Systems Validation Flashcards
Questions similar to those you may find on the systems validation test.
What are the dimensions of the A321?
Length, wingspan, and height.
Aircraft General
Length: 146’
Wingspan: 117’ 5”
Height: 38’ 7”
DSC-20-20 P 3/6 (164)
What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180° turn?
Aircraft General
93’. 99’ recommended.
DSC-20-30 P 2/4 (169)
What are the unpressurized areas of the A321?
Aircraft General
- Radome
- Nose gear bay
- Air conditioning compartment
- Main gear bay
- Tail cone
DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)
Where is the VHF 2 antenna located?
Aircraft General
Rear lower fuselage
DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)
Where are the GPS antennas located?
Aircraft General
Upper forward fuselage
DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)
Where are the HF antennas located?
Aircraft General
Mid vertical stabilizer
DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)
What is the maximum takeoff weight for the A321?
Aircraft General
206,132 lbs
LIM-AG-WGHT P 1/2 (3,580)
What is the maximum landing weight for the A321?
Aircraft General
174,606 lbs
LIM-AG-WGHT P 1/2 (3,580)
How many cabin exits are there on the A321?
Doors
8
DSC-52-10-10 P 1/2 (2,110)
How does the opening of the passenger doors differ from the cabin emergency exits during slide deployment?
Doors
Passenger doors drive full open and do not hesitate in opening for slide inflation. Cabin emergency exits have intermediate opening to prevent passengers exiting during slide inflation - this can be manually overridden.
Cannot find FCOM reference.
What happens to the cockpit door if electrical power is lost?
Doors
The door is unlocked but remains closed.
DSC-52-40-10 P 2/2 (2,133)
What would a strike light illuminated on the upper overhead panel indicate?
Doors
The corresponding (upper, mid, or lower) locking latch is faulty.
DSC-52-40-20 P 4/4 (2,137)
The cockpit window handle must have what color band showing to indicate the window is locked?
Doors
Red
Cannot find FCOM reference.
What does a white SLIDE indication on the ECAM DOORS page indicate?
Doors
The slide is armed.
DSC-52-20 P 1/2 (2,130)
Where is the slide located for the cabin emergency exits?
Doors
Below the floor
DSC-52-10-30 P 2/2 (2,117)
Where is the manual slide deployment located for the passenger doors? Cabin emergency exits?
Doors
- Passenger doors: floor right side
- Cabin emergency exits: in the door jamb upper right side
Pax: DSC-52-10-80 P 1/4 (2,126)
Cabin: DSC-52-10-30 P 2/2 (2,117) not labeled
What is the only cockpit light that will work when batteries are supplying electrical power?
Lights
First Officer dome light
DSC-33-10-10 P 1/2 (1,646)
How do you tell a NAV or STROBE light is reaching the end of its service life?
Lights
A blue LED light will blink
DSC-33-20-20 P 3/6 (1,660)
Cabin signs will automatically illuminate at what cabin altitude?
Lights
11,300’ ± 350’
DSC-33-40-10 P 2/2 (1,669)
What is the required emergency equipment?
Equipment
Ropes, Axe, Masks, PBE, AVSAX, Gloves, Extinguisher, Flashlights, Vests
RAMPAGE FV
PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 14/16 (3,107)
Where is the fire extinguisher located?
Equipment
Behind the FO - all the fire fighting equipment is behind the FO
DSC-25-20 P 1/4 (1,240)
Where are the life jackets for the 3rd and 4th occupant located?
Equipment
Below their associated seats
DSC-25-20 P 2/4 (1,241)
Pressing a switch IN is normally associated with turning the switch ____.
Equipment
On/auto
DSC-25-10-10 P 2/4 (1,215)
What do 2 dots on a pushbutton indicate?
Equipment
That portion of the switch is not used.
DSC-25-10-10 P 2/4 (1,215)
Where is circuit breaker panel 49VU located?
Equipment
Overhead panel
DSC-25-10-70 P 1/2 (1,236)
What does “=” throughout the PFD indicated?
Note: “=” would be green.
Indications and Recording
This indicates “normal law,” a limit, or protection available.
DSC-31-40 P 4/32 (1,511)
Can the flight crew manually start the DFDR?
Indications and Recording
The flight crew can manually start the DFDR and does this by pressing the GND CTL switch. This is a normal procedure on the ground before the before start checklist to ensure the checklist is recorded.
DSC-31-60-10 P 2/2 (1,581)
Instead of airspeed, the BUSS uses ____. For altitude information, the BUSS uses altitude from ____.
Indications and Recording
AOA; GPS
DSC-34-NAV-10-30-10 P 1/4 (1,684)
Which DUs will automatically switch in the event of a failure?
Indications and Recording
PFD to ND, E/WD to SD (3 total screens switch)
DSC-31-05-60 P 1/6 (1,454)
What on screen indication would you get if DMC 1 fails?
Indications and Recording
Captain side screen would indicate “invalid data” and the ECAM would flash off then on.
DSC-31-05-50 P 1/2 (1,452)
How do the DMCs reconfigure if DMC 1 fails? Does anything happen to the screens when DMC 1 fails? What does the crew need to do?
Indications and Recording
DMC 2 automatically takes over to display information on the ECAM. The captain’s screen would shut off and the ECAM will “blink.” The crew needs to select EIS DMC to CAPT 3 to allow the captain’s screen to use DMC 3.
DSC-31-05-50 P 1/2 (1,452)
What is the difference between level 1, 2, and 3 ECAM warnings/cautions?
Indications and Recording
3 has CRC; 2 has SC; 1 has no chime.
DSC-31-10 P 3/8 (1,462)
How would you identify a primary failure?
Indications and Recording
A primary failure is indicated by a BOX around the item.
DSC-31-15 P 4/8 (1,471)
How long does the cabin oxygen system supply oxygen for?
Oxygen
15 min
DSC-35-30-10 P 1/2 (1,832)
The masks for the cabin oxygen system will automatically drop at what cabin altitude?
Oxygen
14,000’ (+250’/-750’)
DSC-35-30-10 P 1/2 (1,832)
How long does the PBE supply oxygen for?
Oxygen
15 min
DSC-35-40-10 P 1/4 (1,836)
When does the quick don mask automatically provide overpressure oxygen supply?
Oxygen
30,000’ cabin altitude
DSC-35-20-20 P 5/8 (1,826)
Know the battery contactor indicators (photo on back)
Electrical
DSC-24-20 P 13/22 (1,200)
The ENG generators supply ____ KVA of ____ power.
Electrical
90; AC
DSC-24-10-20 P 1/4 (1,166)
What is the generator priority?
Electrical
GEN1/GEN2 (onside), external power, APU
DSC-24-10-30-10 P 1/2 (1,170)
How is the emergency generator powered?
Electrical
Blue hydraulic system
DSC-24-10-30-30 P 4/10 (1,179)
Can the entire network be powered by a single ENG generator?
Electrical
No. The galley bus is shed.
DSC-24-10-30-30 P 1/10 (1,176)
What is the difference between the emergency configuration and the smoke configuration?
Electrical
The smoke configuration is a reversible configuration purposefully entered by the crew to identify the source of smoke and the fuel pumps are on (connected).
Emergency configuration is due to an actual failure and might not be reversible.
DSC-24-10-30-30 P 9/10 (1,184) Can’t find where FCOM mentions reversible
What is the required voltage for the batteries prior to APU start?
Electrical
Above 25.5 V
PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 2/16 (3,095)
How do you recharge the batteries?
Electrical
BATT pushbuttons on, aircraft connected to external power, 20 minutes. BATT pushbuttons off to display how much charge batteries have (battery charge indicators are always on)
PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 2/16 (3,095)
What does FAULT indicate on the EMER ELEC PWR panel?
Electrical
The EMER gen is not supplying power.
DSC-24-20 P 7/22 (1,194)
What fuel pumps normally deliver fuel to the APU?
APU
Left tank pumps. If pressure is insufficient or during start, the APU has its own fuel pump.
DSC-49-1-20 P 1/4 (2,090)
What switches do you push to start the APU?
APU
MASTER, START
DSC-49-1-20 P 1/4 (2,090)
What switches do you press to shutdown the APU?
APU
After turning off bleed air, press MASTER
After using bleed air you go to shut off the APU, does the APU shut down immediately?
APU
No, it undergoes a cooling period for 60-120 seconds and the shutdown process can be stopped by pressing MASTER.
DSC-49-20 P 1/2 (2,094)
When securing the aircraft, what must the aircrew do before turning off the batteries?
APU
Wait until the APU flap is fully closed (about 2 minutes after the APU AVAIL light goes out), before switching off the batteries.
PRO-NOR-SUP-23 P 2/4 (3,371)
When would GND appear on the ECAM BLEED page?
Pneumatics
Any time on the ground
DSC-36-20 P 5/6 (1,864)
Bleed valves are ____ operated and ____ controlled.
Pneumatics
Pneumatically; electrically
DSC-36-10-20 P 1/6 (1,846)
What stage air is the normal source for engine bleed air?
Pneumatics
IP air
DSC-36-10-20 P 3/6 (1,848)
When would the BMC switch to HP air?
Pneumatics
When the BMC senses IP air is unable to provide 65 ± 15 PSI. Generally low power settings.
DSC-36-10-20 P 3/6 (1,848)
What would a FAULT light on the overhead AIR COND panel indicate?
Pneumatics
Overheat, over pressure, leak, incorrect valve position
DSC-36-20 P 2/6 (1,861)
____ bleed has priority over ____ bleed air.
Pneumatics
APU; ENG
DSC-36-10-30 P 1/2 (1,852)
Air conditioning valves are ____ operated, ____ controlled, and fail ____.
Air Conditioning
Pneumatically; electrically; closed
DSC-21-10-20 P 3/4 (188)
When will the packs automatically deliver NORM pressure?
Air Conditioning
When LO is selected and the ACSC determines the system is unable to meet the cooling demands requested.
DSC-21-10-30 P 2/2 (191)
When will the packs automatically deliver HI pressure?
Air Conditioning
Single pack operation or when the APU is the source of bleed air
DSC-21-10-30 P 2/2 (191)
When do the cabin pressure controllers switch?
Pressurization
By cycling the MODE SEL switch to manual and back to automatic or by waiting 70 seconds after landing.
DSC-21-20-30 P 1/4 (214) and DSC-21-20-40 P1/8 (218)
How many motors are on the outflow valve?
Pressurization
3 motors (2 automatic AC faster motors; 1 manual DC slower motor)
DSC-21-20-20 P 1/2 (212)
Seatbelt signs will automatically come on when cabin altitude reaches what value?
Pressurization
11,300’ ± 350’
DSC-33-40-10 P 2/2 (1,669)
How many safety valves does the A321 have?
Pressurization
2
DSC-21-20-20 P 1/2 (212)
What are the 3 systems that are ventilated?
Ventilation
Battery, lavatory/galley, avionics
DSC-21-30-10 P 1/2 (226)
When is the avionics system in the open configuration on the ground?
Ventilation
The skin temperature is above a threshold (≥ 40°C)
Book says duct temp, slides say skin temp.
DSC-21-30-20 P 2/8 (229)
When is the avionics system in the intermediate configuration in the air?
Ventilation
The skin temperature is above a threshold (35°C, temp increasing OR 32°C, temp decreasing)
DSC-21-30-20 P 4/8 (231)
What portion of the wing is heated with bleed air?
Ice and Rain Protection
The 3 outboard slats (3, 4, 5)
DSC-30-20-10 P 1/2 (1,410)
Wing anti ice valves fail ____.
Ice and Rain Protection
Closed
DSC-30-20-10 P 1/2 (1,410)
Engine anti ice valves fail ____.
Open
DSC-30-30-10 P 1/2 (1,416)
How do you perform the APU fire test on a cold dark airplane? What indications should you see?
Fire Protection
BATT 1 and 2 pushbuttons on, press the TEST button. APU FIRE pushbutton and SQUIB/DISCH switch should illuminate.
DSC-26-20-20 P 3/6 (1,254)
What indications would you see for a successful APU and Engine Fire test with AC power?
Fire Protection
- APU: Continuous repetitive chime, 4 lights (2 MASTER WARNINGS, 1 APU FIRE pushbutton light, 1 SQUIB/DISCH pushbutton light), ECAM APU FIRE warning
- ENG: Continuous repetitive chime, 6 lights (2 MASTER WARNINGS, 1 ENG FIRE pushbutton light, 2 SQUIB/DISCH lights, 1 FIRE/FAULT light), ECAM ENG FIRE warning
APU: DSC-26-20-20 P 3/6 (1,254)
ENG: DSC-26-20-20 P 2/6 (1,253)
What indications would you have for smoke detected in the avionics bay?
Fire Protection
- Single chime
- 5 lights (2 master cautions, 1 smoke light on emer elec panel, 1 blower fault light, 1 extract fault light)
- ECAM AVIONICS SMOKE
DSC-26-30-10 P 1/2 (1,258)
What indication does the crew have to identify when a fire has gone out?
Fire Protection
The associated FIRE pushbutton will no longer be illuminated for APU and ENG fires.
There is no way to tell if a cargo fire has gone out (halon will trigger the smoke detectors).
ENG: PRO-ABN-ENG P 48/126 (2,637)
Cargo: PRO-ABN-SMOKE P 14/16 (3,011)
How many extinguishing bottles per engine? APU? Cargo?
Fire Protection
- Engine: 2 per engine
- APU: 1
- Cargo: 2 shared
ENG: DSC-26-20-10 P 2/2 (1,251)
APU: DSC-26-20-10 P 2/2 (1,251)
Cargo: DSC-26-50-10 P 2/4 (1,265)
How long does AGENT 1 take to discharge?
Fire Protection
60 seconds
DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
On the cargo smoke panel, when does the DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate?
Fire Protection
60 minutes after discharging agent 1
DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
How long does AGENT 2 take to discharge?
Fire Protection
Over 140 minutes
DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
How much total fire protection do we have?
Fire Protection
200 minutes of coverage (60 min from AGENT 1, 140 min from AGENT 2)
DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
When do the hydraulic system labels on ECAM display in amber?
Hydraulics
When below 1,450 PSI
DSC-29-20 P 6/8 (1,401)
Be familiar with the PTU SD indications (see back of card).
Hydraulics
DSC-29-20 P 6/8 (1,401)
What hydraulic system are the normal brakes on? Alternate brakes? Parking brake? NWS? EMER GEN? MLG?
Hydraulics
- Normal Brakes: green
- Alternate Brakes: yellow
- Parking Brake: yellow
- NWS: yellow
- EMER GEN: blue
- MLG: green
DSC-29-10-30 P 1/2 (1,394)
What systems contain electric pumps?
Hydraulics
Blue and yellow
DSC-29-10-20 P 1/6 (1,388)
When does the blue electric pump operate? The yellow one?
Hydraulics
- Blue: after the first engine start
- Yellow: whenever manually selected on or during cargo door operations
Blue: DSC-29-20 P 1/8 (1,396)
Yellow: DSC-29-20 P 2/8 (1,397)
Hydraulic pumps provide ____ PSI except the RAT which provides ____ PSI.
Hydraulics
3000; 2500
DSC-29-10-10 P 1/2 (1,386)
When will the PTU operate?
Hydraulics
Differential pressure of at least 500 PSI with the parking brake released
DSC-29-10-20 P 1/6 Cannot find referece to “with the parking brake released” in FCOM
What computes the rudder travel limit?
Flight Controls
Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC)
DSC-22_40-10 P 1/2 (1,062)
What are the only 2 mechanically controlled flight surfaces?
Flight Controls
Rudder, pitch trim
DSC-27-10-10 P 2/6 (1,275)
How many flight control computers are there?
Flight Controls
7 (2 FAC, 2 ELAC, 3 SEC)
DSC-27-10-10 P 3/6 (1,276)
In the event of a sidestick malfunction, how would a pilot takeover control and deactivate the other sidestick?
Flight Controls
Press and hold the sidestick priority button for 40 seconds. Control can be regained if the opposite sidestick priority pushbutton is pressed.
DSC-27-20-30 P 5/16 (1,328)
Looking at the PFD, how would you be able to identify normal law? Alternate law? Direct law? Mechanical law?
Flight Controls
- Normal: “=”
- Alternate: “x”
- Direct: “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”
- Mechanical: “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
Normal: DSC-31-40 P 4/32 (1,511)
Alternate: DSC-27-20-20 P 6/10 (1,319)
Direct: DSC-27-20-20 P 8/10 (1,321)
Mechanical: DSC 27-20-20 P 9/10 (1,322)
What happens in alternate law when the gear is extended?
Flight Controls
It goes into flare mode (which is direct law)
DSC-27-20-20 P 6/10 (1,319)
The alpha floor function activates regardless of ____ position or ____ engagement status.
Flight Controls
Thrust lever; A/THR
DSC-22_40-30 P 2/4 (1,067)
Can the aircraft be refueled on battery power only?
Fuel
Yes. There is a 10 minute limit.
DSC-28-10-70 P 1/2 unable to find reference to 10 minute limit in FCOM
At what fuel value would a LO LVL indication be displayed on the ECAM?
Fuel
1,650 lb in the associated wing
DSC-28-10-80 P 1/2 (1,366)
How does fuel get from an ACT to the center tank?
Fuel
When the high level sensor in the center tank is dry for 10 minutes, the FLSCU modulates valves and the ACT transfer pump to take fuel from the ACT to the center tank.
DSC-28-10-30 P 3/4 (1,358)
How does fuel get from the center tank to the wing tanks?
Fuel
After 550 lbs of fuel is burned from the wing tank, the XFR valve is opened to allow jet pumps to suck fuel from the center tank into the wings.
DSC-28-10-30 P 3/4 (1,358)
How does fuel get from the wing tanks to the engines?
Fuel
2 fuel pumps per wing
DSC-28-10-30 P 1/4 (1,356)
What are the 3 times the FD will automatically engage?
Autoflight
- FMGC powerup,
- TCAS event
- Go around
DSC-22_30-20-20 P 1/2 (810)
What does -FD2 indicate?
Autoflight
FD 1 is off
DSC-22_30-20-50 P2/2 (817)
Managed guidance is achieved by ____ knobs; selected guidance is achieved by ____ knobs.
Autoflight
Pushing; pulling
DSC-22_10-40-20 P 2/8 (285)
Where is AP, FD, and A/TH engagement displayed?
Autoflight
5th column of the FMA
DSC-22_30-80-20 P 1/32 (1,022)
Which RMP works in the EMER ELEC configuration?
Communications
RMP 1
DSC-23-10-20 P 1/4 (1,098)
How can you erase the CVR?
Communications
When the aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is on, press the ERASE button for 2 seconds.
DSC-23-10-40 P 2/2 (1,107)
When does DECEL illuminate on the autobrake pushbuttons?
Landing Gear
At 80% of the selected rate
DSC-32-30-20 P 3/8 (1,632)
The landing gear panel attains information from which LGCIU?
Landing Gear
1
DSC-32-10-40 P1/6 (1,610)
The brake pressure gauge on the main console shows pressure for which system?
Landing Gear
Yellow
DSC-32-30-20 P 2/8 (1,631)
When is the NAV accuracy check considered positive? Negative?
Flight Management & Navigation
- Positive: error is ≤ 3 NM (FM position is reliable)
- Negative: error is > 3 NM (FM position is not reliable
Reference in FCOM not found. Perhaps around PRO-SPO-51 (3,524)
If the TERR ON ND pushbutton is off, what happens if the predictive functions of the GPWS generate a caution or warning?
Flight Management & Navigation
The terrain is automatically displayed on the NDs and the ON light of the TERR ON ND pushbutton comes on.
DSC-31-45 P 21/26 (1,560)
On the ground during an automatic start, how many igniters are used?
Powerplant
1 during the first start, 2 during subsequent starts
DSC-70-80-30 (2,199)
Which hydraulic system does each engine’s reverse thrust use?
Powerplant
- Eng 1: green
- Eng 2: yellow
Each engine uses the “on side” hydraulic system
DSC-70-70 P 1/4 (2,190)
Transient arcs on the engine indications are only displayed with what engaged?
Powerplant
A/THR
DSC-70-90-40 P 6/12 (2,223)