11-251 Flashcards
On student training sorties, the students are expected to obtain:
- Relevant NOTAMs
- Weather
- Airfield status
- Threat of the day
- Emergency procedure of the day
- Lineup card
Keep hands clear anytime someone is ___.
Underneath the aircraft
To reduce the risk of FOD during ground operations, do not place objects on the ___ during engine start or while engines are running
Cockpit glareshields
Normally, a power setting less than ___% RPM should be enough to taxi
80% RPM
Aircrews should taxi at a moderate speed, normally not greater than ___ knots groundspeed
25 knots ground speed
When using the brakes, ensure the throttles are in ___
Idle
Do not taxi within ___ feet of any obstacle. Do not taxi within ___ feet of an obstacle without a wing walker
10 feet
25 feet
The maximum allowable error of each altimeter at a known elevation point is ___
75 feet
NAVAID ground checkpoint checks allows a max of ___ CDI error from the depicted course, DME error no greater than ___ NM or ___% of the distance to the facility, whichever is greater
+/- 4 degrees CDI error
DME error no greater than 1/2 mile or 3% of the distance
Ensure the magnetic compass is within ___ of a known heading and within ___ of EHSI readout
5 degrees of a known heading
8 degrees of EHSI
When inspecting the flight control surfaces during the before-takeoff checks, what are the two separate tasks that must be accomplished?
- Visually confirm free and proper movement of the flight control surfaces
- Confirm the flight control surfaces return to neutral
Rolling takeoffs can increase takeoff distance by ___ to ___ feet
150-300 feet
Pilots should normally initiate backstick pressure at approx. ___ KCAS as set the foresight cross to ___ nose-high on the pitch ladder
145 KCAS
7 degrees nose high
Nosewheel liftoff will occur at approx. ___ KCAS, and the aircraft should fly off the runway at approx. ___ KCAS, depending on gross weight
155 KCAS
165 KCAS
Smoothly reduce power out of MAX between ___ and ___ KCAS, and terminate afterburner by ___ KCAS
Between 220 and 280 KCAS
300 KCAS
Accelerate to 300 KCAS in MIL power using approx. ___ NH pitch until passing 10,000’ MSL
12 degrees nose high
You may combine the climb check with the level-off check when cruise altitude is at or below ___
FL180
As a technique, begin leveling off upon reaching ___% of the VVI
10% of VVI
Ex. with a 4,000 VVI, begin level off 400’ prior to altitude
The priorities for maintaining directional control during an abort are:
- Rudder
- Differential braking
- Nose wheel steering as a last resort
Can you taxi the T-38 single-engine? Can you exit the runway single-engine if you have downside hydraulics or the landing gear is pinned (barring no greater emergency)?
No
Yes
Initiate the break turn between ___ of the runway
The approach end of the runway and the first 3,000’
Before initiating the break turn, ensure traffic is ____ for 3,000’ separation or ___ for 6,000’.
45 degrees off for 3,000’
Abeam for 6,000’
Begin the closed pull-up with a minimum of ___ KCAS and maintain a minimum of ___ until wings-level on downwind
240 KCAS
200 KCAS
What is the normal no-wind spacing of inside downwind for a 1,500’ AGL traffic pattern?
1.0-1.3 NM
Prior to beginning the final turn, ensure the ___, and the flaps have traveled a sufficient amount to ensure no asymmetry exists, approx. ___%
Landing gear is down and locked
60%
Normally, the rollout point is approx. ____ feet AGL at ___ NM from the threshold
300-390 feet
1.0-1.3 NM from the threshold
A preceding T-38 should be ___ of the way through the final turn to ensure 3,000’ spacing or ___ to ensure 6,000’ spacing
2/3 for 3,000’
Abeam for 6,000’
The vertical velocity will eventually indicate ___ the pattern altitude
Double
What three criteria must be met to consider the final turn “made”?
- Within 30 degrees of alignment with the runway
- Less than 30 degrees of bank required
- Less than 0.6 AoA required
Once established on final, what is normal vertical velocity?
700-900 fpm
How far down the runway is the normal “shift”?
100-200 feet
How far from the threshold is the normal power reduction to idle?
300-500 feet
What is considered “fully flared”?
20-25 KCAS below approach speed
What is the normal landing zone?
150-1,000 feet down the runway
How is normal landing distance calculated?
2,500 + Gas + touchdown distance
What are the T-38 groundspeed checks at the 3/2/1 boards?
90 / 60 / 30 knots ground
Keep the stick full aft until ___ KIAS to maximize aerodynamic deceleration
50 KIAS
When do crosswind procedures go into effect? What are crosswind procedures?
When the crosswind component exceeds 15 knots
- Touchdown on the upwind side
- Do not aerobrake, maintain the landing attitude
- Ensure 6,000’ spacing between aircraft
For a crosswind landing, what flight control inputs should be made?
Aileron into the wind, rudder to maintain centerline/proper track down the runway
Applying crosswind landing procedures may increase landing distance by approx. ___%
50%
Normal spacing for a no-flap pattern is approx. ____NM
1.5 NM
What does no flap configuration do to your landing distance?
Doubles the landing distance
i.e. (2,500 + Gas + touchdown distance)*2
When performing an actual or simulated single-engine landing with 60% flaps, the landing roll will be approx. ___ feet longer
500 feet
During a practice single-engine approach, the simulated inoperative engine is set to no less than ___% RPM
60%
If a single-engine pattern is practiced from an overhead, use both engines until ___
Rolling out on final
Once the simulated single-engine go-around exercise is complete, advance the simulated inoperative engine to ___ prior to coming out of afterburner on the other engine
MIL
An actual stall may be preceded by what two aerodynamic indications?
- Heavy, low-frequency buffet
2. Moderate wing rock (in most cases)
An actual stall may be indicated by what three things?
- Very high sink rate
- Heavy buffet
- High AoA (above 1.0)
Describe the different types of typical Airframe Buffet
- Light Buffet = 0.60 AoA - Optimum final turn AoA
- Moderate Buffet = 0.70 through DIBI - Red chevron above the green donut
- Definite Increase in Buffet Intensity = >0.80 AoA - Increase in Amplitude, decrease in rate
- Heavy Buffet = Higher than DIBI up to Full aft stick
What situations would require an immediate stall recovery in the pattern?
- Definite increase in Buffet Intensity (DIBI)
- Aural, HUD, or MFD stall warning
- Excessive sink rate
What are the immediate actions of the stall/sink recovery?
- Advance both throttles to MAX
- Relax backstick pressure as required
- Roll wings level
For a go-around from a no-flap final turn, what steps can be taken to minimize the effects of an overshoot?
Rolling flaps to 60%
What is typically used as the go/no-go decision for touch and go aborts?
Throttle setting
The most common rule of thumb for energy exchange is 1,000 feet of altitude is worth about ___ knots of airspeed in MIL power
50 knots
The speed brake has minimal effect below ___ KCAS
250 KCAS
For the G-ex, set the flight path marker to approx ___ degrees nose low to hold 4-4.5 G’s, and ___ degrees nose low to hold 5-5.5 G’s
8-10 degrees nose low
18-20 degrees nose low
Begin practice traffic pattern stalls below ___ with power set no lower than ___
FL200
80% RPM
A full aft stick stall is reached around ___ KCAS, ___ AoA, and ___ VVI
140 KCAS
1.1 AoA
6,000 fpm
For the low-speed stability exercise, set the power no lower than ___
85% RPM
The two simulated turning traffic pattern stall types are ___.
Level final turn (slower stall onset/recovery)
Diving final turn (faster onset/recovery)
A common technique for the landing attitude stall is to maintain level flight to approx ___ VVI
0-1,000 fpm VVI
The minimum turn radius of the T-38 is achieved between approx ___ and ___.
250 knots and corner velocity (approx 400 knots)
Over-the-top maneuvers will lose approx ___ feet per maneuver.
500 feet
What is the flight lead responsible for?
Safe and effective conduct of the mission
What is the nav lead responsible for?
Navigating and clearing for the formation
What is the admin lead responsible for?
Run all aspects of the profile to include navigating, radios, and making profile changes as required. A/C are re-numbered to match new position. Flight lead still holds ultimate responsibility for the flight.
What is the tactical lead responsible for?
Tactical, navigation, and radio. Flight lead still holds ultimate responsibility for the flight.
What is the wingman responsible for?
- Fly a safe jet
- Stay visual with flight lead
- Be in the perfect formation position
- Everything else (radios, FENCE-In/Out, back up flight lead)
Who is primarily in charge of deconfliction within the flight?
The wingman
A directive then descriptive traffic call from the wingman should follow the BRA format. Give an example
Directive: “KILLR 69, climb,
Bearing: traffic 12 o’clock,
Range: 2.5 miles,
Altitude: level.”
Who is primarily responsible for visual lookout within the flight?
All flight members are responsible
Unless already established on the RTB, wingman will inform lead of reaching ___ and ___ and receive ___.
Joker
Bingo
Acknowledgment from flight lead
Preface all communications to external agencies when in formation with ___.
The entire flight callsign (“MUZZY 41)
Do not initiate a lead change when the wingman is further aft than ___ or greater than ___ degrees aft from line abreast position.
Normal fingertip/route position
30 degrees aft
Minimum wingtip spacing on runway lineup is ___ feet if both crews are dual or ___ feet if either crew is solo.
10 feet
50 feet
During the formation engine run-up, continue to primarily focus your attention ___ with only short glances ___.
Outside the jet
Inside the jet
For interval takeoff, minimum spacing is ___ seconds for single aircraft and ___ seconds for an element takeoff.
10 seconds
15 seconds
Unless briefed otherwise, the wingman will rejoin to ___.
the inside of the first turn out of traffic
For interval takeoffs, wing should delay coming out of afterburner until ___.
Sufficient overtake is achieved
For an instrument trail departure, T/O spacing will be no less than ___ seconds
20 seconds
For an instrument trail departure, all aircraft will use ___ degrees of bank
30 degrees of bank
For instrument trail departure, each aircraft will maintain at least ___ feet of vertical separation from the preceding aircraft (may be reduced by flight lead to ___ feet to comply with MSA
1,000 feet
500 feet
Maintain a minimum of ___ feet of lateral separation between all formation members during the G-exercise
4,000 feet
For a 3 or 4 ship BD check, lead will direct ___ to check the flight. Once back in position, ___ is automatically cleared to check number 2.
Number 2
Number 3 or 4
For a formation approach, wing will fly fingertip until ___.
On glidepath
Wingman will “stack level” on a formation approach when ___ or ___, whichever occurs later.
VMC or on glidepath
The FCP visual references for stack level is to place the helmet of the FCP pilot in the lead aircraft ___, ensure nugget ___, and lead’s main landing gear should resemble ___.
On the horizon
Nugget abeam the slab bolt
Figure 8
A VMC drag will achieve a minimum of ___ feet of runway separation between aircraft in formation.
3,000 feet
Prior to VMC drag, lead will slow to ___ KCAS and coordinate with ATC for non-standard formation during the remainder of the approach.
250 KCAS
The latest VMC drag point will be ___ miles from the runway.
8 miles
When lead directs the formation to drag, wing will follow what procedure?
- Select IDLE power and extend speed brake until airspeed is below 240 KCAS
- Select landing gear down, flaps (as required), and speed brake up
- Set TCAS as appropriate as task management permits
- Fly final approach speed minimum and remain within proper formation position
During a VMC drag, lead will maintain 250 KCAS until ___ miles from the runway.
5 miles
At 5 miles from the runway, lead will follow what procedure for VMC drag?
- Select IDLE power and extend speed brake until airspeed is below 240 KCAS
- Select landing gear down, flaps (as required), and speed brake up
- Maintain a minimum of 180 KCAS until 3 miles from the runway, then slow to final approach speed
