T-1 MQF 2015 Flashcards
An Operating procedure or technique which is considered essential to emphasize is a ____?
Note
If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative.
False
Once TCAS announces “clear of conflict”, the pilot should
expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC.
Failure to properly set the decision height (DH) could result in
nuisance warnings from the GPWS
If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70 degree (approximate) compass segment
True
The weather radar system detects ________ along the flight path ahead of the aircraft. The radar antenna sweeps _____ to paint a full screen radar picture of the precipitation pattern along the flight path
wet precipitation, +/- 60 degrees
Due to weather radar system limitations, _____
do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid or circumnavigate adverse weather
If the left engine fails while the synchronization system is on, there will be a maximum of 1.5% rpm spool down of the right engine. For this reason, the engine synchronization system should be off during takeoff and landing.
True
Avoid finger lift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding the throttle toward IDLE
true
The weather radar system provides radar data for up to _______ NM
300
If the antenna on the WX radar is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within ____ of aircraft heading
+/- 10 degrees
Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. Throttle linkage cable failure usually results in an uncommanded ending shutdown, however, it is possible for the engine to remain at the power setting at the time of failure or retard to to idle. If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at high power settings, shut down the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the engine shutdown during flight checklist in section III
True
As oxygen cylinders become chilled, the pressure is reduced. A temperature drop of 100 degrees F will reduce the pressure 20%. If the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, ______
an oxygen leak should be suspected
In the event of a hung start, advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased Fuel Flow could result in engine cooling.
False
After flushing the lavatory, _____ to prevent contents from overflowing
leave the knife valve open at least ¼ inch
If an engine is experiencing mechanical difficulty during flight and is being shutdown, stabilizing ITT at IDLE thrust for 1 minute is required.
False
Resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system is allowable.
False
During cross-side operations, pilots should cross-check ______ with other reliable instruments
All of the above (Position, attitude and altitude)
Asterisk (*) items in the checklist
need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day
While using the exterior inspection checklist, specific attentions hold be given to detect fluid leakage
true
The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle
False
Failure to stow the exterior door handle can result in damage to the door in flight
True
During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system
True
How many circuit breaker panels are in the aft compartment that are required to be checked?
3
The entrance door must be closed and locked prior to starting interior inspection
False
With respect to the door locking pins, ______ or the door may open in flight
all eight must be white
If pilot valves are inoperative, single point pressure refueling should not be attempted
True
An improperly installed escape hatch can result in loss of cabin pressure in flight
True
Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin will
All of the above (Make hatch inoperable from the outside, inside and delay emergency ground egress form the escape hatch)
To test the AHRS battery
A & B (Hold for five seconds, and check the AHRS BATT TEST annunciator momentarily illuminates)
After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to “EMER”, check for operation of ___________
RTU #1
When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _______ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements
1,000
Turning the manual pressure control knob past its normal range __________
could damage the threads or needle valve seat
When the battery fee test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for
A & B (FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated, STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated)
Landing with brakes applied could result in
All of the above (Blown tires, potential runway departure, damage to the aircraft)
The H STAB DEICE TEST position will
B & C (Check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions, allies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six)
When checking the stall warning system ______
A & B (the master test switch must remain in the L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice, check hat the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication)
When testing the indicator lights, the flowing lights do not illuminate
All of the Above (red landing gear unlocked indicator, starter DISENGAGE button, and ENG START buttons)
When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate
twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7
After selecting the left tank during the fuel cross feed check, these lights will illuminate
Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light
When running the pitch or roll trim switch for ______ seconds continuously, the trim warning horn will activate.
5
During flight control checks, after the pilot checks the controls, the copilot must also physicaly check the flight controls.
True
If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the seconds engine until the first engine’s load meter reads below ______ amps
150
For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at idle
True
The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position
3
While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for 1-2 seconds during the test
True
Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ________
horizontal stabilizer
If not monitored properly, the VNAV function of the FMS may result in terrain impact
True
Do not operate entine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above ______ degrees Celsius OAT/SAT
10
An external power cart is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below
5 degrees F
When checking wing and engine anti-ice in the BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist, the throttles should be set at a minimum of _____ to ensure that the wing anti-ice valve is open.
70 % N2
When taxiing for takeoff through ice and snow, leave the flaps ______ until approaching the runway to avoid accumulations of ice being cast off from the tires
retracted
An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is
Caution
During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of ____ minutes behind a large type aircraft. With an effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced
2, 5
For a wake turbulence takeoff
a crosswind over 5 knots may reduce the required interval
After the gear is retracted on a a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of _____ until reaching _______ feet above field elevation
Vco + 10, 400
When maneuvering at bank angles in excess of _____ degrees, add _____ knots to the appropriate speed for flap configuration. Maintaining this speed will ensure adequate margin above stall for bank angles up to _____ degrees.
15; 10; 30
During takeoff and landing, to avoid obscuring visibility, the visors must be in the stowed position
True
For extended high altitude cruise, the windshield heat should be set at
LOW
Ignition switches should be turned to the ON position when __________.
b and c (turbulence and visible precipitation; takeoffs, approaches, and landings)
During the cruise check a temperature drop of ______F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____%
100, 20
Manual damping of dutch roll may be required in takeoff and landing (when the yaw damper is off) or in the event of a yaw damper failure. Manual damping of dutch roll is best accomplished…
with the lateral controls utilizing approximately a control wheel input roughly equal to the degree of oscillation
Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at ______, enroute descent is flown at ______ and rapid descent is flown at _______
230, 250, 330
Maximum range descent is _________.
Idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 feet, 230 KIAS below 35,900 feet
During preflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve _____
is acceptable
Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear
False
Use of stabilizer trim for round out in the flare could induce strong pitch up tendency that would be difficult to control in the event that a go-around is attempted
True
In the event of a suspected hard landing:
A & B (Make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed and RA/VSI, gear should remain down and the mission terminated
Touchdown will normally be made at approximately Vapp minus ________ KIAS
6
The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to __________ knots indicated airspeed. higher speeds can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation.
200
The takeoff trim setting mark is small and can be hard to see under many conditions. Avoid fixating on this gage while resetting trim to maintain aircraft control.
True
Failure to properly reset the trim can result in
All of the Above (Lower than normal yoke forces, over rotation and higher than normal yoke forces)
Which of the following is true concerning the stall characteristics of the T-1A?
The stick shaker activates at approximately 0.75 units on the AOA indicator below 20,000 feet, and as low as 0.45 at high altitudes
Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously
False
After landing on a snow or slush covered runway
do not retract flaps beyond 10 degrees
If the parking brake is set from the copilots side
A & C (binding could affect normal braking action from the pilot’s side at a later time., temporary binding in the mixing valve could occur)
During cross feed operation, the boost pump in the non-selected fuel feed chamber will not activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi
False
If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted.
True
If an emergency is experienced at or after S1 speed,
The takeoff should be continued
If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected
False
Which statements(s) are true?
A & B (Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable at slow speeds (less than 5 knots), Landing should be accomplished beyond arresting cables)
If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of cross feed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected
True
The base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 feet above the ground with the landing gear extended. Use caution when using this exit
True
With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5) be tuned?
Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker
If UHF guard mode was on when the dual RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available
True
Using the engine fire switch lights to close the fuel valve also closes the hydraulic valve
True
Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what?
A & B (turns off the squelch, returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure
NAV auto tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position
True
In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true?
Both gauges’ dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition
Securing an engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to ______
A & C (400 ft AGL, clear of obstructions)
If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time
False
Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties
True
If a spin is entered:
simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control
During a starter assisted airstart, a relight should normal be obtained within _____ seconds after the throttle is moved to idle
10
During a windmilling airstart, should the temperature rise indicate a hot start, place the throttle to CUTOFF and windmill the engine for __________ seconds before attempting another start
30
On V-MDA type approaches, the FMS does not recognize step-down fixes between the FAF and the MAP and will not try to comply with them. If a given approach has any step-down fixes between the FAF and arrival at MDA, VNAV should not be used for this portion of the approach
True
During the flight control check of the rudder, ensure that both the PF and the PM independently observe a proportional displacement of their left and right rudder pedals and a proportional rudder control surface movement
True
The switch light in the fire protection group on the shroud panel is used to close the _________ on the respective engine
A & B (main fuel line shutoff valve, hydraulic valve)
The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure.
False
Rudder boost is provided bye the rudder servo of the autopilot.
True
In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft battery, placing the battery switch to EMER causes the battery to power the
All of the above (emergency bus, standby battery, standby bus)
During the SMOKE AND FUMES IN AIRCRAFT checklist, the bleed air source selector must remain in each position long enough (approximately _______ seconds) to allow adequate system purging to determine the source of smoke.
20
With oil pressure below ______, execute engine shutdown during flight checklist.
40 psi
If high oil temperature is experienced, _______
increase affected engine throttle within N1 limits
While trying to eliminate smoke or fumes from the inside of the aircraft, turning the manual pressure controller fully counterclockwise will decrease the cabin pressure to the absolute pressure regulator setting of
12,500 +/- 1,500
Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, engine oil temperature may exceed _______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling field through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than ____ minutes
121 degrees C, 135 degrees C, 121 degrees C, 15
If you have an EFC failure
matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause over boosting of the other engine
If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filters is purifying the fuel to the engine
False
Left or right fuel level low annunciator illumination indicates that approximately ____ pounds of fuel remains in the respective tank
200
If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0 degrees flaps and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended. Windshear conditions will quickly negate these minor performance enhancements.
True
If automatic starter dropout has not occurred by ______ % N2, press the starter disengage button.
45
Autopilot engagement is not possible with the pitch trim selector in the EMER position
True
An operating procedure or technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life is not carefully followed is a _____
Warning
Ground fault protection is provided by the ________
Battery protection circuits
Air entering the cabin or pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off.
True
In the event of a bleed air duct failure annunciator illumination, if the wing anti-ice switch was in use, subsequently turned OFF and the annunciator extinguishes, flight may be continued if icing conditions are avoided.
True
If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically
True
If a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes upend landing, ___________
Place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot’s and copilot’s position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.
The emergency descent procedure is a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment
True
To execute an emergency descent
All of the above (you man use up to 45 degrees angle of bank to aid in lowering the nose, lower the nose to approximately 20 degrees, and accelerate to 330 KIAS or 0.78 MACH whichever is slower
The maximum zero fuel weight is
13,000 pounds
During a controllability check, the aircraft speed must be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight in order to properly evaluate handling characteristics at slow speeds
False
Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30 degrees
True
When executing a forced landing without power, if sufficient altitude remains after reaching a suitable landing area, a rectangular pattern will provide the best observation of surface condition, wind speed, and direction
False
Pushing the AV STBY BLO button isolates power to the failed blower system.
False
Pushing the AV STBY BLO button does not isolate power to the failed blower system. If an overheat condition occurs, isolate the circuit by pulling the GALLEY circuit breaker.
True
Electrical loads up to ______ amps are permissible for single generator operations above 32,500
280
If operating below 32,500 feet, single generator operations load capacity is ______ amps
400
Partial failure of the electrical system may necessitate degrading electrical systems to reduce electrical loads imposed on the operating generator
True
When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, all electrical power except the items on the emergency bus and DC standby bus are lost. Which of the following will NOT occur?
Both normal and emergency pitch trim will be lost
When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, the engine anti-ice valves will ______.
open
During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF, and reset them one at a time.
True
The BATTERY FDR FAIL light on the overhead panel illuminates with any of three possible malfunctions. Which statement is correct in its entirety?
If the light is accompanied by only the EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciator, check the EMER BUS FDR circuit breaker. If the circuit breaker has tripped and will not reset, subsequent loss of the left load buss will result in loss of the emergency bus
When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery _____________ and ___________
relay is open; battery charging will not occur
Illumination of the AC BUS SHED annunciator is advisory only and indicates a combination inverter/load bus malfunction that will result in the loss of flap position indicator and both oil pressure indicators
True
Which of the following will cause the BATTERY FDR FAIL lift on the overhead panel to illuminate?
Failure of the emergency bus feeder
When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery ________
relay is open
Severe windshear is that which produces airspeed changes greater than _____ knots or vertical speed changes greater than _____ feet per minute
15, 500
Under windshear approach procedures, reference groundspeed is computed by ________ the surface headwind component (or __________ the tailwind component) from approach true airspeed
subtracting, adding
An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below ____°F.
5
If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates in flight, the jump seat may check the security of the cabin door as long as he/she stays strapped in.
False
The DOOR UNLOCK annunciator indicates that
a or b ( the cabin door pins are not fully seated, the aft fuselage door is not fully closed and locked.
The CABIN PRESSURE LO warning annunciator will illuminate when the
cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 +/- 500 feet
The flight crew will make all necessary entries in AFTO 781 to indicate when any limitations have been exceeded. Entries shall include…
All the above (Time interval, instrument reading of the limitation that was exceeded, amount and duration of an overtemperature)
Do not operate surface anti-ice systems inflight at ram air temperatures above 10 degrees Celsius.
True
The yaw damper must be disengaged by 200 feet AGL for all landings.
False
With respect to brake energy limitations, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes in stopping the aircraft within a given stopping distance, regardless of whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or in a series of short applications
True
Maximum Braking Speed is the brake application speed from which the aircraft may be brought to a full stop without exceeding the energy absorption capability of the brakes. This energy absorption corresponds to the fuse plug brake energy, ________ million FT-LB per brake
4.05
When _____ million foot pounds are absorbed, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires
8.1
If hot brakes are suspected
All of the above (aircraft shouldn’t be taxied any more than necessary to clear the active rwy, shouldn’t be maneuvered into a crowded parking area, and parking brake shouldn’t be set, don’t approach brakes for half an hour)
The thermal fused screws are designed to soften and blow out, releasing air pressure in the tires when the temperature reaches approximately _______° F
430
Takeoffs are permitted with partial wing fuel and fuel in the fuselage tanks
False
If a thunderstorm or turbulence cannot be avoided, adjust power to establish a speed of ____ KIAS or _____ Mach.
200, 0.58
During stall recoveries, placing the control column forward of neutral may:
result in accelerations below 0 g, exceeding the aircraft acceleration limit with flaps extended
A difference of ______ knots or more indicates the presence of significant severe windshear and should be avoided
15
Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat can result in erratic operation or failure of the following pilot and copilot systems:
All of the above (Mach/airspeed indicator, RA/VSI, Altimeters)
Apply ______% of the tailwind component to CFL, Vcef, Vr, Vb, and take-off ground run and zero wind climbout factor.
150
