11-2T-38 Vol. 3

Question 1

With squadron supervisor approval, pilots may reduce gross weight by burning down fuel to a predetermined usable fuel weight prior to taking the runway for takeoff.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

For local sorties, begin briefings a minimum of 1 hour before scheduled takeoff.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

An alternate mission

A. Should be briefed for each flight, when appropriate.
B. Will be less complex than the primary mission.
C. Should parallel the primary mission. D. All of the above.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

If unit-developed checklists are used in lieu of flight manual checklists, carrying a flight manual checklist and having it immediately available on all flights is optional.

Answer 4

False

Question 5

The crew chief will repeat ground visual signals when it is safe to operate the system.

Answer 5

True

Question 6

Objects will not be placed on top of the glare shield during start with canopies open.

Answer 6

True

Question 7

Minimum taxi interval is:

Answer 7

A. 150 feet staggered or 300 feet in trail.
B. 300 feet when ice or snow is present.
C. May be reduced when holding short of or entering the runway.

Question 8

Minimum taxi interval may be reduced when holding short of or entering the runway.

Answer 8

True

Question 9

For formation takeoffs, place the wingman on the upwind side if the crosswind exceeds ____ knots.

Answer 9

5

Question 10

Pilots will remove and properly stow ejection seat and canopy jettison safety pins once clear of the aircraft parking area, but not later than the before takeoff checklist.

Answer 10

True

Question 11

Do not takeoff when The runway condition reading (RCR) is less than

Answer 11

10

Question 12

Do not takeoff when Computed takeoff roll exceeds ____% of the available runway (single ship or interval).

Answer 12

80

Question 13

Do not take off when Computed takeoff roll exceeds ____% of the available runway (element takeoff).

Answer 13

70

Question 14

Single-ship rolling takeoffs are authorized:

A. When available runway exceeds CFL by 1,000 feet or more.
B. During daylight hours only.
C. After the pilot has considered TOLD with a runway length 300 feet less than the available runway.
D. Both A and B above.
E. Both B and C above.

Answer 14

E

Question 15

For operations with a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is less than or equal to RS-EF, go/no-go speed is:

Answer 15

RS-EF

Question 16

For operations with a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF and less than TOS:
A. OG/CC approval for takeoff is required.
B. Use TOS as the go/no-go speed (performance data must result in a valid DS and SETOS).
C. Only a rated pilot or student under IP supervision may perform the takeoff
D. All of the above.

Answer 16

D

Question 17

For operations without a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is less than RS-BEO, go/no-go speed is:

Answer 17

RS-BEO

Question 18

For operations without a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF, takeoffs are not authorized.

Answer 18

True

Question 19

For operations with a raised, non-remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF and less than TOS, with OG/CC approval (as long as performance data results in a valid DS and SETOS):

Answer 19

A. Use SETOS as the go/no-go speed.
B. Pilots will delay rotation until 155 KCAS (T-38C) or 150 KIAS (T-38A) and ensure the nose is off the runway no later than 174 KGS/KIAS respectively.
C. Only a rated pilot or student under IP supervision may perform the takeoff.

Question 20

When aircraft operate on a runway with a remotely controlled arresting system, pilots will remain on the frequency of the agency that controls the runway and the arresting system until safely airborne.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

The MA-1A is suitable for stopping an aircraft with a travel pod.

Answer 21

False

Question 22

The minimum runway required for operations is 8,000 feet or 7,000 feet with squadron supervision level approval.

Answer 22

False

Question 23

Which of the following does not prohibit a formation takeoff:
A. Runway width less than 150 feet.
B. Standing water, ice, slush, or snow on runway.
C. Crosswind or gust component exceeds 15 knots.
D. CFL within 1,000 feet of available runway.

Answer 23

D. CFL within 1,000 feet of available runway.

Question 24

Which of the following is not true concerning flight join-up and rejoin:
A. Weather criteria for a VFR join-up underneath a ceiling are 1500/3.
B. Flight leads will not normally exceed 30 degrees of bank during a turning join-up.
C. For a straight-ahead rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will join on the left wing unless otherwise briefed.
D. For a turning rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will join on the outside of the turn unless otherwise briefed.

Answer 24

D. For a turning rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will join on the outside of the turn unless otherwise briefed.

Question 25

A battle damage check is mandatory after every mission prior to or during return to base.

Answer 25

True

Question 26

The maximum flight size is two aircraft in IMC conditions.

Answer 26

False

Question 27

The minimum altitude for changing leads is:

Answer 27

A. 500 feet AGL over land.
B. 1,000 feet AGL over water.
C. 1,500 feet AGL in IMC or at night unless on radar downwind.

Question 28

The parameters for a safety observer in a chase aircraft are:

Answer 28

A 30- to 60-degree cone out to 1,000 feet.

Question 29

The minimum airspeed for all maneuvering is 150 KTS unless conducting training under a formal syllabus that specifies or allows a slower airspeed for the training to be conducted.

Answer 29

True

Question 30

Which of the following is not a prohibited maneuver:
A. Practice single-engine circling approaches or overhead patterns.
B. Overhead patterns to set up a practice single-engine go around using 60% or 100% flaps and both throttles until rolling out on final.
C. Practice minimum roll landings.
D. Practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than 2,500 pounds of fuel.

Answer 30

B. Overhead patterns to set up a practice single-engine go around using 60% or 100% flaps and both throttles until rolling out on final.

Question 31

All flight members will acknowledge understanding the initial air traffic control (ATC) clearance

Answer 31

True

Question 32

Conduct low altitude training no earlier than ___ minutes after sunrise (___ hour mountainous terrain) and exit the low altitude structure no later than ____ minutes prior to sunset (____ hour mountainous terrain).

Answer 32

30, 1, 30, 1

Question 33

Weather minimums for visual low level training will be ____ feet and ____ miles for any route or area, as specified in FLIP (for military training routes), or as specified in unit publications, whichever is ______.

Answer 33

1,500, 3, higher

Question 34

Bingo fuel is:

Answer 34

A prebriefed fuel state which allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel.

Question 35

Normal recovery fuel is:

Answer 35

The fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate, if required. Established locally or 800 pounds, whichever is higher.

Question 36

Minimum fuel is:

Answer 36

600 pounds or less.

Question 37

Any pilot may perform back seat landings with an IP in the front seat.

Answer 37

False

Question 38

The minimum low approach altitude for IPs or SEFEs flying chase position is:

Answer 38

50 feet AGL.

Question 39

Unless safety or circumstances dictate otherwise, minimum low approach altitude for chase aircraft during an emergency is:

Answer 39

300 feet AGL.

Question 40

Initiate the closed traffic pattern:

Answer 40

A. At the departure end of the runway unless directed or cleared by local procedures or the controlling agency.
B. To plan to arrive on downwind between 200 and 240 KTS.

Question 41

Which of the following prohibits formation landings?

A. The runway is reported wet.
B. Ice, slush, or snow is on the runway. C. The runway width is less than 150 feet.
D. All of the above.

Answer 41

D

Question 42

The T-38 is approach category E, however, category D minimums may be used where no category E minimums are published if:

Answer 42

A. A straight-in approach is flown.
B. Missed approach can be flown at 260 KTAS or less.
C. Final approach is flown at 165 KTS or less.

Question 43

T-38 aircrews will request complete icing condition forecasts, to include trace icing, for the entire route of flight when receiving a preflight weather briefing via any source.

Answer 43

True

Question 44

For trail departures:
Each aircraft or element will accelerate in AB power until reaching ____ KTS, accelerate in mil to ____ KTS, then climb at ____ KTS using _____ degrees EGT until reaching cruise Mach or TAS, unless otherwise briefed.

Answer 44

250, 300, 300, 600

Question 45

For trail departures:

All turns will be made using ____ degrees of bank.

Answer 45

30

Question 46

For trail departures: The flight lead will call initiating all turns and, during climbs and descents, each aircraft or element will call passing each 5,000 foot altitude increment with altitude and heading (or heading passing) until join-up or level-off or until the following aircraft or element calls “visual.”

Answer 46

True

Question 47

If IMC flight is unavoidable, formation breakup is authorized in IMC if accomplished in straight-and-level flight

Answer 47

True

Question 48

Formation penetrations are restricted to two aircraft when the weather at the base of intended landing is less than:

Answer 48

Overhead traffic pattern minimums.

Question 49

For formation VMC drag:

Minimum weather required is ____ foot ceiling and ___ nm visibility.

Answer 49

1,500, 3

Question 50

For formation VMC drag: minimum spacing is

Answer 50

3000 feet

Question 51

For formation VMC drag:
The flight lead will coordinate with the appropriate air traffic control agency for nonstandard formation prior to directing the formation VMC drag.

Answer 51

True

Question 52

In AETC, do not file to a destination unless the ceiling and visibility for the estimated time of arrival, plus or minus 1 hour, is at or above the appropriate PWC or suitable published minimums, whichever is greater.

Answer 52

True

Question 53

The PWC decision height or minimum descent altitude will be determined by reference to:

Answer 53

A. Touch-down-zone elevation (TDZE) for straight-in approaches.
B. Field elevation for circling approaches.
C. Field elevation if TDZE is unavailable.

Question 54

The pilot may descend below the decision height or minimum descent altitude if:

Answer 54

The aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach to the runway of intended landing AND the pilot can clearly see the approach threshold of the runway, approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway.

Question 55

The lost wingman procedures for two- or three-ship (not echelon) flights, when inside the turn are to simultaneously transition to instruments, inform the lead and:

Answer 55

Momentarily reduce power to ensure nose-tail separation, inform the flight lead to roll out of the turn, and maintain angle of bank to ensure lateral separation.

Question 56

For low altitude maps, the RAA is computed at a minimum of 1,000 feet separation from the highest obstacle/terrain feature (rounded to the next highest 100 feet) to include the area:
A. Within the lateral limits of the route or training area.
B. In no case less than 5 NM either side of planned route.
C. Covering the entire area on the map to be carried by each pilot in the flight.
D. Both A and B above.

Answer 56

D

Question 57

Lost wingman procedures for a missed approach are to simultaneously transition to instruments, momentarily turn away to ensure separation, inform lead, and:

Answer 57

Continue the published or assigned missed approach procedure while climbing to 500 feet above missed approach altitude.

Question 58

For number 4, lost wingman procedures for wings-level flight are to simultaneously
transition to instruments, inform lead and:

Answer 58

Turn away, using 30 degrees of bank for 30 seconds, prior to resuming heading

Question 59

During lost wingman procedures, the flight lead should acknowledge the lost wingman’s radio call and transmit:

Answer 59

A. Attitude and heading
B. Airspeed.
C. Altitude.
as well as other parameters as appropriate.

Question 60

When stowing items in the rear cockpit, if it is necessary to place items on or near the
rear cockpit breaker panels, aircrews should:

Answer 60

Ensure items do not exceed 8 inches in height.

Visually confirm clearance exists between the balance weight arm and the stowed object with the canopy closed.

Question 61

As a minimum, use the videotape recorder (VTR) or video-data transfer system (VDTS) to record:

Answer 61

A. As a minimum, will be used to record mission tasks and pattern work.
B. Aerial events

Question 62

For operations with a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF and less than TOS:

Answer 62

A. OG/CC approval for takeoff is required.
B. Use TOS as the go/no-go speed (performance data must result in a valid DS and SETOS).
C. Only a rated pilot or student under IP supervison may perform the takeoff

Question 63

Aircraft must have a full fuel load for each mission, waiverable by OG/CC

Answer 63

True

Question 64

A radio call is mandatory when directing position changes at night or under instrument conditions.

Answer 64

True

Question 65

Flight leads will not break up formations until each pilot has a positive fix from which to
navigate (visual, TACAN, EGI, or VOR).

Answer 65

True

Question 66

For flight path deconfliction during tactical maneuvering, the wingman of the lead
element is responsible for deconflicting with trailing aircraft or elements.

Answer 66

False

Question 67

Which of the following maneuvering parameters does not apply:
A. Accomplish practice nose high recoveries or instrument unusual attitudes below FL240 and in VMC.
B. Do not fly formation above FL350
C. Minimum altitude for all aerobatic maneuvers other than air combat maneuvering (ACBT) is 8,000 feet AGL.
D. Minimum altitude for all aerobatic maneuvers is 5,000 feet AGL.
E. Do not fly above FL390 except in an emergency.

Answer 67

Minimum altitude for all aerobatic maneuvers is 5,000 feet AGL.

Question 68

For G-awareness:

At a minimum, accomplish a ___-degree turn at ____ Gs and a ____-degree turn at ____ Gs.

Answer 68

90, 4

180, 5

Question 69

UFT and PIT pilots will accomplish a G-awareness exercise when maneuvers in excess of ____are anticipated.

Answer 69

4

Question 70

For G-awareness:

Maintain a minimum of ____ feet between aircraft

Answer 70

4000

Question 71

Single-ship and two-ship low altitude training will be dual

Answer 71

False

Question 72

Unless local procedures or unique runway surface conditions require landing beyond a given point on the runway, the desired touchdown point for a VFR approach is

Answer 72

150-1,000 feet from the threshold

Question 73

Tactical entry to the overhead pattern parameters?

Answer 73

A. Maximum of four aircraft.
B. Lateral spacing of 4,000 to 6,000 feet and no more than 6,000 feet of element spacing.
C. If using offset box formation, offset away from the direction of break with the lead element breaking over the touchdown point and the second element breaking when number two is clear of the intended flight path.

Question 74

Solo syllabus sorties are not allowed within the extended daylight window

Answer 74

False

Question 75

Flying multiple approaches in VMC without a chase is not authorized

Answer 75

False

Question 76

For formation approaches, the flight’s pilot weather category is determined by:

Answer 76

500 feet and 1 1/2 miles or the highest of any flight member’s weather category, whichever is higher.

Question 77

Taxiing an aircraft with a single generator malfunction or failure is allowed

Answer 77

False

Question 78

Which of the following is not a UFT solo student restriction?
A. Practice lost wingman as lead.
B. Rolling takeoffs.
C. Low closed or circling approaches.
D. Practice emergency patterns and landings.

Answer 78

A. Practice lost wingman as lead

Question 79

Solo UFT students will not perform patterns and landings with total fuel greater than

Answer 79

2500 pounds

Question 80

Solo UFT students will not fly formation low approaches below

Answer 80

200 feet AGL

Question 81

Solo UFT students will not enter a split-s or sliceback or continue over-the-top maneuvers when the apex is below:

Answer 81

18,000 feet AGL.

Question 82

In order to fulfill flying training requirements, an instrument approach may be flown from either cockpit when simulating IMC with a qualified pilot as a safety observer or during actual IMC.

Answer 82

True

Question 83

Rear cockpit landings do not update normal (front) cockpit landing currencies

Answer 83

False

Question 84

Formation takeoff and formation landing currency can be updated from either the lead or wing position.

Answer 84

True

Question 85

To obtain night sortie credit, ___ percent of the sortie must be flown during the period of
darkness between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Answer 85

50