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Shooter Gouge (CAO Jan 2021) > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the wingspan of the T-38

A

25 ft 3 in (25.25 ft)

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2
Q

What is the gross weight of the T-38

A

12,800 lbs

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3
Q

Sea level, standard day, static thrust for each installed engine is ___lbs at MIL and ____lbs at MAX

A

2200 / 3300

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4
Q

The exhaust gas sensing system (T5) varies the nozzles to keep the EGT between ___ and ____ at both MIL and MAX

A

630 / 650 Celcius

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5
Q

Momentarily pushing the start button arms the ignition circuit for approx. ___ seconds

A

30

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6
Q

Throttle bursts are defined as ___

A

throttle movement from idle to MIL in 1 second or less

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7
Q

Avoiding throttle bursts helps to minimize ___

A

the possibility of compressor blade failures

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8
Q

The Electronic Engine Display (EED) is powered by ___

A

right essential DC power

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9
Q

Which sensors on the EED require AC power?

A

Oil pressure, fuel flow, and fuel quantity

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10
Q

Normally which EED operates as the Master and which EED operates as the Slave?

A

FCP EED is the Master, RCP EED is the Slave

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11
Q

Erroneous or fluctuating engine sensor data on the Master EED should be confirmed by the other cockpit by ____

A

switching the Master/Slave relationship on the EED

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12
Q

When the EED is powered either ON or OFF, the EED momentarily activates the ___ caution light.

A

FUEL LOW

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13
Q

If the ambient temperature is below 32*F, the EED may take up to ___ minutes to turn on.

A

5

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14
Q

The digital readout of the Engine Tachometer (RPM) is from ____ to ______ rpm in ___% intervals

A

0% to 110% RPM in 1% intervals

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15
Q

The digital readout for exhaust gas temperature is from ___ to ___ *C in ___ degree increments

A

0 to 1200 *C in 5*C increments

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16
Q

If an EGT exceedance of greater than 650*C but not greater than ___*C occurs without an EGT OVERTEMPT CAUTION, the mission may be continued

A

665*C

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17
Q

THe digital readout for Nozzle position on the EED is from ___% to ___% in ___% increments

A

0-99% in 1% increments

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18
Q

The digital readout for Oil Pressure is from ___ to ___ psi in ___ psi increments

A

0-80 psi in 1 psi increments

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19
Q

Under what two conditions would the Oil Pressure latch

A
  1. Oil pressure <5 PSI for 30 seconds continuously with weight-off-wheels 2. ≥56 PSI for 30 seconds continuously with weight-off-wheels
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20
Q

For both the left and right Fuel Flow indicators to operate normally, the FF power supply requires ___. If this power is absent, both the left and right FF indicators will display ___.

A

DC power from the left essential DC BUS. 0 pph

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21
Q

Does the increased Fuel Flow due to Afterburner operations get provided or displayed to/by the EED?

A

No

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22
Q

The FUEL LOW caution light illuminates when either fuel tank registers ___lbs or less for ___ seconds or more.

A

250 pounds or less for 7.5 seconds or more

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23
Q

The fuel quantity imbalance indicator follows what schedule (i.e. when does it display an imbalance, and when does it turn red?)

A

No display: 0-50 pounds White: 60-190 pounds Red: ≥200 pounds

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24
Q

Turning on pitot heat or exterior lighting (i.e. Landing/Taxi and Formation Lighting) may cause up to ___ pound change in displayed fuel quantity depending on internal/external power sources

A

+/- 100 pounds

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25
Q

Changes of greater than +/- 100 pounds are indicative of ____.

A

Fuel quantity probe failure

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26
Q

If an EED overtemperature occurs, EED brightness is reduced by ___% (Day mode only), and “EED HOT” is displayed in the EED message window.

A

50%

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27
Q

What function does the main fuel control perform?

A
  1. Regulates engine speed based on the selected throttle setting 2. Manages main engine fuel flow at all points of engine operations such as start and rapid throttle movements to ensure consistent thrust levels 3. Provides protection from over-temperatures, engine stalls, and flameouts 4. Limits main engine fuel flow at low throttle settings to ensure proper fuel-air ratios for low power and engine restarts during flight 5. Correctly positions the compressor inlet guide vanes and air bleed valves
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28
Q

What indicates “OFF” before an engine start with battery power?

A

L/R Oil pressure L/R fuel flow L/R fuel quantity Total fuel quantity

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29
Q

An airframe-mounted gearbox for each engine drives an associated ___ and ___.

A

AC generator and Hydraulic pump

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30
Q

Gearbox shift occurs between what RPM range?

A

65-75%

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31
Q

What is the capacity of the oil system in each engine

A

4 quarts with 1-quart expansion space

32
Q

Oil consumption engine operation and overboard venting caused by condensation and aerobatic flight should not exceed ___ ounces/hr

A

6 ounces/hr

33
Q

A compressor stall at a low altitude can be recognized by what indications?

A

A pop or bang followed by an audible buzzing sound and vibration, accompanied by a rapid RPM drop and high EGT.

34
Q

A compressor stall at a high altitude can be recognized by what indications?

A

An audible chug or pop accompanied by a rapid RPM drop and decreasing EGT.

35
Q

In both cases, what actions may clear/recover the compressor stall?

A

Rapidly retarding the associated throttle to IDLE and pressing the ENGINE START button

36
Q

Normally, fuel flow from the boost pumps is sufficient from sea level up to ___MSL, however it is only guaranteed up to ___MSL. Flameouts have occurred as low as ___MSL.

A

25,000 MSL 6,000 MSL 7,000 MSL

37
Q

L/R FUEL PRESS lights may be an indication of boost pump failure if crossfeed is ___, the corresponding fuel shutoff is in ___, and the throttles are out of ___.

A

OFF NORMAL OFF

38
Q

Placing either fuel shutoff switch to CLOSED shuts off fuel flow to that engine in approx. ___ second(s)

A

1 second

39
Q

The fuel quantity indicators should be monitored to ensure the two fuel systems are within ___ lbs of each other to ensure aircraft center of gravity (cg) is within limits

A

200 lbs

40
Q

If either fuel system has less than ___ lbs of fuel, the surface of the fuel falls below the boost pump upper inlet and boost pump output is reduced by ___%

A

650 lbs 40%

41
Q

Taxi operations with less than ___ lbs in either system can cause cavitation of the boost pump of that system, resulting in engine flameout at low power settings.

A

150 lbs

42
Q

During single-engine, low fuel operations, and less than 250 lbs in either system, place both boost pumps to ___ and the crossfeed switch to ___ to allow the engine to be fed by both systems simultaneously.

A

ON ON

43
Q

The DC power system, consisting of the right and left DC buses and the non-essential DC bus, is powered by two ___-amp DC TRU’s or one ___ volt battery

A

50 amp TRU 24 volt battery

44
Q

The two AC generators come online when the respective engine RPM accelerates to approx ___%

A

43-48%

45
Q

Both generators operate at ___ volts, providing three-phase AC power

A

115(+/-2) volts

46
Q

Should one generator fail, automatic transfer of the electrical load through the interaction of both protection panels may take up to ___ seconds.

A

2.5 seconds

47
Q

The static inverter converts DC bus power to ___ volt AC power.

A

115 volt

48
Q

Aircraft hydraulic power supply systems include a ___ psi utility hydraulic system and a ___psi flight hydraulic system.

A

3000 psi 3000 psi

49
Q

A FLIGHT/UTILITY HYDRAULIC light illuminates for what two reasons?

A
  1. Low hydraulic pressure (below 1500 psi) 2. Hydraulic fluid overtemperature
50
Q

A FLIGHT/UTILITY HYDRAULIC light will go out if:

A
  1. The hydraulic pressure is restored to 1800 psi or higher 2. The hydraulic temperature cools down below overheat threshold conditions
51
Q

Normal landing gear extension/retraction takes approx. ___ seconds

A

6 seconds

52
Q

The landing gear warning system is activated when the landing gear is not down and locked and what three conditions exist:

A
  1. Airspeed is 210 KCAS or less 2. Altitude is 10,000 ft MSL or below 3. Both throttles are below 96% RPM
53
Q

With DC failure, the RCP ___ gear light does not illuminate due to gear relay wiring

A

Nose gear

54
Q

The landing gear alternate extension handle must be pulled to approx. ___ inches. Extension of the main and nose gear required approx ___ seconds, but can take up to ___ seconds.

A

10 inches 15 seconds Up to 35 seconds

55
Q

After an alternate gear extension, what system is unavailable until the system is re-activated?

A

Nosewheel steering

56
Q

Under what two conditions is NWS automatically turned off?

A
  1. Selecting MAX on one/both throttles 2. When A/C weight is not on the nose wheel
57
Q

With a hydraulic failure, will you lose braking action? Why or why not?

A

No The brakes are powered by a separate, completely self-contained hydraulic system

58
Q

When the nose gear is extended 3/4 or less, the rudder is limited to ___ degrees from neutral in either direction

A

6 degrees

59
Q

When the nose gear is extended to more than 3/4, the rudder is limited to ___ degrees from neutral in either direction.

A

30 degrees

60
Q

The electrical RUDDER TRIM knob on the YSAS control panel provides the means of trimming the rudder ___ degrees in either direction, provided the DAMPER switch is in the YAW position

A

2 degrees

61
Q

If one flap motor fails, will you have the use of both flaps? Why or why not?

A

Yes The flaps are interconnected by a rotary shaft Flap actuation will take longer than usual with one motor inoperative

62
Q

What purpose does the Flap-Horizontal Tail (Flap-Slab) interconnect system provide?

A

Compensates for aerodynamic changes caused by flap actuation to provide the same aircraft handling characteristics, regardless of flap position

63
Q

Intermediate speed brake positions can be obtained by ___.

A

positioning the switch to the desired direction of movement then returning to the HOLD (center) position.

64
Q

The cabin pressure regulator maintains what schedule for cabin pressurization?

A
  1. Below 8,000 ft MSL = 0 PSI (ambient) 2. 8,000 - 23,000 ft = 8,000 ft +/- 1,000 ft 3. Above 23,000 ft = 5 psi above ambient (+/- 2,000 ft)
65
Q

What are the two indications of an air compressor turbine failure?

A

Vibrations of the A/C system accompanied by fumes/odors from the A/C system

66
Q

At engine speeds of 94-98% RPM, and the ANTI-ICE turned to MAN ON, an increase of approx. ___ degrees C of EGT is considered normal

A

15 degrees Celcius

67
Q

With ANTI-ICE enabled, a loss of 180 (+/-10) lbs of thrust is lost. This results in approx. ___% at MIL power and ___% at MAX power.

A

8.5% at MIL 5.5% at MAX

68
Q

The YSAS may disengage, an ADC PFL generated, TAS may not be available and all AoA lights may illuminate if the pitot heat is turned on during ground ops for more than ___ seconds.

A

30 seconds

69
Q

What are some conditions that may turn off the YSAS?

A
  1. AC power failure 2. Right essential DC power failure 3. MDP failure 4. ADC failure 5. EGI failure 6. Utility hydraulic failure 7. Transfer of ICAO data from the DTS 8. Generator cross-over checks
70
Q

The front canopy is designed to withstand the impact of a ___ lb bird at aircraft speeds ranging from ___ to ___ knots, depending on where the impact occurs.

A

4 lb bird 125 - 400 knots

71
Q

If possible, avoid opening the canopy when relative wind component exceeds 30 knots. How do you calculate relative wind?

A

Ground speed plus wind component over the nose

72
Q

The canopy jettison system only works properly with both canopies in what position?

A

Down and locked

73
Q

The manual override handle (MOR) provides manual seat separation capabilities if the automatic seat separator fails or if desired above ___ MSL.

A

14,000 ft MSL

74
Q

During ground egress, what two ways may the leg garters be released?

A
  1. Individually operating the release button for each line 2. Operating the quick-release lever on the forward left side of the ejection seat
75
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder provides oxygen for approx. ___ minute(s), or until aircrew/seat separation

A

10 minutes

76
Q

Do not operate the seat adjust switch for more than ___ minute(s), in any 8 minute period or the seat actuator could be damaged

A

1 minute

Shooter Gouge (CAO Jan 2021) (6 decks)

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