
B. Canopy defog.
C. Cabin pressurization.
D. Air conditioning systems.

73
Q

The aircraft stall is characterized by airframe buffet and a ______ rather than by a clean
nose-down pitch motion

A

high sink rate.

74
Q

Throttle friction can be adjusted

A

Only by ground maintenance

75
Q

Placing either or both fuel shutoff switches to the CLOSED position shuts off fuel flow to either or both engines in approximately _____ second(s) without using the throttles

A

1

76
Q

Activation of the speedbrake requires _____ power

A

hydraulic and DC.

77
Q

Allowing the rudder pedal adjust T-handle to snap back during adjustment may trip or
damage pedestal circuit breakers and cause the cable to wear excessively.

A

True

78
Q

What will be the correct indications after practicing alternate gear extension, with the landing gear lever in the LG UP position?

A

Three green, light on in handle, horn not sounding

79
Q

You can take an airplane if one fire light is out on one side, provided the other checks good (when testing the system).

A

False

80
Q

During start, if ignition does not occur before fuel flow reaches 360 LB/HR, retard the
throttle to OFF and

A

Maintain airflow to permit fuel and vapors to purge.

Wait a minimum of 2 minutes before attempting another start.

81
Q

Fuel required for a go-around (closed pattern) is approximately _____ pounds

A

150

82
Q

Extreme nose high aerobraking when crossing raised arresting cables may result in damage to the _____.

A

afterburner ejectors

83
Q

Allow _____ seconds for landing-taxi light retraction and (or) closure of ram dump door prior to engine shutdown

A

10

84
Q

The canopy seals will remain inflated if the engines are shutdown with _____, making
the canopies more difficult to open

A

both canopies locked

85
Q

Aerodynamic braking is more effective than cautious wheel braking above _____.

A

100 KCAS

86
Q

During a single-engine takeoff/go-around, at high gross weight, with the landing gear extended, flap retraction should not be initiated prior to _______ KCAS

A

220

87
Q

_____ should be attempted immediately upon detection of dual engine flameout at low
altitudes, if time permits

A

Alternate Airstart

88
Q

The minimum altitude recommended for bailout in a controlled situation is _____ feet AGL.

A

2000

89
Q

If you suspect brake fluid venting overboard, pump the brakes in flight to ensure you will have pressure after landing

A

False

90
Q

If you suspect the right brake system has failed, with no other directional control
problems, plan to land in (on) the _____ of the runway

A

center.

91
Q

At full afterburner, the nozzles should read between _______.

A

50 - 85

92
Q

During cold weather starts, oil pressure above 55 PSI may be observed. As the oil warms up, oil pressure should continue to decrease and return to normal operating limits

A

True (within 6 minutes)

93
Q

Crossfeeding is recommended when fuel differences exceed _____ pounds

A

200

94
Q 
Which of the following components is NOT lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed at RAM DUMP?
A. Anti-G suit
B. Canopy defog
C. Anti-ice
D. Air conditioner
A

C. Anti-ice

T-38 MQFs (4 decks)

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