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Shooter Gouge (CAO Jan 2021) > Avionics > Flashcards

Avionics Flashcards

1
Q

How many flight plans can be loaded onto the DTC to be used for navigation?

A

20 plus scratchpad flight plan “P”

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2
Q

The core of the T-38 avionics systems is the ___

A

Mission display processor (MDP)

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3
Q

How long does it take the MDP to power up with a full system (cold) boot?

A

Approx. 50 seconds for a cold boot

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4
Q

What are some of the functions of the Air Data Computer (ADC)?

A

Simulated weapons delivery Bomb scoring Gear up/down status-related functions Automatic calculation of approach speeds based on flap position A/A gunnery steering commands Yaw damper transfer function Altitude, airspeed, and AOA on the MFD and HUD Min Mach and Black Stripe altitude indications Display of the FLAPS caution

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5
Q

Backup mode for the VOR/ILS, TACAN, and UHF radios is entered automatically when ___

A

The MDP is off or has experienced total failure

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6
Q

There is no backup control for the VHF COMM radio. If the MDP fails or is not operational, the VHF COMM radio ___

A

Remains on the last tuned channel

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7
Q

The “Q” hotkey can be used to toggle between what two settings on the UFCP?

A

QNH (local altimeter setting) and QNE (29.92)

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8
Q

Aircraft heading is always ___

A

magnetic

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9
Q

Valid Bingo numerical entry is between ___ and ___ in ___ increments

A

100-4000 pounds in 10-pound increments

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10
Q

The MDP default Bingo upon powerup is ___

A

1500 pounds

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11
Q

The Acknowledge (ACK) key removes all HUD/MFD Warning/Caution/Advisory (WCA) displays and silences all warning and caution tones in both cockpits except for ___

A

The landing gear warning horn

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12
Q

The “G” hotkey temporarily disables the UHF Guard channel for ___ minute(s)

A

1 minute

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13
Q

If a call sign is not entered; a VERIFY AIRCRAFT CALL SIGN PFL will be displayed when greater than ___ ft/sec ground speed is reached during taxi

A

15 feet per second

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14
Q

When A/A TACAN is selected, what information is removed from the HUD and MFD?

A

All TACAN bearing and DME information

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15
Q

The Min Mach Number is present on the speed scale at altitudes at or above ___ feet MSL

A

28,000’ MSL

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16
Q

Due to MDP and EED software differences, the fuel quantity displayed in the HUD may be different than that displayed on the EED, but should not exceed ___ lbs. If these indications do not correspond, the ___ indications are correct.

A

20 pounds EED

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17
Q

Describe the two flight director symbols on the HUD

A

With bank only commands, the HUD flight director displays a hollow dot in the directions of commanded turn With bank and pitch commands, the HUD flight director displays a hollow dot with a line in the direction of commanded bank and pitch (Herm the sperm)

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18
Q

In NAV and A/A Master Modes, the Break X altitude is set to ___ feet. When a Break X appears in the HUD, the aircrew should initiate a wings level ___ G pullup within ___ seconds to ensure aircraft recovery above 90 feet AGL.

A

90 feet 4G pullup within 2 seconds

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19
Q

On low approaches, if the gear is retracted during a descent, a brief Break X notification will occur causing the ___ message to be played

A

PULL UP

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20
Q

The Radar Altimeter (RALT) is not displayed at altitudes greater than ___ feet or greater than ___ degrees of bank

A

5000’ AGL or more than 45 degrees of bank

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21
Q

At calibrated airspeeds (CAS) below ___ knots, the HUD airspeed digital data will indicate zero

A

30 KCAS

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22
Q

What are the F-16 HUD Gear down symbols/indications

A

2.5 degree descent reference line speed scale automatically reverts to CAS AOA staple Commanded speed indicator (Bug) Heading and scale indicator display at the top of the HUD Message window displays in the upper half of the HUD Break X is unavailable Target destination box is only displayed in NAV or A/G master mode when the dest is 500-509 Instantaneous vertical velocity (IVV)

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23
Q

What powers the multifunctional display (MFD)

A

Right essential DC power

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24
Q

At ambient temperatures below 32 F, the MFD may take up to ___ minutes to turn on

A

5 minutes

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25
Q

When aircraft speed is below ___ KCAS, the airspeed may read from 12-50 knots on the MFD and HUD, depending on atmospheric conditions

A

12 KCAS

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26
Q

The airspeed carat is displayed when the commanded airspeed is between ___ and ___ KCAS

A

100 - 700 KCAS

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27
Q

The MFD Instantaneous Vertical Velocity Arc (IVV Arc) operates at a rate of 0 fpm to ___ fpm

A

+/- 4000 fpm

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28
Q

The IVV Arc and IVV numerical readout turns red when what conditions are met?

A

1) A descent of greater than 4000 fpm 2) A descent of greater than 3000 fpm and flap position less than 22% (no flap) 3) A descent greater than 3000 fpm and flap position data invalid

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29
Q

The digital instantaneous vertcial velocity (IVV), located underneath the altitude display on the MFD, indicates up to ____ fpm

A

+/- 9950 fpm

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30
Q

What is the AOA for max range?

A

0.18 AOA

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31
Q

What is the AOA for max endurance?

A

0.30 AOA

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32
Q

What is the AOA for optimum final turn?

A

0.55-0.65 AOA

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33
Q

What is the AOA for approach to stall?

A

0.80-0.99 AOA

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34
Q

What is the AOA for stall warning?

A

1.0-1.1 AOA

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35
Q

What are the minimum and maximum G readouts on the MFD G meter?

A

Min: -3.0 Max: +7.0

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36
Q

What conditions are considered to be asymmetric?

A

Roll rate greater than 35 degrees per second or roll acceleration greater than 109 degrees per second

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37
Q

How close to the current positive G limits do you have to be in order to hear the single rate beeper?

A

1.0-0.5 G

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38
Q

How close to the current positive G limits do you have to be in order to hear the double rate beeper?

A

0.5-0.2 G

39
Q

How close to the current positive G limits do you have to be in order to hear the continuous tone?

A

0.2-0.0 G

40
Q

What tone will you hear with an over-G condition?

A

Alternating low/medium pitch tone for 3 seconds

41
Q

An over-G occurs when the aircraft exceeds the maximum positive or negative G limit for greater than ___ second(s)

A

0.1 second

42
Q

The TACAN Channel/ID displays a three to four letter Morse code identifier as long as the TACAN is receiving a valid ID, which may take up to ___ minutes

A

2 minutes

43
Q

Describe the CDI scaling of the Primary Flight Reference (PFR) under different Primary Navigation Sources (PNS) selected.

A
44
Q

The greatest CDI deflection with any PNS is ___ dots.

A

2.4 dots

45
Q

Ground speed must be over ___ knots for the Ground Track (GT) symbols to be displayed

A

50 Knots

46
Q

The EGI represents a Field of Merit (FOM) value 1-9, representing a possition error of ___ to ___ meters, as indicated on the MFD

A

less than or equal to 25

greater than or equal to 5,000

47
Q

Loading the Weapon System Support PPod (WSSP) on the MFD under CONFIGURATION enables the MFD to display different ___ limits, disables the ___, and updates ___ calculations

A

G limits

Radar altimeter

Divert Mode calculations

48
Q

The N hotkey activates the NEAREST AIRPORT (NARPT) function and displays how many of the closest airports?

A

10

49
Q

The Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is inaccurate during ground operations with the pitot heat ___

A

on

50
Q

Aircraft Tail Number can be obtained by going into what submenu on the MFD?

A

MENU

MENU2

DATA

TAIL

51
Q

Due to internal clock variations within GPS receivers, ___ satellite signals are required to determine a three-dimensional position

A

4

52
Q

Although only 4 satellites are required to provide a 3D position, the GPS receiver keeps a fifth on standby for what reason?

A

To replace one of the active satellites whenever line-of-sight is lost

53
Q

Normal satellite acquisition takes ___ to ___ minutes to obtain a valid GPS position but can take as long as ___ minutes when stored data is not available.

A

1.5 to 3 minutes

45 minutes

54
Q

The Radar Altimeter (RALT) indicates altitude from 0 feet to approx. ___ feet AGL with an accuracy of +/-___ feet or ___%, whichever is greater when within +/- 45 degrees of straight-and-level

A

5,000 feet

2 feet or 2%

55
Q

The Yaw Stability Augmentation System (YSAS) moves the rudder a maximum of +/-___ degrees in response to the yaw acceleration of the jet.

A

+/- 2 degrees

56
Q

The EGI requires at least ___ seconds to properly shut down after turning the EGI power switch OFF to store necessary data used for initial alignment and the Built-In-Test (BIT) results from the current power cycle

A

10 seconds

57
Q

Alignment of the EGi from DEGRADED alignment to FULL alignment takes approx ___ minutes

A

4 minutes

58
Q

What are the three possible EGI navigation solutions?

A

INS only

GPS only

Blended (EGI) - best INS and GPS data

59
Q

What two scenarios would drive Attitude (ATT) Mode to be initiated?

A

1) When EGI systems sense velocity along its axes before the Course Alignment is complete (taxiing)
2) During an inflight alignment - when GPS data is not available

60
Q

If the EGI system is OFF or in Attitude (ATT) Mode, what function is disabled?

A

Divert mode (DVT)

61
Q

At intercept angles equal to or greater than 30 degrees, maximum bank of ___ is commanded by the flight director

A

35 degrees

62
Q

At intercept angles equal to or greater than 25 degrees, a nominal bank of ___ is commanded

A

25 degrees

63
Q

During aggresive intercepts (high speed, high angle, close range), the bank command sweeps to center in as little as ___ second(s)

A

1 second

64
Q

Once centered, the commanded roll rate of the flight director is ___ degrees per second

A

5 degrees per second

65
Q

Instantaneous pitch corrections of the Flight Director are limited to ___ degrees up and ___ degrees down

A

5 degrees up

7 degrees down

66
Q

If the engines are operated in ___ the actual fuel consumption will be significantly greater than calculated in Emergency Divert Mode

A

afterburner (AB)

67
Q

Can the Divert Profile account for diversion with gear/flaps extended?

A

No, the calculations are based on a clean configuration

68
Q

What fuel calculation is not accounted for in the Destination Fuel (DST FUEL) indication at the start of the divert?

A

Fuel used to accelerate to climb speed at the start of the divert

69
Q

During the execution of an Emergency Divert, the altitude of the optimal profile can change; however, it will only be displayed if it results in a fuel improvement of at least ___ pounds

A

50 pounds

70
Q

For any given divert range, the Divert (DVT) profile can command a climb from sea level to as high as ___

A

FL400

71
Q

Range (RNG) profile calculations for RANGE assume the aircraft stays at the current altitude and includes ___ lbs for an approach

A

300 lbs

72
Q

If a manually-entered Required Navigation Performance (RNP) value is more restrictive than the current RNP, the letter “___” will precede the value on the MFD

A

M

73
Q

The Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) reflects a ___% position accuracy expressed in nautical miles and rounded up for convenient display

A

95%

74
Q

Upon MDP startup, the runway length criteria defaults to ___ feet for the Nearest Airport Database

A

8,000 feet

75
Q

The EGI will auto-swich to Flyby (FBY) and Initial Approach Fix (IAP) steerpoints when range to the steerpoint is less than ___ NM and is less than ___% of the lead point distance

A

7 NM

150%

76
Q

Lead point calculations are based on bank angles of ___ degrees

A

30 degrees or less

77
Q

For bank angles less than 30 degrees, lead point is based on bank angle equal to the ___

A
78
Q

For turns greater than ___ and at high speeds, the lead point can be greater than 7NM and can cause an overshoot on the next leg

A

120 degrees

79
Q

The EGI will auto-switch overfly and airport steerpoints when the aircraft passes within ___ NM of the waypoint and the EGI bearing pointer swings through the 3 or 9 o’clock positions relative to the nose of the aircraft

A

2 NM

80
Q

Automatic waypoint switching will not occur if the steerpoint is a ___ or ___

A

Missed approach point or a missed approach holding point

81
Q

Is the T-38C baro-altimeter temperature compensated?

A

No, the temperature corrections must be applied in accordance with Air Force Instructions

82
Q

For some procedure legs, the database specified a left or right turn direction. Does this information aid the flight director upon reaching the specified point?

A

No, the information is merely displayed for pilot Situational Awareness. A turn away from the depicted Flight Director guidance may be necessary to fly the procedure correctly

83
Q

The EGI will transition to Terminal phase-of flight within ___ NM of an airfield

A

30 NM

84
Q

The EGI will transition to NP phase-of-flight within ___ NM of the FAF

A

4 NM

85
Q

The default RNP of ___ NM in en route phase of flight, ___ NM in terminal phase of flight, and ___ NM in non-precision approach phase of flight

A

5 NM

1 NM

0.3 NM

86
Q

The Time on Target (TOT) and Time to Target (TTT) calculations can be unreliable close to the target within approx. ___ NM of the steerpoint and within ___ seconds of the TOT/TTT time

A

0.5 NM and 3 seconds

87
Q

Although the two dots represent full-scale localizer/glideslope deflection, the CDI is capable of extending beyond the second dot to ___% of full-scale localizer deflection

A

120%

88
Q

When Back Course (BC) is selected, the ___ and ___ are removed and not available

A

Glideslope raw data and flight director pitch steering

89
Q

What does the Mode Select button on the UHF Backup Control Panel control?

A

Toggles between Main and Both modes

Main transmits and receives on the same frequency

Both Transmits on displayed frequency but receives on displayed and guard frequencies

90
Q

In Audio Control Panel (ACP) Backup (B/U) mode in either cockpit, the system changes to the backup amplifier. What audio indications will be lost?

A
  1. TCAS
  2. NAV
  3. Aural tones
  4. Voice Warnings
91
Q

Selecting AUTO on the Communication (COMM) Antenna Switch uses the ___ antenna for communication until a glideslope signal is detected

A

Lower

92
Q

When a glideslope signal is detected, UHF communications are switched to the ____ antenna and glideslope is received through the ___ antenna

A

Upper

Glideslope

93
Q

If UHF interference is encountered on any frequency, the ___ position should be selected. If interference continues, select the ___ position

A

UPPER

LOWER

94
Q

In ILS mode with a failed upper UHF antenna and the COMM ANTENNA switch in Auto, UHF will not be available until the Comm Antenna Switch is set to ___

A

LOWER

Shooter Gouge (CAO Jan 2021) (6 decks)

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