Systems Study Guide (Dated August 2018) Flashcards
How do the cabin seat belt signs work when operating in the AUTO position on the Seat Belt Selector?
Seat Belt Signs are turned off or on automatically with reference to:
Landing gear configuration (not up and locked) or
Flap position (lever not up and locked) or
Aircraft altitude (below 10300 ft 200A/B) or
Cabin altitude above 10000 or
Passenger oxygen on
Each emergency lighting system component has battery power that provides at least ______ minutes of operation if fully charged?
15
When does the nose landing light illuminate in the on position?
Only when the nose gear is down and locked
With the nose gear retracted does the Taxi light illuminate?
No. Only with gear down and locked
What switch positions allow emergency lights battery packs to be charged from DC power?
All switch positions. But lights on is insufficient to maintain the battery packs charge
When pilot oxygen masks are not in the container, closing the left door and then pushing down on the PUSH TO TEST AND RESET slide lever does what?
Shuts off oxygen to the mask and re-selects the boom mic.
The oxygen masks and chemical generators are located above the seats in passenger service units (PSUs). How are the masks deployed?
Automatically when cabin altitude exceeds approximately 13,500 ft or
Manually from the flight deck using the PASS OXYGEN switch on the panel
What does pilot oxygen EMERGENCY position supply?
100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes.
(200A/B/322) When the flight deck door is closed and electrical power is available, the door locks automatically. How is access granted
Using the emergency access code or depowering the airplane
(200A/B/322) Flight Deck Door emergency access can be denied by the pilots at any time within the first ____ seconds by momentarily selecting ____.
30, DENY
(200C) If the Flight Deck Door does not automatically unlock 30 seconds after pushing the emergency entrance switch, pilots should
Contact MX
Bleed air is supplied to _____
Aft and Bulk cargo heat Air conditioning Air driven hydraulic pumps APU and engine start Hydraulic reservoir pressurization Potable water system pressurization Pressurization TAT probe aspiration Wing and engine anti−ice
APU bleed air is used primarily during ___ for ____.
Ground operations, for air conditioning pack operation and engine starting
The engine bleed air valves are armed when the ENGINE bleed switches are selected ON.
For what reasons do the engine bleed valves close automatically?
During engine start When a ground cart is supplying air For bleed source loss (think engine shut down) When an engine fire switch is pulled For bleed air over−temperature For bleed air overpressure For a bleed air duct leak
Left, center, and right isolation valves divide the bleed air duct into segments. The center isolation valve is normally closed, except during _____.
during engine start or single engine bleed source operation
Engine bleed air comes from _____.
High stage or low stage engine compressor section.
When one pack enters standby cooling mode and the other is operating normally, the pack in standby may automatically shutdown at ____ and will restart when _____.
at lower altitudes or higher outside air temperatures
when ambient conditions permit standby cooling
Air from the lower recirculation fans is mixed with ____ before entering supply ducts. Air from the upper recirculation fans feeds directly into the ____.
pack air
supply ducts.
The target temperatures of each passenger cabin temperature zone can be modified ____ degrees F, within the range of ____F to ____F.
+/- 10
65
85
The FLIGHT DECK TEMP selector sets flight deck temperature between ____ degrees F and ____ degrees F.
65
85
The HIGH setting on the bulk cargo temperature selector turns on bulk ventilation fan, which provides for animal carriage. What does an overheat in the aft or bulk compartment cause?
Can heat be restored?
The system to shut down automatically and an EICAS advisory message CARGO HEAT (AFT/BULK).
Cargo heat to the affected compartment cannot be restored inflight.
The forward cargo compartment is heated by air from the ____
forward equipment ventilation system.
If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative the EICAS advisory message EQUIP COOLING displays. How is the ground crew made aware of the condition?
The ground crew call horn in the wheel well sounds.
In flight smoke evacuation of the flight deck and equipment cooling of the lower forward
pressurized section is provided by the equipment cooling system override mode. Under what
conditions does this override mode operate automatically?
The EQUIP COOLING switch is OFF, or In flight, both supply fans fail, or In flight, low airflow is detected, or Smoke is detected in the forward equipment cooling system or the forward equipment ventilation system, or The FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch is ARMED.
Pack control, fault detection, and overheat protection are automatic. Packs shut down for certain faults, and pressing the AIR COND RESET switch, resets or attempts to reset the pack for which conditions?
Any closed pack flow shutoff valves or trim air valves closed due to Failed recirculation fan Fault protection overheat, control failure, valve failure
What protects the cabin against excessive pressure differential.
Two positive pressure relief valves and four negative pressure relief vents
In flight, with ENGINE ANTI−ICE selector to AUTO, engine anti−ice valves are controlled by the automatic ice detection system. On the ground, the selectors must be in the ___ position to operate the engine anti−ice system.
ON position
If TAT is 10 degrees C or above, manual (ON) wing anti−ice operation is inhibited until five minutes after takeoff. The inhibit is removed when TAT drops below what
temperature?
Below 10C TAT
Which flight deck windows are electrically heated?
All flight deck windows are electrically heated. Front windows only are Anti-Ice backed up by anti-fog. Side windows are anti-fog.
In flight, with ENGINE ANTI−ICE selector to AUTO, engine anti−ice valves are controlled by the automatic ice detection system. On the ground, the selectors must be in the ____ position to operate the engine anti−ice system.
ON
If TAT is 10 degrees C or above, manual (ON) wing anti−ice operation is inhibited until five minutes after takeoff. The inhibit is removed when TAT drops below what temperature?
10C TAT
Which flight deck windows are electrically heated?
All of them. Front are anti-iced backup by anti-fog. Side are anti-fog only.
The autopilot system can detect the degradation of a specific autopilot mode. What indication(s) results when an engaged mode degrades?
The autopilot remains engaged in an attitude−stabilizing mode based on inertial data
A persistent condition is annunciated by an amber line drawn through the affected Flight Mode Annunciation (FMA) Further degradation results in EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT.
What does an AFDS status annunciation of LAND 3 indicate?
Three autopilots are engaged and operating normally for an automatic landing. The autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational).
Changes in autoland status below 200 feet, other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND are ____.
Inhibited
How does the autothrottle apply thrust when operating in the THR mode?
The autothrottle applies thrust to maintain the vertical speed required by the pitch mode
What flight envelope protection is provided by the autopilot?
Bank angle
Stall (above 500 feet)
Overspeed
When does the autothrottle disconnect automatically?
The autothrottles disconnect automatically when:
− A fault is detected in the engaged autothrottle mode.
− Either reverse thrust lever is raised to the interlock position.
− Both engines are shut down.
When the CLB CON switch on the MCP is pushed in flight, what is accomplished?
With two engines operating, changes the engine thrust limit to the FMC selected climb thrust.
With only one engine operating, changes the thrust limit to maximum continuous (CON).
The MCP IAS/MACH window displays ___ knots when power is first applied.
200
What is accomplished by pushing the LNAV switch on the MCP?
Arms, engages, or disarms LNAV as a roll mode.
Displays LNAV in white (armed) on PFD roll FMA when armed. Previous roll mode remains active.
LNAV engages if aircraft is above 50 feet radio altitude, within 2.5 NM of active leg, and within path capture parameters of ground speed, intercept angle, and bank angle to active leg. When engaged, displays LNAV in green on PFD roll FMA.
With LNAV armed and aircraft not on heading to intercept active leg, displays NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING in CDU scratchpad.
Selection of LNAV when an active route is not available displays NO ACTIVE ROUTE in CDU scratchpad.
After localizer and glideslope capture, the localizer and glideslope modes can be disengaged only by what?
Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both F/D switches to OFF
Engaging the go−around mode
If above 1500 feet, by de−selecting APP (roll and pitch revert to default modes)
During an approach after LOC and G/S capture, how do you disengage the LOC and G/S?
After localizer and glideslope capture, these modes can be disengaged by one of the following methods:
− Disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight directors off
− Engaging the go−around mode
− If above 1500 feet, de−selecting APP (roll and pitch revert to default modes)
What Flight Mode Annunciations (FMAS) indicate that the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) is commanding the Autothrottle system to set thrust to maintain a vertical speed required by the active pitch mode?
THR
What happens when VNAV ALT is engaged and the IAS/MACH window is closed, and you change the altitude in the Mode Control Panel ALT window and push the FLCH switch?
THR and FLCH SPD annunciate and IAS/MACH window opens.
Which Flight Mode Annunciation (FMA) indicates that the throttles are moving to match thrust to the green thrust limit annunciated on the primary EICAS?
THR REF
When is the TO/GA mode armed inflight?
Unannunciated, but armed when flaps are extended or glideslope is captured
VNAV ALT annunciates to indicate that the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) has honored which of the following?
An intermediate mode control panel ALT that conflicts with the VNAV profile.
Which of the following flight modes can cause the Auto Pilot Flight Director system to depart from a Mode Control Panel ALT window altitude.
V/S and FPA
During an autoland, at what point during the approach do FLARE and ROLLOUT mode display?
1500 feet RA with GS and LOC captured
All flight control modes except _____ (below 1500 feet RA with LOC and G/S capture) can be disengaged by selecting another mode.
APP
On a go-around with the first push of either TO/GA switch, the PFDs display roll and pitch guidance to fly the go-around, AFDS maintains the ground track and increases pitch to hold the selected speed as thrust increases while the autothrottles have engaged in which mode of operation?
THR to provide adequate thrust to establish a 2000 fpm climb rate
What pitch mode FMA will you see as the AFDS maintains FMC/CDU altitude or descent path with pitch commands.
VNAV PTH (engaged)
The flight deck voice recorder digitally records ____ audio channels for the last ___.
4 channels for the last 2 hours
VHF L is configured for ____. VHF R and VHF C can be configured for ____.
voice communication only, data or voice communication
Both HF radios use a common antenna and both HF radios can receive simultaneously; however, while one HF radio is transmitting, the other HF radio cannot transmit or ____.
receive on another frequency.
Flight deck to cabin ALL CALL (55) from the flight deck produces ____ and the ____ at flight attendant stations.
a chime, call light flashes
When dashes are displayed in the radio tuning panel, indicate
The selected radio is failed or has been disconnected.
How can flight interphone and service interphone systems be connected?
Placing the SERV INTPH switch to ON
What is accessed by selecting COMM on the display select panel?
The communications main menu on the selected MFD
What will pushing the CAB transmitter select switch twice within 1 second cause to happen?
A priority call to flight attendant station 1L will be placed.
With only one generator available or if the electrical loads exceed power available (aircraft or external), ELMS automatically sheds AC loads by priority. What order of priority does ELMS use?
Galleys first then utility busses followed by individual equipment items powered by main AC
busses.
What does an IDG power when its engine is started with the GEN CTRL switch ON?
Its respective main bus is powered.
The APU generator is identical to the IDG. If no other power source is available when the APU generator reaches operating speed, what does the APU generator automatically power?
With no other power source available it connects to both main busses.
If the primary external source is powering both main busses, the APU powers the left main bus.
The APU and the secondary external cannot both provide power to the aircraft at the same time.
When primary external power source voltage and frequency are within limits, and are not in use, the primary external power ____ light illuminates.
AVAIL
How is IDG drive disconnect accomplished?
The IDG drive can be disconnected from the engine by pushing the respective DRIVE DISC switch.
High generator drive temperature causes the IDG to disconnect automatically.
The APU is automatically started in flight regardless of switch position when ____.
Both AC transfer busses lose power.
The ground handling bus is powered automatically by primary external power or APU generator. What does the bus power?
Cargo Doors (except bulk cargo door) Cargo handling system
Cargo lights
Refueling and defueling system
Potable water servicing and functionality
Lavatory servicing and functionality
Pushing the CABIN/UTILITY power switch to OFF removes power from what items?
Ground service bus (except main and APU battery chargers, and left forward fuel pump).
Utility Busses
Galleys
Fluorescent cabin lighting
Beacon, logo and wing lights
Gasper fan (200A/B, 322)
Pushing the IFE/PASS SEAT power switch to OFF removes power from what items?
IFE (all components)
WIFI
Passenger seats (including seat motor power, personal computer power outlets, and telephones)
322 Ground maneuvering cameras’
The backup electrical system automatically powers one or both transfer busses when?
The system is automatically tested after engine start.
Only one main AC generator is available.
Power to one or both main AC busses is lost.
Approach mode (APP) is selected on the MCP.
Each backup generator contains ____ permanent magnet generators (PMGs). The PMGs are reliable sources of electrical power and normally supply power to the ____.
2 PMGs
flight control DC electrical system
The main DC electrical system uses transformer rectifier units (TRUs) to produce DC power. What normally powers TRUs?
AC transfer busses.
What does the standby electrical system power?
Selected flight instruments, communications, navigation systems, and flight control system.
The RAT can supply standby electrical power to C1 and C2 TRUs and hydraulic pressure simultaneously. If the RAT is unable to maintain RPM, what happens?
the RAT generator electrical load is shed until RPM is satisfactory.
How is the RAT deployed (4 things)?
Automatically if both AC transfer busses lose power or
Both engines are failed and center system hydraulic pressure is low or
All three hydraulic system pressures are low or
Manually using the RAM AIR TURBINE switch (hot battery or APU battery bus must be powered)
What occurs when the BATTERY switch is placed to OFF on the ground and in flight?
Turns the battery power off on the ground only (inhibited in flight) and the EICAS advisory message ELEC BATTERY OFF is displayed. In flight, the EICAS advisory message ELEC BATTERY OFF is displayed.
When does the EICAS automatically show compacted engine display?
EICAS displays engine indications in compact format whenever:
Secondary engine display is automatically selected,
and the lower multifunction display is
failed, unpowered, or is occupied, or
Secondary engine display is manually selected to the lower center MFD and the lower MFD is
failed, unpowered, or occupied with EICAS
(200A/B) Describe engine indications and limitations when EEC operate in the soft alternate mode.
Lose:
EPR indication is blank.
Thrust limit protection is not available.
No reference/target indications are displayed.
Retain:
Overspeed protection is available.
Autothrottle remains engaged.
