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United Airlines 777 Updated 8/31/2021 > Jim's Notes Pelesys Questions > Flashcards

Jim's Notes Pelesys Questions Flashcards

Some/most of the questions that are not duplicated in other decks

1
Q

(322) Overhead Flight Crew Rest (OFCR) may be occupied by ___ UNITED pilots trained in the use of crew rest evac routes, firefighting procedures, and depressurization procedures. The entrance door must remain closed and locked at all times ____. Door must be secured open below 10,000’ when occupied.

A

Two,

except when occupied for taxi, takeoff, or landing

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2
Q

(322) Overhead Attendant Crew Rest (OACR) may be occupied by?

A

(322) Overhead Attendant Crew Rest (OACR) may be occupied by crewmembers trained in the use of crew rest evacuation routes, firefighting procedures, and depressurization procedures.

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3
Q

What happens to the cabin lights near the flight deck when the door is opened?

A

Cabin lighting near flight deck door is auto dimmed when flight deck door is opened if an engine running

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4
Q

Where is the sterile flight deck light and when does it operate?

A

A white sterile flight deck light is located in the hallway on the ceiling panel above the flight deck door. The light automatically illuminated when altitude is below 10,000 feet MSL, and parking brake not set.

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5
Q

When do the EMERGENCY lights illuminate automatically when armed?

A

EMER LIGHTS -Armed - emergency light illuminate automatically with loss of DC power.

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6
Q

What does the IND LTS switch in TEST do?

A

IND LTS switch in TEST illuminate all annunciator lights full bright, after 10 seconds, the lights dim.

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7
Q

What does the EMER LIGHTS switch on FA panel control? What has priority FA panel or Flight deck?

A

The emergency lighting system can also be controlled by the EMER LIGHTS switch on flight attendant panel. Bypasses flight deck emergency lights switch.

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8
Q

Where does pilot oxygen pressure show?

A

Pilot Oxygen pressure shows on the MFD status display.

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9
Q

What message will the crew see if the crew oxygen supply is low?

A

The EICAS message CREW OXYGEN LOW alerts the pilots of a low oxygen pressure condition.

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10
Q

Why does the cabin have supplemental oxygen packs?

A

Passenger cabin is equipped with supplemental oxygen packs to accommodate flights that, in the event of a decompression, would deplete the built-in oxygen supply before descent to 10,000 feet. (200B/C/322)

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11
Q

What are the sources of bleed air?

A

Bleed air can be supplied by the Engines, APU, or a Ground air source

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12
Q

When is APU bleed air available in flight?

A

In flight, APU bleed air is available below approximately 22,000 feet.

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13
Q

Why is single pack operation not recommended for ground ops?

A

Ground operations, single Pack operation is not recommended because
1) it does not reduce APU fuel consumption, 2) it causes higher flight line noise levels

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14
Q

If both packs are in standby cooling mode, or if one pack inoperative and the other in standby cooling, pack operation ____ regardless of altitude or temperature to maintain pressurization.

A

continues

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15
Q

What does the EICAS message PACK MODE L/R mean?

A

For certain internal malfunctions, pack control automatically uses standby cooling mode as a backup to the normal mode. The EICAS advisory message PACK MODE L/R is displayed.

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16
Q

Flight deck receives 100% fresh air from the left pack at a higher flow to ____.

A

prevent smoke entering the flight deck

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17
Q

Recirculation fans ____ and allow packs to operate at a reduced flow. When one or both are
turned off, packs operated at full flow, cabin air exchange rate increases

A

enhance cabin ventilation

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18
Q

When are foot and shoulder heaters available?

A

Foot and shoulder heaters are available in flight only.

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19
Q

Do the aft and bulk cargo share bleed air heating systems?

A

The aft and bulk cargo compartments have independent bleed air heating systems.

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20
Q

How is the forward cargo compartment heated?

A

The forward cargo compartment is heated by air from the forward equipment ventilation system.

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21
Q

On the ground, the ground crew call horn will sound and an EICAS advisory message will be displayed when?

A

forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.

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22
Q

Equipment Cooling switch showing OVRD means what?

A

OVRD indicates
1) both equipment cooling fans failed, or

2) smoke override mode automatically selected or
3) smoke override mode is manually selected (AUTO not visible) or
4) forward cargo switches armed

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23
Q

LDG ALT selector - does what?

A

LDG ALT selector - When pulled ON, removes FMC landing altitude. Rotating L or R manually sets landing altitude. Pushing the selector in resets the FMC landing altitude.

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24
Q

LDG ALT on EICAS displays departure airport landing altitude until more than halfway to destination airport or ____, then destination airport landing altitude displays.

A

when more than 400NM from departure airport

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25
Q

Engine Anti-ice selector must be ____ for the engine anti-ice to operate on the ground.

A

ON

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26
Q

Can Wing AI be used on the ground?

A

Wing anti-ice can be operated in flight only. WAI is inhibited on the ground.

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27
Q

How does the Engine AI work in AUTO in flight?

A

In flight, when the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selector in AUTO, engine anti-ice is automatic. When detected, the engine
anti-ice vales open and bleed air is automatically supplied to the engine inlets.

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28
Q

When is Wing AI inhibited after takeoff

A

If the TAT is above 10°C, both manual and automatic wing anti-ice operation is inhibited for 5 min after T/O.

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29
Q

Where is Engine AI displayed when the valves are open?

A

Above the N1

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30
Q

Where is Wing AI displayed with the valves open?

A

Below N1

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31
Q

In AUTO - An additional wing anti-ice inhibit, independent of TAT, is active during the takeoff phase of flight.
Automatic wing anti-ice operation is inhibited when both the following conditions are true:

A

1) FMC in TAKEOFF phase (climb thrust not yet commanded)

2) Less than 10 minutes after takeoff.

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32
Q

INOP displayed in the WINDOW HEAT Switches indicates what?

A

overheat, system fault, switch OFF.

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33
Q

What flight deck windows are heated?

A

All flight deck windows are electrically heated

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34
Q

How are the forward flight deck windows heated?

A

The forward windows have exterior surface anti-icing and interior surface anti-fogging protection.

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35
Q

How are the side flight deck windows heated?

A

The side windows have interior surface anti-fogging only.

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36
Q

When does the autopilot add rudder commands?

A

Autopilot rudder commands are added only when LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated.

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37
Q

On rollout how does the autopilot steer the aircraft on the ground?

A

During autolanding and initial rollout, the autopilot controls the rudder and nose wheel steering.

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38
Q

How can you disengage ALL autopilot modes?

A

All MCP modes can be disengaged by disconnecting the autopilot and turning both F/D switches OFF.

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39
Q

How do you disarm VNAV, LNAV, LOC and APP modes

A

The VNAV, LNAV, LOC and APP modes can be disarmed by pushing the switch a second time before capture.

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40
Q

What happens if an AFDS (Autopilot) mode degrades?

A

When an engaged AFDS mode degrades, the autopilot remains in an attitude-stabilizing mode based on inertial data.

If the degradation persists, an amber line is drawn through the affected FMA. If the degradation continues, the EICAS Caution message AUTOPILOT displays (degraded mode).

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41
Q

What can cause a steering bar to disappear on the flight director?

A

A flight director mode failure causes the respective steering bar to disappear.

The stall and overspeed protection functions also cause the pitch flight director bar to disappear.

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42
Q

What is the difference between LAND 3 and LAND 2?

A

LAND 3 - the level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational).

LAND 2 - the level of redundancy is such that a single failure cannot cause significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive).

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43
Q

What does NO AUTOLAND mean?

A

NO AUTOLAND annunciated when AFDS redundancy is unable to make an automatic landing.

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44
Q

What are the autothrottle modes?

A

Autothrottle Modes are: THR, THR REF, IDLE, HOLD, SPD

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45
Q

What does THR REF autothrottle mode mean?

A

THR REF is displayed when thrust is to the selected thrust limit displayed on EICAS.

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46
Q

When can the AFDS capture the LOC?

A

The AFDS captures the localizer(LOC) when within range and within 120° of localizer track.

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47
Q

When is TOGA mode armed in flight?

A

In flight, (not takeoff) TO/GA is armed whenever the flaps are not retracted or at glideslope capture.

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48
Q

When is ROLLOUT armed and when does it engage?

A

Rollout - (armed) - Displays below 1500’ RA, engages below 2 feet RA

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49
Q

What is VNAV SPD

A

VNAV SPD - The AFDS maintains the FMC speed displayed above the PFD speed tape

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50
Q

What is VNAV ALT

A

VNAV ALT - In VNAV when a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude

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51
Q

What is VNAV PTH

A

VNAV PTH - The AFDS maintains the FMC/CDU altitude or descent path with pitch commands.

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52
Q

What are the 3 forms of flight envelope protection?

A

Three forms of flight envelope protection are in the autopilot. Bank Angle, Stall (Above 500’), Overspeed.

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53
Q

When will the autothrottle not automatically engage (autothrottle wakeup)?

A

When the pitch mode is FLCH SPD or TO/GA, or
the aircraft is below 400’ above airport on takeoff,
or below 100’ RA on approach,
the autothrottle will not automatically engage.

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54
Q

Autothrottle disconnect occurs automatically:

A

If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected, When either reverse lever is raised to idle reverse, manual override of throttles after they begin to retard on landing, or both eng’s shut down.

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55
Q

What keeps autothrottle from being engaged on Takeoff until after 400’?

A

If TO/GA switch in not pushed on takeoff roll by 50K, Autothrottle cannot be engaged until 400 feet AGL.

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56
Q

In autoflight Go Around what does pushing the TOGA switches once do? Twice?

A

For an Autoflight Go-Around the first push of either TO/GA switch, autothrottles engage in THR mode for a 2,000 FPM climb, the second push engages the THR REF mode, to provide full Go-Around thrust.

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57
Q

What two things does pushing the A/P DISENGAGE bar down do?

A

1) *Disables bank angle protection.
2) Disengages all three autopilots.
6. 40.20.2

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58
Q

What will you see on the MCP during initial power-up?

A

MCP initial power up:
Speed - 200K;

heading - 360;

altitude - 10,000

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59
Q

When does IAS change to MACH on climb?

A

During climb, IAS/MACH automatically changes from IAS to MACH at .84 MACH.

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60
Q

When does MACH change to IAS on descent?

A

During descent, IAS/MACH automatically changes from MACH to IAS at 310 KIAS.

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61
Q

What does BANK LIMIT selector in AUTO do?

A

BANK LIMIT selector in AUTO varies between 15-25 degrees depending on TAS.

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62
Q

How can APP mode be disengaged after LOC and/or GS capture?

A

After localizer and/or glideslope capture, APP mode can be disengaged by:
Engaging TO/GA,

disengaging autopilot and turning both flight director switches off.

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63
Q

How long does a green box last around activated or engaged modes?

A

10 Seconds

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64
Q

When does the Voice Recorder operate and what does it record?

A

The flight deck voice recorder operates any time AC power is available.

Digitally records 4 channels/last 2 hours.

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65
Q

What does an ALL CALL (55) do?

A

An ALL CALL (55) from the flight deck produces a chime and call light flashes at FA stations.

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66
Q

Pushing the CAB transmitter select switch twice within 1 sec does what?

A

places a priority call to station 1L.

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67
Q

What does the glareshield CANC switch do?

A

Glare shield CANC switch removes messages from the MFD. Same function as MFD CANCEL prompt

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68
Q

How is power interruption prevented during AC power source changes?

A

During power source transfers on the ground (e.g. APU generator to an Engine generator) Operating sources are momentarily paralleled to prevent power interruption.

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69
Q

What happens when an engine is started with it’s GEN switch ON?

A

When an engine is started with the GEN CTRL switch ON, the respective main bus is powered.

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70
Q

What can the APU GEN power?

A

The APU generator is identical to the IDGs and can power either or both main busses.

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71
Q

What will cause an IDG to disconnect automatically?

A

High generator drive temperature causes the IDG to disconnect automatically.

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72
Q

What causes the APU to start inflight regardless of switch position?

A

In flight, when both transfer busses are unpowered, the APU starts automatically regardless of selector position.

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73
Q

How can you electrically disconnect an IDG from the busses?

A

The IDG can be electrically disconnected from the busses by pushing the GENERATOR CONTROL switch to OFF or by selecting an available external power source prior to engine shutdown.

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74
Q

What causes the external power AVAIL light to illuminate?

A

When either the Pri or Sec Ext power source voltage and frequency are within limits, the AVAIL illuminates.

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75
Q

What can the secondary external power, power?

A

The secondary ext power can power the left and right main busses.

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76
Q

What is power priority for main AC busses in flight?

A

In Flight, the priority for powering the left and right main busses is: Respective IDG, APU, Opposite IDG.

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77
Q

What powers the ground service bus?

A

Ground Service Bus is normally powered by the Rt Main Bus, alternate power is PRI EXT Power and APU.

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78
Q

What does the Ground Service Bus power?

A

Ground Service Bus powers: Battery chargers, Left forward fuel pump, Miscellaneous cabin lights and outlets.

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79
Q

What does turning off the CABIN AND UTILITY POWER switch do?

A

Pushing the CABIN AND UTILITY POWER switch to OFF removes power from:
Gnd Service Bus (except battery chargers and left forward fuel pump), Utility busses, galleys,

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80
Q

When does the backup electircal system power one or both transfer busses?

A

(APP) selected

Self test after eng start

Only one main AC gen is avail

power to one or both AC busses lost.

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81
Q

How many TRU’s does the main electrical system have?

A

The main DC electrical system uses 4 transformer rectifier units to produce DC power.

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82
Q

What powers the DC flight control system?

A

The primary power source for the flight control DC system are left and right backup generator PMG’s.

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83
Q

What does the Standby Electrical System power?

A 
Standby Electrical System can power 
selected Flight Instruments, 
Comm,
 Navigation systems 
Flight Control systems.
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84
Q

What does the Standby Electrical System consist of?

A

Standby Electrical System consist of the:
Main Battery,

Standby Inverter,

Rat Generator,

C1 and C2 TRU’s.

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85
Q

What does the main battery provide power to?

A

The Main battery provides standby power to the:
Hot Battery Bus;

Battery Bus;

Standby Inverter;

left and center DC flight control busses;

Captains fight instrument bus.

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86
Q

What does the standby inverter (on the standby electrical system) power?

A

The standby inverter powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus is not powered

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87
Q

What is the RAT automatically deployed?

A

The RAT is automatically deployed if both AC transfer busses lose power, or Manually with the switch.

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88
Q

What does a DRIVE light indicate on an IDG?

A

Generator DRIVE light indicates low IDG oil pressure.

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89
Q

Is the PA system powered with AC power removed?

A

YES

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90
Q

What does BACKUP GEN OFF indicate?

A

BACKUP GEN OFF lights indicate a backup generator failure, a circuit fault or the switch is off.

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91
Q

Secondary Engine Indications are automatically displayed when any of following occur:

A

Displays initially receive power

FUEL CONTROL switch moved to CUTOFF in flight

Engine fire switch pulled in flight

Secondary engine parameter exceeded

N2 RPM below idle in flight

FUEL FLOW ENG alert message displayed

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92
Q

On takeoff EGT is in the amber band. Is this OK?

A

The EGT is often in the amber band for takeoff, this is acceptable.

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93
Q

In the normal mode, the EEC sets thrust by controlling what engine indication?

A

EPR (200A/B)

N1 (200C/322).

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94
Q

When does the EEC switch to ALTN mode and what does the thrust lever control after?

A

If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, the EEC automatically uses the ALTN mode. The EEC schedules N1 as a function of thrust lever position.

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95
Q

(200A/B) Indications of EEC has switched to Soft ALTN

A

EPR is blank.

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96
Q

The EEC provides N1 and N2 red line overspeed protection how?

A

the EEC commands reduced fuel flow.

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97
Q

What does the FUEL CONTROL switch control during and autostart?

A

FUEL CONTROL to RUN opens spar valve, the EEC opens engine fuel valve and energizes the ignitor(s) at the appropriate N2 RPM.

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98
Q

What engine params are not monitored during and automatic engine start?

A

The autostart system does not monitor oil pressure and oil temperature.

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99
Q

On the ground when does autostart not attempt a second engine start?

A

On the ground, the autostart does not attempt a second start due to: (SAND)
Starter shaft failure,

Air insufficient,

No N1 rotation,

Duty cycle exceeded.

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100
Q

How many autostart attempts will the EEC make on the ground?

A

On the ground, the autostart may attempt 2 starts. (200A/B) 3 start attempts for the (200C/322).

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101
Q

How many autostart attempts with the EEC make in flight?

A

In flight the autostart system makes continuous start attempts, until eng starts, pilot aborts the
start, or EGT limit is exceeded - then only temporarily discontinued for cooling, not aborted. (All)

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102
Q

What provides power for the igniters?

A

Main AC is the normal power source for ignition. Standby AC power provides a backup source.

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103
Q

What happens in a manual start when the FUEL CONTROL switch is set to RUN?

A

Manual start. Ignition and fuel are provided as soon as the FUEL CONTROL switch is positioned to RUN.

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104
Q

What happens when the EEC detects an engine flameout, and how is it detected?

A

AUTO-RELIGHT- When the EEC detects an engine flameout, both ignitors are activated.
A flameout is detected when a rapid decrease in N2 occurs, or N2 is less than idle RPM.

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105
Q

What does REV in amber above the EPR (200A/B) N1 (200C/322) mean?

A

The reverser is in transit. Turns green when fully deployed.

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106
Q

When will ENGINE FAIL be displayed on the PFD during takeoff?

A

The red ENG FAIL time-critical warning is displayed on the PFD if actual thrust is less than commanded thrust during takeoff with airspeed between 65 knots and 6 knots prior to V1.

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107
Q

If the APU starts automatically in flight, how it is turned off?

A

Moving the selector to ON then OFF

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108
Q

What causes the APU to autostart in flight?

A

If both AC transfer busses lose power.

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109
Q

In attended mode what does the EICAS message APU LIMIT mean?

A

The APU will continue to run but has

for High EGT, low oil pressure, or high oil temperature.

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110
Q

What do pilot control inputs command?

A

3 Primary Flight Computers

4 Actuator Control Electronics

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111
Q

What do the flaperons do?

A

Flaperons are used for roll control. For increased lift, they move down and aft in proportion to flap extensio

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112
Q

When does the rudder become aerodynamically effective?

A

At approx 60 knots

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113
Q

On the ground what do the pitch trim switches do?

A

On the ground the stabilizer is directly positioned with the pitch trim switches.

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114
Q

In flight what do the pitch trim switches do?

A

In flight, the pitch trim switches do not position the stab directly; they provide inputs to change the trim reference speed.

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115
Q

What is the priority for pitch trim switch input

A

Alternate pitch trim commands have priority over wheel pitch trim commands in all flight control modes.

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116
Q

Does moving the alternate pitch trim levers disconnect the autopilot?

A

Moving the alternate pitch trim levers will not disconnect the autopilot but does move the stabilizer.

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117
Q

If the stabilizer is manually shut down or failed in Normal mode can you still trim the aircraft?

A

In the normal flight control mode, when the stabilizer is manually shut down or failed, pitch trim is still available.
Pilot pitch trim inputs change the trim reference speed and then reposition the elevator to trim the aircraft.

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118
Q

How is the stabilizer greenband calculated?

A

The stabilizer greenband is calculated using the FMC inputs of CG, gross weight, takeoff thrust and V1.

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119
Q

If a spoiler fails what happens?

A

If a single spoiler fails, the corresponding spoiler on the other wing retracts. All three hydraulic systems supply the spoilers.

120
Q

What does arming the speed brake do?

A

In ARMED position, the speed brake lever is driven aft to UP, gear on ground, thrust levers (both) idle.

121
Q

Will the manual trim cancel switch affect rudder input from TAC?

A

The manual trim cancel switch has no effect on rudder inputs from TAC.

122
Q

What does bank angle protection do

A

Bank angle protection provides roll control wheel inputs when aircraft bank angle exceeds 35°.

123
Q

When is TAC NOT available?

A

TAC is available except: When airspeed is below 70 knots on the ground, or Reverse thrust is applied.

124
Q

In secondary flight control mode what is NOT available?

A

Autopilot, Auto Speedbrakes, TAC, Envelope Protection, Wheel to Rudder Cross-tie and Gust suppression are not available in the Secondary Mode. Yaw damping (may be degraded or inoperative), Tail Strike protection (322)

125
Q

What is max slats/flaps for alternate flap mode?

A

Mid slats

Flaps 20

126
Q

What is ECL ITEM OVRD?

A

If the pilots choose not to perform a particular line item, the line item can be overridden.

127
Q

What color is an ECL item if overridden?

A

Item override key turns the highlighted step to cyan, indicating the step is not applicable and has been overridden

128
Q

How is fuel in the center tank used before the main wing tanks?

A

The two center tank fuel pumps are override/jettison pumps with higher output. The center tank override the main tank pumps so that center tank fuel is used before wing tank fuel.

129
Q

Before engine start when do you turn on the center tank fuel pumps?

A

With center tank fuel quantity more than 10,500 pounds [(200A) 7500 pounds], select center tank
pump switches ON

130
Q

In flight if the EICAS FUEL IN CENTER message displays what should you do?

A

During flight, when the FUEL IN CENTER EICAS message displays, select the center tank pump switches ON.

131
Q

Can you turn off the left forward fuel pump on the ground with AC power established?

A

NO. It operates regardless of switch position.

132
Q

What does it mean if the fuel imbalance pointer is flashing?

A

The fuel Imbalance Pointer is amber when imbalance is excessive and flashes if fuel balancing is going in the wrong direction.

133
Q

What does a fault light mean in the Jettison Arm Switch?

A

Fault Light in Jettison Arm Switch - a system fault has occurred and fuel jettison is inoperative.

134
Q

Can a single hydraulic system provide aircraft control?

A

Flight control system components are distributed so that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane control.

135
Q

What does the left HYD system power?

A

The left Hyd system powers: some flt controls and left thrust reverser.

136
Q

What does the right HYD system power?

A

The right Hyd system powers: some flt controls, right thrust reverser, and normal brakes.

137
Q

What does the center HYD system power?

A

Flight Controls; Leading edge Slats; Trailing edge flaps; Landing gear actuation; Alternate brakes; Nose wheel steering; Main gear steering.

138
Q

When do center hyd demand pumps operate in the AUTO position?

A

In the AUTO position, Center demand pumps operate when system or primary pump pressure is low, or when system logic anticipates a large demand.

139
Q

What does the PRESS light mean on the RAT button?

A

The RAM AIR TURBINE PRESS light indicates the RAT is deployed and the center system flight control hydraulic pressure is normal.

140
Q

Speed brake altitude restriction?

A

Do not use in flight below 1000 AGL

141
Q

What does the EICAS caution message GEAR DISAGREE mean?

A

Gear is not completely locked down after normal transit time

142
Q

How is the landing gear lever lock released?

A

In flight the landing gear lever lock is automatically released through air/ground sensing.

143
Q

What lowers the gear when the gear handle is moved to the down position (normal or alternate)?

A

During extension, (either normal or alternate), the gear free-fall to the down and locked position.

144
Q

How does the gear extend with the alternate system

A

Alternate landing gear extension system, uses a dedicated DC hydraulic pump and trapped center hydraulic system fluid to extend the landing gear

145
Q

Can gear be retracted following the use of the alternate gear extension?

A

Following an alternate extension, positioning the landing gear lever to DN then UP retracts the gear using the normal system, if the normal system is available

146
Q

How much does the tiller rotate the nose gear?

A

The tiller can turn the nose wheels up to 70°. The tiller overrides rudder pedal inputs.

147
Q

What is the semi levered gear on the 322?

A

Semi Levered gear consists of an additional hydraulic actuator that connects the forward end of each main gear truck to the shock strut. During takeoff, the actuator locks to restrict rotation of the main gear truck and allow takeoff rotation about the aft wheel axle, thereby improving aircraft performance capability

148
Q

When does the main gear aft axle operate?

A

Main gear aft axle automatically operated when the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13 degrees

149
Q

How is the alternate brakes and nose wheel steering operated if there is a leak in the center hydraulic system?

A

The fluid below the standpipe in the center hydraulic reservoir is used by the primary C1 pump as a reserve hydraulic source to power the alternate brakes and nose wheel steering.

150
Q

Does alternate/reserve brakes have antiskid?

A

Alternate/reserve brake system provides antiskid protection to tandem wheel pairs fwd and middle axles.

151
Q

Do autobrakes work with alternate/reserve brakes?

A

No. Only if normal braking is operable

152
Q

What does the BRAKE SOURCE light indicate?

A

BRAKE SOURCE light indicates low pressure in both brake hydraulic sources (right and center/reserve hydraulic systems)

153
Q

When is the Warning CONFIG GEAR activated?

A

Any landing gear not down and locked and

Either thrust lever closed below 800RA or

when flaps are in landing position

154
Q

What can cause false GPWS warnings to occur?

A

False GPWS warnings may occur due to heavy rain or hail in strong convective conditions.

155
Q

How are Time Critical Warnings indicated to the pilot?

A

Warning Light

Voice Alerts

PFD indications or Stick Shaker

156
Q

What does a Caution indicate

A

Cautions require immediate awareness, corrective action may be required.

157
Q

What do status messages indicate?

A

Status messages indicate equipment faults that may affect airplane dispatch capability.

158
Q

When do Takeoff Config Warnings display?

A

T/O Configuration Warnings display when:
Aircraft is on ground and either engine in T/O range, and airspeed less than V1 and any of the following exist:

Any door not closed; 
Flaps not in T/O position; 
Main gear steering not locked;
Parking brake set; 
Rudder trim not centered; 
SPEED BRAKE lever not down; 
Stab not in green band.
159
Q

What does the GPWS “Don’t Sink” mean?

A

GPWS detects an Altitude loss with flaps and/or gear up after takeoff or go-around.

160
Q

When does PWS start scanning?

A

On the ground with the WXR switch pushed or not, weather radar begins scanning for windshear when either engine thrust is in the takeoff range and thrust reversers not unlocked or deployed.

161
Q

When is the PWS system active?

A

PWS active:
1) Manual on GND-WXR on;

2) Auto on GND-either throttles set for T/O;
3) FLT below 2300’ RA.

162
Q

When are Caution messages inhibited during Takeoff

A

From 80 Knots to 400’RA or 20 seconds after rotation.

163
Q

When are Warnings inhibited during takeoff

A

From V1 to 400’RA or 25 seconds after V1, first.

164
Q

PFC’s provide pitch compensation in turns. How much?

A

0-30 degrees

165
Q

Use a rotation rate of about ____ per second - on takeoff.

A

2°-2.5°

166
Q

Steering/Brake Pedals provide ___ nose wheel steering movement.

A

7°

167
Q

Rudder deflection with Wheel-to-Rudder-Cross-Tie up to 210K. How much?

A

8 Degrees

168
Q

PDF Pitch bar on preflight?

A

8 Degrees

169
Q

Bank Limit in Autopilot?

A

15-25 degrees. varies based on TAS

170
Q

Bank Indicator turns amber when?

A

35° Bank Indicator turns amber - Autopilot wheel forces to roll airplane within 30° (Bank angle Protection)

171
Q

Loss of Zone Temp Control. What happens?

A

Loss of Zone Temp Control - Pack flow rate modulated to achieve a outlet temp between 40 and 110°

172
Q

Temperature range Flt Attendants can adjust zone temps

A

65-85°F

18-29°C (322)

173
Q

Tiller turn the nose wheels up to ___ in either direction.

A

70°

174
Q

North - Polar safety gear (200B/C/322) required for operations above ___.

A

78°N

175
Q

Glideslope captures when intercept track angle is within ____ of localizer course.

A

80°

176
Q

Localizer capture can occur when intercept track angle is within ____ of localizer course

A

120°

177
Q

MCP Heading displays ___ when power is initially applied.

A

360°

178
Q

Do no operate the radar - when personnel are within ____ or while _____.

A

15’

refueling/defueling

179
Q

WARNING: If aircraft altitude is within ____feet of MCP altitude when the first flight director
switch is placed ON, the autoflight system pitch mode may ____.

A

20

engage in ALT

180
Q

The engine POD’s are approximately ___ from the fuselage centerline

A

31’6.5”

181
Q

LNAV engages when?

A

at 50’ within 2.5 NM of the active route leg.

182
Q

Minimum pavement width for a 180° turn (200A/B/C)

A

156’

Increase radius by 10’ (166) if main gear steering inop.

183
Q

Minimum pavement width for a 180° turn (322).

A

185.5’

184
Q

VNAV engages at ___ after takeoff - If armed.

A

400’

185
Q

Do not use speed brakes inflight below ____AGL

A

1,000’

186
Q

PWS - Weather radar begins scanning for windshear below ___ feet RA.

A

2300

187
Q

Maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing.

A

8400’

188
Q

Sterile cockpit light illuminates automatically when?

A

aircraft is below 10,000’, parking brake not set.

189
Q

Passenger Oxygen masks automatically drop from PSU if cabin altitude exceeds approx ____

A

13,500’

190
Q

Flap/Slat movement inhibited at altitudes above approximately…..

A

20,000

191
Q

Conditioned air is supplied to the Lower Crew Rest Compartment (LCRC) only when aircraft altitude is ___ and ___.

A

25,000’ or higher

the main entry hatch is open

192
Q

Maximum altitude to start the APU.

A

43,100

193
Q

How much LAT/LON entry difference from origin airport creates INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE message.

A

6 NM

194
Q

Dashed runway centerline extension length?

A

14.2 NM

195
Q

RECMD Displays what altitude?

A

most economical altitude to fly for next 500 NM based on: GW, Selected cruise speed, Constraint altitude cruise over a fixed distance.

196
Q

How many Fire detector loops: APU, each engine nacelle, and each main wheel well.

A

2

197
Q

GS & LOC pointer become solid when ___ dot from scale center.

A

2.5

198
Q

___ toilet waste water holding tanks

A

3 toilet waste water holding tanks

199
Q

How many Primary Flight Computers?

A

3

200
Q

How many Actuator Control Electronics?

A

4

201
Q

What Flap position arms Autoslats in the Primary mode.

A

1-20

202
Q

What Flap position arms Flap Load Relief in the Primary mode?

A

15-30

203
Q

What Spoilers are mechanically controlled for roll

A

4 & 11

204
Q

If TO/GA is not selected by __, the autothrottles cannot engage until above___ feet.

A

50KIAS

400

205
Q

Maximum Runway Slope

A

+/-2%

206
Q

Supplemental Oxygen can supply ___ of cabin occupants for ___ minutes

A

10%

40 Minutes

207
Q

If the thrust level on one engine differs by __% or more from the other engine, TAC automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw.

A

10

208
Q

Warning: Do not exceed ___ (200A/B) or ___ (200C/322) within congested areas unless
cleared by appropriate personnel.

A

30% N1

35% N1

209
Q

Takeoff- thrust levers- Advance to approximately ___. Allow the engines to stabilize momentarily,
then select TO/GA.

A

55% N1

210
Q

When selected Emergency Oxygen provides what?

A

100% oxygen under pressure - prevent entrance of contaminants.

211
Q

Pounds - Fuel Imbalance Pointer appears next to low tank with a crossfeed valve open when?

A

200 lbs

212
Q

In flight, if a center pump has low output pressure with less than ___ (200A) FUEL LOW CENTER advisory message displays, with PRESS light.

A

400 pounds,

213
Q

Pounds - Fuel Imbalance Pointer appears when main tanks differ by more than ___

A

1000 lbs

214
Q

In flight, if a center pump has low output pressure with less than (200B/C/322) ___, FUEL LOW
CENTER advisory message displays, with the PRESS light.

A

2400 pounds

215
Q

Pounds/minute jettison from main tanks only (2 jettison pumps on).

A

3100 lbs/min

216
Q

Pounds/minute jettison from center and main tanks

A

5400 lbs/min

217
Q

____ Pounds or greater (200A) use the center tank fuel until FUEL LOW CENTER message displays, turn OFF Center Tank Fuel Pumps. If the ___ message appears, turn ON Center Tank Pumps.

A

7500

FUEL IN CENTER

218
Q

At least ___ (322) pounds of fuel remain in each main when jettison is complete. Total ___ pounds.

A

8,500

17,000

219
Q

___ Pounds or greater (200B/C/322) use center tank fuel until FUEL LOW CENTER message displays, turn
OFF Center Tank Pumps. If the ____ message appears, turn ON Center Tank Pumps.

A

10,500

FUEL IN CENTER

220
Q

At least ___ (200A/B/C) pounds of fuel remain in each main tank when jettison is complete. Total ___

A

11,500

23,000.

221
Q

Less than ___ Pounds in either Main tank - (200A) - fuel scavenge begins.

A

20,000

222
Q

Less than ___ Pounds in either Main tank - (200B/C) - fuel scavenge begins.

A

29,000

223
Q

___ Pounds in either Main tank (322) fuel scavenge begins. Inhibited 45 Min after center tank pumps are turned off.

A

52,600

224
Q

TA/RA response must be within ___ seconds to ensure adequate vertical clearance at CPA

A

5

225
Q

When first engaged AFDS/autothrottle mode changes are emphasized for ___ Sec by a ___.

A

10

green box

226
Q

Radio Altitude - display is boxed for ___ sec when passing below ___ feet

A

10

2500

227
Q

An RA is a prediction that another aircraft will enter the TCAS conflict airspace within ___ sec

A

20-30

228
Q

On the ground with both engines shut down, any VHF radio that transmits for more than ___ seconds
is automatically ___ and dashes appear in the tuning panel frequency window for that radio

A

35

Disabled

229
Q

A TA is a prediction that another aircraft will enter the conflict airspace in ___ to ___ sec

A

25 to 45

230
Q

Cabin Ready memo removed from EICAS after ___

A

1 min

231
Q

The SAARU supplies attitude data to the PFD and ___ minutes of backup heading

A

3

232
Q

Emergency Lighting - powered by remote batteries. Fully charged provide at least ___min of operation

A

15

233
Q

Interval for engine run up during icing conditions on the ground not to exceed ___ min

A

15

234
Q

SATCOM logon is auto upon power up. Requires approximately ___ min warm up and logon

A

15

235
Q

A PBE unit provides approximately ___ minutes of Oxygen

A

15

236
Q

Passenger Oxygen System - Chemical generators provide oxygen for ___ min (200B/C/322), ___ min (200A)

A

22

12

237
Q

What are Supplemental Oxygen Packs?

A

Supplemental Oxygen Packs-2 cylinders per pack (20 min ea) Supply 10% of cabin occupants for
40 min. (200B) permanently installed in various cabin locations. (200C) catering supplies certain
flights over high terrain, located in galley carts. (322) permanently located in Door 4 galley.

238
Q

Flight Deck voice recorder - digitally records ___ channels for the last ___ hrs.

A

4

2

239
Q

If Autohrottles are disengaged prior to landing, and landing flaps are set, Set speed to ___

A

VREF plus ½ steady state winds and all of the gust, not to exceed 15K.

240
Q

When using autothrottles to land, set MCP speed to ___

A

VREF+5K regardless of computed additive

241
Q

APU fuel burn is approx ___#/hr supporting Air and Electric power; ___#/hr supporting electric power only.

A

540lbs

390 lbs

242
Q

Taxi fuel (pounds per hour) (200A/B) ___; (200C/322) ___

A

3420

4320

243
Q

If a waste tank is full the ___ sign illuminates at each Lav affected

A

LAVATORY OCCUPIED

244
Q

The flight deck number ___ windows can be opened on the ground or in flight. They can be used for emer evac.

A

two

245
Q

___entry doors serve as emergency exits plus 2 (3L and 3R) (322) overwing emergency exit doors.

A

8

246
Q

Each passenger entry door handle is automatically locked when airspeed is greater than ___

A

80 knots

247
Q

Pass entry door - if electrical power is removed or fails, ___

A

the flight lock is spring loaded to unlocked position

248
Q

Emergency Flashlights operate when?

A

Automatically illuminate when removed, battery is not rechargeable.

249
Q

Halon Fire extinguishers effective on all types of fires - used primarily on ___

A

electrical, fuel and grease fires.

250
Q

Polar Safety Gear required for operations above __. Orange duffle bag (200B/C) at door 1R or 1L…
(after Polaris upgrade), or (322) 5L

A

78°N

251
Q

(322) Approximately ___ minute after starting the second engine, bleed system configures for APU-to-Pack takeoff

A

1

252
Q

Bleed air can be supplied by the

A

Engines, APU, or a Ground air source.

253
Q

In the ON position, Engine bleed valves close automatically for:

A

Air duct leak; During start; Bleed source loss;

Bleed air over-temperature or over pressure; Engine fire switch pulled; gnd cart supplying air.

254
Q

In flight, APU bleed air is available below approximately ___ feet.

A

22,000

255
Q

Gnd operations, single Pack operation is not recommended because

A

1) it does not reduce APU fuel consumption,

2) it causes higher flight line noise levels

256
Q

Engine Anti-ice selector must be ___ for the engine anti-ice to operate on the ground.

A

ON

257
Q

Does Wing AI work on the ground?

A

WAI is inhibited on the ground

258
Q

What autopilots control the aircraft during LAND 2 or LAND 3?

A

During an approach after LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated, both the left and right autopilots control the aircraft. The center autopilot compares signals from the left and right autopilots and is a voter when all
signals are not the same

259
Q

What does A/T HOLD mean?

A

Throttles are disconnected from the servos. The pilot can set the thrust levers manually.

260
Q

When is TOGA armed in flight?

A

Whenever the flaps are not retracted or at GS capture

261
Q

When does ROLLOUT arm/engage?

A

Armed at 1500 RA and engages below 2 RA

262
Q

VNAV SPD -

A

The AFDS maintains the FMC speed displayed above the PFD speed tape

263
Q

VNAV ALT -

A

In VNAV when a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude.

264
Q

VNAV PTH -

A

The AFDS maintains the FMC/CDU altitude or descent path with pitch commands.

265
Q

Three forms of flight envelope protection are in the autopilot.

A

Bank Angle, Stall (Above 500’), Overspeed.

266
Q

Flare - (armed) -

A

Displays below 1500” RA, engages at approximately 50 feet RA

267
Q

When the autothrottle is used during a manual landing, thrust automatically reduces to IDLE when?

A

at 25’ RA when the F/D is off or the pitch mode is V/S, FPA, GS or any VNAV mode.

The autothrottles does not automatically retard if the pitch mode is TO/GA.

268
Q

When does the CLB CON switch not work?

A

CLB CON Thrust Switch is not operational on the ground and below 400’ during takeoff.

269
Q

What is engine intermix?

A

Different thrust rated engines installed on airplane but they are set to operate at the same thrust rating.

May have different EGT and MAX Continuous. This is normal.

270
Q

What are flaperons used for?

A

Flaperons are used for roll control. For increased lift, they move down and aft in proportion to flap extension.

271
Q

Does trim work with autopilot engaged?

A

Aileron and Stab trim no. Rudder trim yes.

Autopilot does not control the rudder so it does not care.

272
Q

Secondary flight control mode communication order

A

Secondary Mode = Pilot - ACE - Simplified PFC - ACE - Control Surface/(PCU)

273
Q

In the secondary flap mode … slats are positioned to full extension when flap 1 is selected, if airspeed is below

A

(200A) 215 knots, (200B/C) 239 knots (322) 256 knots.

274
Q

When do you see a ground speed readout on the PFD below airspeed (322)?

A

When mach is less than 0.4

275
Q

Wing AI UAL Limit

A

Do not select WAI on during takeoff until after the first thrust reduction.

276
Q

Autoland - Maximum allowable Headwind

A

25K

277
Q

Autoland - Maximum Allowable Tailwind

A

15K

278
Q

Autoland - Maximum allowable Tailwind - CAT II/III (UAL limit)

A

10K

279
Q

Autoland - Maximum allowable Crosswind

A

25K

280
Q

Autoland - Maximum allowable Crosswind - CAT II/III (UAL limit)

A

15K

281
Q

Flaps 20 UAL landing limit

A

A Flaps 20 automatic or manual landing may be accomplished only when directed by procedure. (UAL)

282
Q

Minimum threshold crossing height is

A

40’

283
Q

Reverse Thrust limits

A

Reverse Thrust: Backing the aircraft with reverse thrust, Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited; Do not attempt a go-around after thrust reverser deployment.

284
Q

Is Takeoff in Secondary flight mode allowed?

A

Takeoff is permitted only in the normal flight control mode.

285
Q

Ground Maneuver Camera Limit

A

(322) Ground Maneuver Camera - Do Not Use for Takeoff, Approach and Landing.

286
Q

Minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch

A

above RF

287
Q

BROADBAND COM switch limitation

A

DO NOT position to ON if deicing/anti-icing are in progress

288
Q

Momentary action switch is

A

Spring loaded to the extended position (power switches)

289
Q

Alternate action switch is

A

Two positions - ON and OFF (Electrics, Hyds)

290
Q

APU to Pack Takeoff configuration

A

Engine Bleeds closed
Isolation valve closed
Right pack OFF
APU feeds Air Demand Pump C1 and Left pack
Right Engine provides air to Air Demand Pump C2

Reconfigures when Climb thrust selected Or
10 Min after Takeoff or
Aircraft above 11400’ or
APU to pack config cannot be continued due to other failures or
APU to Pack mode deleted manually

291
Q

What is on the secondary engine indications page

A 
N2 
Fuel Flow
Oil Press
Oil Temp
Oil Quantity
Engine Vib
292
Q

What does the main aircraft battery power for the APU?

A

Inlet Door
Fuel Valve,
Fire Detection

293
Q

What does turning the APU to OFF do?

A

Closes APU Bleed valve
Initiates normal shutdown
Resets auto shutdown logic

294
Q

What powers the Engine and APU fire and overheat detection systems? Fire Extinguishing?

A

Battery Bus

Hot Battery Bus

295
Q

What happens when the cargo fire arm switch is pressed?

A

All cargo fire extinguishing bottles armed
Arms selected compartment extinguisher valve
Turns off both Recirc fans
Packs to minimum airflow required for pressurization
Shuts down lav/galley vent fans
Shuts off aft/bulk cargo ventilation
Shuts down aft/bulk heating
Activates LCRC evac system (if installed)
Equipment cooling into override mode (fwd)
Shuts down Nitrogen gen system (B/C/322)
Shuts down IFE (B/C/322)

296
Q

What does gust suppression do?

A

Makes roll and yaw inputs. Does NOT move the controls in flight deck

297
Q

What happens when the PFC’s fail?

A

ACES revert to Direct mode

United Airlines 777 Updated 8/31/2021 (3 decks)

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