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Air Atlanta Boeing 747-400 Typerating course > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

For all present and future Air Atlanta Icelandic pilots to keep re-current on systems on the Boeing 747-400

1
Q

Wingspan

A

64.9 meters

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2
Q

Height

A

19.6 meters

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3
Q

length

A

70.66 meters

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4
Q

pilots eye view

A

8.66 meters

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5
Q

Forward view blindspot

A

26 meters

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6
Q

Wingspan category

A

CAT E

up to 65 meters. Hereafter CAT F

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7
Q

Turning radius

A

45.4 meters

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8
Q

Max width for a 180 degree turn

A

46.3 meters

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9
Q

Oxygen masks deploy automatically when

A

cabin altitude exceeds 14000 feet

Oxygen pressure for crew and passangers are displayed on secondary EICAS - status page

Min crew pressure required is: 680 psi

Oxygen requirements are found in FPPM 2.1.2 and 2.2.10 - 2.2.17

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10
Q

Minimum post decompression time

Oxygen

A

10 min

  1. This number is used to derive how many litres of oxygen is required.
  2. Devide the litres required with the bottles onboard
  3. see if we meet oxygen requirement.

Flight planning and performance manual - Oxygen requirements table note 2

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11
Q

Upper deck emergency exit blue light is extinguished…

A

Emergency exit cannot be opened

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12
Q

The emergency lighting system is powered by _______

A

External batteries. Charged by DC BUS 4

approximate capacity is 15 min

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13
Q

Emergency light switch positions

Flight deck

A

OFF - inhibits emergency lights to be turned on (EICAS MSG)
ARM - Loss of DC power turns on emergency lights.
ON - Turns emergency lights on

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14
Q

Number of Emergency light switches

A

Two

Flight deck & CSM

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15
Q

If Emergency lights has been activated from CSM a reset is possible on flight deck emergency light switch by ________

A

Turning switch OFF then ON for normal operations

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16
Q

When passanger oxygen is ON the RETURN TO SEAT sign is ________

(cabin lights)

A

Off

The RETURN TO SEAT sign is automatically ON when SEAT BELT signs are on, however when oxygen is supplied the sign is NOT on

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17
Q

The seat belt selector switch has three settings. They are ____, _____ & _____

(cabin lights)

A

OFF - signs are off
AUTO - Seat belt signs are in AUTO mode
ON - signs are on

Arming conditons for signs:

  • Gear not locked
  • Flaps not locked
  • Airplane is below 10300’
  • Cabin altitude is above 10000’
  • Passenger oxygen is on
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18
Q

The no smoking selector switch has three settings. They are ____, _____ & _____

(cabin lights)

A

OFF - signs are off
AUTO - smoking signs are in AUTO mode
ON - signs are on

Arming conditons for signs:

  • Gear not locked
  • Cabin altitude is above 10000’
  • Passenger/supernumerary) oxygen is on

On all passenger aircraft this function is overridden

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19
Q

EICAS stands for?

A

Engine Indication & Crew Alerting system

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20
Q

ELEC synoptic page displays____ but not ____

Flight instruments

A

AC power only, not DC

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21
Q

TAT probes functions when aspirated by

Flight instruments

A

Bleed air

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22
Q

How many IRU (inertial Reference Units) are installed on the aircraft?

A

3

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23
Q

EIU is short for

Flight instruments

A

EFIS Interface Unit

Three installed

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24
Q

Flight director is supplied from the

Flight instruments

A

Its respective FCC (Flight Control Computer)

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25
Q

If outboard PFD fails, it moves ______

Flight instruments

A

Inward and ND disappears

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26
Q

If EIU (EFIS Interface Unit) is switched from LEFT to RIGHT the _______ source …..

(Flight instruments)

A

ILS source; also switches

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27
Q

If IRU (inertial Reference Unit) is switched, the _____ and _____ source ….

(Flight instruments)

A

Attitude and Vertical Speed; also switches

Rest of IRU sensors are reliant on other system configurations, and might not switch

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28
Q

If the aircraft moves north of the ______ degree parallel of latitude N/S, ______, _______ and ______ modes are inoperative

(Flight instruments)

A

82N/S; HDG SEL, HDG HOLD and Localizer

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29
Q

When flying in HDG SEL and the heading reference switch is set to TRUE (Flight instruments) what happens

(Flight instruments)

A

Roll mode reverts to HDG HOLD

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30
Q

Weather radar informations are only supplied to the ________ and _______
(Flight instruments)

A

inboard DU; lower EICAS

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31
Q

At full scale deflection of slip skid indicator _______

Flight instruments

A

slip skid indicator turns solid white

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32
Q

Excessiv bank angle (above 35) the ________ indicator turns ______

(Flight instruments)

A

slip skid indicator; Amber

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33
Q

IAS trend vector shows ______ second

Flight instruments

A

10 second trend

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34
Q

Speed tape shows minimum airspeed of _____ knots

Flight instruments

A

30 knots airspeed

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35
Q

Mach number is displayed on the bottom of the speed tape when ______________

(Flight instruments)

A

Mach number is above 0.40M

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36
Q

When approaches preselected altitude, altitude boxes _____ altitude when _____ and _____ from preselected altitude.

(Flight instruments)

A

White; 300; 900

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37
Q

When deviates preselected altitude, altitude boxes _____ altitude when _____ and _____ from preselected altitude.

(Flight instruments)

A

Amber; 300; 900

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38
Q

Altimeter setting is boxed amber when _____ feet above Transition Altitude and ______ is not set

(Flight instruments)

A

300’; SPS

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39
Q

Altimeter setting is boxed amber when _____ feet below Transition Level and ______ is not set

(Flight instruments)

A

300’; QNH

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40
Q

TDZ marker is presented on altitude tape, and memorized departure altitude until _______ or _______ whichever is first

(Flight instruments)

A

400 NM; halv enroute distance

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41
Q

Track information is supplied by ________ and by ______ if primary system fails

(Flight instruments)

A

FMC, IRU

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42
Q

Look ahead terrain, WX radar, PWS and TCAS are available for display in all ND modes except the ____________ modes

(Flight instruments)

A

APP CTR, VOR CTR and PLAN

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43
Q

VNAv dev indicator is visible when passing ________

Flight instruments

A

TOD

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44
Q

TCAS information is available in all MAP modes except

Flight instruments

A

APP/VOR center modes

FCOM 2 10.10.61

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45
Q

When any nav source is unavailable it is replaced by

A

series of dashed “ - - - “

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46
Q

ISFD is an abbreviation of

Flight instruments

A

Integrated Standby Flight Display

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47
Q

ISFD RST button is held for ______ second to “cage” and it takes ____ seconds

(Flight instruments)

A

2 seconds; 10 seconds

Integrated Standby Flight Display

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48
Q

ISFD (Integrated Standby Flight Display) initialization takes ____ seconds

A

90 seconds

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49
Q

Weather and terrain can be showed on VOR center?

A

FALSE

Neither in PLAN

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50
Q

Weather and terrain can be showed on VOR expanded?

A

CORRECT

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51
Q

Weather and terrain can be showed on MAP center?

A

CORRECT

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52
Q

Weather and terrain can be showed on MAP expanded?

A

CORRECT

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53
Q

Weather and terrain can be showed on APP center?

A

FALSE

Neither in PLAN

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54
Q

Weather and terrain can be showed on APP expanded?

A

CORRECT

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55
Q

When selecting the VOR/ADF toggle switch to ADF the information is presented where?

A

Lower left and right corner of ND

Not shown in PLAN mode

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56
Q

When selecting the VOR/ADF toggle switch to VOR the information is presented where?

A

Upper left and right corner of ND

Not shown in PLAN

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57
Q

In case on EFIS control panel failure, a back up system is available where?

A

On the CDU’s

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58
Q

The STA (stations) button on the EFIS control panel shows close and lower altitude stations on what ranges?

A

5 / 10 / 20 / 40 NM

Upper ones are shown on 80 / 160 / 320 / 640 NM

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59
Q

The STA (stations) button on the EFIS control panel shows far and upper altitude stations on what ranges?

A

80 / 160 / 320 / 640 NM

Lower ones are shown on 5 / 10 / 20 / 40 NM

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60
Q

If the standby attitude indicator has failed a ______ flag will appear

A

Gyro

The standby attitude indicator is powered solely by the main aircraft battery

ILS informations are derived from the LEFT ILS

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61
Q

The standby attitude indicator is powered solely by what

A

The main aircraft battery

ILS informations are derived from the LEFT ILS

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62
Q

ILS informations are derived from which ILS receiver

A

The left one

The standby attitude indicator is powered solely by the main aircraft battery

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63
Q

The standby airspeed indicator is supplied from which pitot/static source?

A

PITOT 1 and the ALTERNATE static source

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64
Q

EICAS is short for

A

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System

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65
Q

These units are monitoring the aircraft systems to provide information to the EICAS

A

The three EIU (L, C, R)

EFIS Interface Units

When in AUTO their internal priority is: L -> C -> R

If the LEFT EIU fails on ground with power connected, all CRT/LCD’s fail

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66
Q

EICAS messages are divided into two groups, primary and secondary.

The Primary messages are:

A

Alerts and Memos

Alert: Warning, Caution, Advisory
Memo: Selected normal conditions

Alerts and memos, blanks when situation no longer exists

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67
Q

EICAS messages are divided into two groups, primary and secondary.

The Secondary messages are:

A

Status

Displays in white and bears MEL references.

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68
Q

Crew inaction is an EICAS advisory, and monitors certain controls in cockpit. This function is inhibited below ______ feet

A

20.000

> PILOT RESPONSE in upper EICAS.

(If this advisory is ignored, it will be upgraded to Caution)

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69
Q

When multiple EICAS messages are displayed, there is a specific order.

All primary messages, ALERT, CAUTIONS, ADVISORYS, are prioritized with the recent stacked _________

A

On top

However with MEMO’s it is the oppesite. The most RECENT is the lowest

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70
Q

When multiple EICAS messages are displayed, there is a specific order.

All primary messages, MEMOS, are prioritized with the most recent stacked _________

A

On the bottom

However with ALERT, CAUTIONS, ADVISORYS’s it is the oppesite. The most RECENT is the highest

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71
Q

The EICAS messages pages are controlled with the RCL and the CNL buttons on the EFIS control panel.

The CNL button does

A

Cancels cautions and scrolls pages

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72
Q

The EICAS messages pages are controlled with the RCL and the CNL buttons on the EFIS control panel.

The RCL button does

A

Recalls primary EICAS messages and goes to page 1

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73
Q

Takeoff warnings are delivered via EICAS and are automatically cancelled at V___

A

V1

The takeoff warnings are based on

  • aircraft on ground
  • eng 2/3 in T/o range
  • fuel control switch in RUN
  • Airspeed less than V1
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74
Q

Landing warnings are delivered via EICAS and are armed when

A

on warning is >CFG GEAR

  • aircraft in flight
  • Any gear NOT locked at 800’ RA
  • flaps in LDG position (25 or more)

Can be cancelled when gear is down and locked og group proximity switch is pushed

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75
Q

If take off warning system fails what EICAS warning will appear

A

> CONFIG WARN SYS

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76
Q

The Boeing 747-400 has ____ IRUs installed

A

Three

The three IRU’s form part of the IRS

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77
Q

If AC fails, the IRUs are supplied from _______

A

APU hot battery bus

Note: The Center IRU will only receive DC power for 5 minutes, then it shuts down

Note: APU does not supply power in flight only bleed!

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78
Q

In case of power supply loss to the IRUs, the L - C - R receives power from _______

A

APU hot battery bus

Note: The Center IRU will only receive DC power for 5 minutes, then it shuts down

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79
Q

A fast IRS alignment takes approximately

A

30 seconds

A full IRS alignment takes approximately 10 min

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80
Q

A full IRS alignment takes approximately

A

10 min

A fast IRS alignment takes approximately 30 seconds

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81
Q

The time and IRS can operate before it needs a new full alignment

A

18 hours

RNP10

Required items for RNP 10:

  • 2 IRS
  • 1 FMC
  • 2 CDU
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82
Q

The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The Left IRU supplies the

A

Autobrakes

The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The right IRU supplies the RMI

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83
Q

The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The right IRU supplies the

A

RMI

The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The Left IRU supplies the autobrakes

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84
Q

The IRU mode ATT required _____ seconds realignment

A

30 seconds

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85
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ VORs installed

A

Two

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86
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ DMEs installed

A

Two

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87
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ ADFs installed

A

Two

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88
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ ILSs installed

A

Three

Aerial location:

LOCs: Two in the nose and one in the fin
G/S: One in the nose, and two mounted on the nose gear doors

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89
Q

The ILS frequencies can be autotuned when selected in the CDU, but autotune is in inhibited when

A
  • 10 min after initial takeoff

ILS tune inhibit is active when:

  • 500’ RA and A/P off
  • LOC&G/S capture with A/P on
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90
Q

ILS autotuned frequency unparks at

A
  • 50 NM from T/D
  • 150 from threshold
  • in the descend
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91
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ transponders installed

A

two

and one common panel

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92
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ CDUs installed

A

Three

CDU is used to communicate with FMS

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93
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ GPSs installed

A

Two

Supplies the, FMC, GPWS and supplies time

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94
Q

IRS information is continiously corrected by ______

A

GPS

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95
Q

The boeing 747-400 has _____ FMCs installed

A

Two

LEFT FMC is concidered MASTER

In case of FMC failure a limited CDU reversion is possible

In case of dual FMC loss only; LEGS, PROG, NAVRAD function is available on CDU

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96
Q

In case of FMC failure, and CDU back up system in force, consider the following modes lost

A

LNAV, VNAV, and A/T

In case of dual FMC loss only; LEGS, PROG, NAVRAD function is available on CDU

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97
Q

LNAV engages at _____’ after take off and ______NM from active route?

A

50’ , 2.5

at 100 knots on take off roll, barometric altitude is recorded for reference

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98
Q

VNAV engages at ______’ above the runway

A

400’

same height as A/T

(at 100 knots on take off roll, barometric altitude is recorded for reference)

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99
Q

Cruise descend is possible _____ NM before T/D

A

50 miles

Its is advised to use MCP selector for such descend, as a DES NOW can turn fuel calculation invalid

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100
Q

Required items for RNP 10:

A
  • 2 IRS
  • 1 FMC
  • 2 CDU

18 hour alignment

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101
Q

The Boeing 747-400 best angle of climb is (Vx)

A

Clean speed + 20 knots (Vx)

Best rate of climb is VX + 40 until passing M.84 (Vy)

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102
Q

The Boeing 747-400 rate of climb is

A

Vx + 40 until passing M.84

best angle of climb is clean speed + 20 (Vx)

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103
Q

TOGA sets THR REF until reaching ____ knots

A

65 knots and HOLD is engaged

in the HOLD the servos are deactivated the thrust can be manually set

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104
Q

The FCC supplies _______ pressure to the A/P servos

A

Hydraulic

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105
Q

TOGA arms on approach when

A
  • Flaps are extended
    or
  • Localizer and G/S capture
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106
Q

TOGA switches are inhibited below ______ feet and ____ seconds after climbing through ______ feet

A

5: 3: 5

TOGA switches are inhibited below 5 feet and 3 seconds after climbing through 5 feet

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107
Q

Minimum altitude for A/P engagement

A

250’

Minimum altitude for A/P disengagement is 100’

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108
Q

Minimum altitude for A/P disengagement

A

100’

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109
Q

If A/T window goes blank it can be reset by

A

resetting the A/T toggle switch on the MCP

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110
Q

If A/T toggle switch is disconnected the following is disabled

A
  • A/T
  • Any A/T activation
  • engine trim equilization
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111
Q

A/T disconnect when the following occurs

A
  • faulty A/T system
  • revers thrust
  • FMC selector switched
  • both FMC fail
  • Two or more engines are shut down
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112
Q

When two or more engines are shut down consider the following lost for approach

A

A/T funtion

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113
Q

On approach with autoland the A/T commands idle at

A

25’ RA

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114
Q

With pitch mode is NOT speed protected by A/T

A

VS

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115
Q

VNAV climb speed is qued at

A
  • VREF +100

- 250 knots (FL100 constraint)

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116
Q

Autoland capability (CMD) will be show at

A

1500’ RA

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117
Q

Localizer can occur at _____ degrees

A

120

Glideslope may be captured at 80 degrees of localizer course

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118
Q

Glideslope may be captured at _____ degrees of localizer course

A

80

Localizer can occur at 120 degrees

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119
Q

Any degradation of LAND3 will not be shown under _____ RA

A

200’

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120
Q

Aircraft will be commanded wings level during E/O autoland at

A

1300’

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121
Q

If A/P is disengaged with CMD, rudder will return to

A

trimmed rudder position

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122
Q

Autoland FLARE will happen at

A

60-40 RA

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123
Q

Autoland IDLE will happen at

A

25’ RA

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124
Q

ROLLOUT arms at

A

1500’

engaged at 5’

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125
Q

ROLLOUT engages at

A

5’

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126
Q

A/T remains armed after reversers are down with flaps for _____ seconds

A

10 seconds

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127
Q

Speed protections is made by

A

FMC with a 5 know margin

128
Q

No speed protection in following pitch mode

A

V/S

129
Q

Above E/O altitude FMC offers speedprotection

A

FALSE

130
Q

If TOGA is pushed with speed above 50 knots

A

TOGA is inhibited until reaching 400’

at 100 knots the barometric altitude is recorded as reference

131
Q

It the ATT roll mode if a bank in excess of 30 degrees occur

A

wing roll back to 30 degrees

132
Q

It the ATT roll mode if a bank less than 5 degrees occur

A

HDG HOLD will be engaged

133
Q

If in the TOGA pitch mode the initial pitch is

A

8 degrees

134
Q

In the TOGA the speed target is

A

V2 + 10 knots

If current speed is above that for more that 5 sec, this is set. (max v2+25)

135
Q

TOGA will set the _____ feet per minute

A

2000

TOGA pitch initial pitch is 8 degrees

136
Q

Boeing 747-400 engines

A

General electric CF6-80C2-B1F with 57900 lb thurst

PW4056 with 56750 lbs thrust

137
Q

The engine accessory gearbox is driven by

A

Enginge N2

138
Q

Each engine is supplied with _____ igniters

A

Two

  • Controlled by EEC
  • One starter is active on ground
  • Two starters in the air
139
Q

Primary engine indications

A
  • EPR
  • N1
  • EGT

Secondary engine indications popup automatically when FUEL CONTROL SWITCH is moved to CUT OFF

140
Q

Each engine is supplied with _____ EECs

A

One

EEC can set two idle positions
Approach idle: Nacelle anti-ice on; flaps in landing position
Minimum idle: engaged 5 sec after landing

141
Q

Each engine is supplied with _____ pneumatic starter(s)

A

One

142
Q

Engine overspeed protections is done by the ______

A

EEC

The EEC commands the Fuel Metering Valve to prevent rotor overspeed.

143
Q

An engine exceedance has be recorded it can be removed by pressing ______ on the DPS

A

CANC

The Exceedance can be recalled by pressing RCL

144
Q

The EGT has a starter limit line appears/disappears when

A
  • Fuel control switch in CUT OFF
  • N2 is stable

EGT color change, in relation to exceedence, is inhibited:

  • 5 min after TO/GA
  • 10 min after engine failure
145
Q

EGT color change, in relation to exceedence, is inhibited when

A
  • 5 min after TO/GA

- 10 min after engine failure

146
Q

The N2 ‘Fuel on indicator’ disappears when

A

N2 is stable

used for manual start only

147
Q

Low oil quantity is indicated as

A

a magenta number

148
Q

The magenta inflight start envelope appears when:

A
  • Fuel control switch is in CUT OFF
  • Related fire switch is IN

Displays speed and level for successful engine restart

X-BLD indicates additional airflow is required to engine start.

149
Q

if ‘vvvvvvvvvvvvvvv’ is displayed on the primary EICAS means what

A

An engine exceedance has occurred.

note: another secondary engine display replaces this.

150
Q

The fuel flow is measured ________ of the engine fuel valve

A

Downstream

The fuel flow is shown on secondary engine displays and supplied to the FMS for fuel predictions.

151
Q

One of the functions of the fuel/oil exchange is to

A

Reduce the risk of fuel icing

152
Q

If a fuel filter has been clogged up it can be bypassed

A

TRUE

If impending fuel filter block ENG1 ,2 ,3 ,4 FUEL FLT on EICAS

153
Q

FUEL CONTROL SWITCH in the RUN position opens

A
  • Opens spar fuel valve
  • Opens engine fuel valve
  • EEC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve, and igniter operation

If autostart is off

  • Opens spar fuel valve
  • Opens engine fuel valve
  • energized igniters
154
Q

Engine oil pressure is measured _________ of the engine

A

UPSTREAM

155
Q

Engine oil temperature is measured _________ of the engine

A

DOWNSTREAM

156
Q

Engine starter motor is ________ controlled and _______ powered

A

Electrically; pneumatically

Receives air from either ground cart, APU or cross bleed.

157
Q

EEC has two modes, normal and alternate mode. The normal mode uses ______ as thrust reference

A

EPR

  • Keeps thrust constant despite OAT, nacelle anti ice and airplane bleed operation
158
Q

EEC has two modes, normal and alternate mode. The alternate mode uses ______ as thrust reference

A

N1

In the alternate mode expect:

  • no A/T
  • No thrust protection of full thrust.
159
Q

The EEC is able to set two IDLE positions. Minimum and approach. The approach idle is engaged when

A
  • Nacelle anti ice is on
  • flaps in the landing conditions

If system has failed; EICAS

160
Q

Engine overspeed protection is assured by EEC by reducing the __________ to prevent overspeed

A

Fuel metering valve

161
Q

In case of a failed autostart attempt, how many times will the system re-attempt autostart?

A

Three times on ground
continously in flight

If no EGT rise is detected:

  • Autostart will purge fuel for new attempt
  • EEC CUT OFF fuel and ignition
  • Engine motors for 30 sec
  • EEC Reapplies fuel and ignition with TWO igniters

note: after a HUNG start engine will NOT motor

162
Q

If magenta X-BLD is shown on EICAS, N2 is insufficient for engine start. What can be done?

A
  • Increase thrust to increase bleed pressure for crossbleed start
  • Pull related starter switch

Starter switch arms/opens: (If in AUTO/MAN)

  • Engine air start bleed
  • Engine bleed valve
163
Q

EGT start limit for manual start

A

25 seconds

reference?

164
Q

With autostart OFF, what happens when the Engine start switch is pulled

A
  • Engine start air valve is OPENED
  • Engine bleed air valve is opened

For autostart:
Engine start air valve only arms and EEC sequences the opening when fuel control switch is moved out of CUT OFF

Fuel-on indicator is show when the autostart is off and fuel control switch is in CUT OFF

165
Q

With autostart ON, what happens when the Engine start switch is pulled

A
  • Engine start air valve is ARMED
  • Engine bleed air valve is opened

For autostart OFF:
Engine start air valve open and starts N2 rotation. Manual inlet of fuel happens with Fuel Control Switch moved out of CUT OFF.

166
Q

When the fuel control switch is moved in to RUN, the following occurs (autostart on)

A
  • Spar valve opens
  • Engine fuel valve
  • EEC sequences start valve & igniters

System monitors all parameters excepts N1 & oil pressure

167
Q

When the fuel control switch is moved in to RUN, the following occurs (autostart off)

A
  • Spar valve opens
  • Engine fuel valve
  • Igniters are energized

Fuel-on indicator is show when the autostart is off and fuel control switch is in CUT OFF

168
Q

The engine start switch is held in place by a solenoid and springs into off when

A
  • pushed

- N2 reaches 50%

169
Q

Each engine has an EEC, and the EEC has two modes. Which?

A
  • Normal mode
  • Alternate mode

The normal mode uses EPR, and keeps thrust constant despite OAT, use of nacelle anti ice, pressurization etc.

The alternate mode uses N1. It disconnects A/T and offers no thrust protection.

170
Q

The EEC has two modes. The Alternate EEC mode…

A
  • uses N1 as reference
  • disconnects A/T
  • provides no thrust protection

If Alternate mode is selected:
Set thrust IDLE upon selection to ensure no parameters are busted

EICAS: ENG1, 2, 3, 4 EEC MODE

171
Q

The EEC has two modes. The Normal EEC mode…

A
  • Uses EPR as reference
  • Keeps thrust stable
  • EEC commands fuel metering valve for stable thrust
172
Q

The EEC provides two IDLE positions to reduce spool time. Which?

A

Minimum IDLE
- engaged 5 sec after touch down

Approach IDLE

  • Nacelle anti ice ON
  • Flaps in landing position
173
Q

Engine overspeed protection is provided by the EEC by ….

A

limiting the fuel metering valve to prevent rotor overspeed

174
Q

Continous ignition will automatically be on when

A
  • Flaps are out of UP
  • Nacelle anti ice is ON
  • Engine flameout
175
Q

Fuel Control Switch moved to CUTOFF the following happens

A
  • Closes fuel valves
  • Removes igniter power
  • Commands demand pump to operate (when in auto)
  • Unlock
176
Q

Continous ignition shall be selected on when

A
  • encountering moderate rain
  • Hail og sleet
  • Moderate to severe turbulence
  • Flight through volcanic ash
  • Entering icing conditions
177
Q

There are two igniters, powered by the A/C and in case of failure

A

The standby A/C system in case of main A/C loss . (If switch is in ON)

178
Q

The engine has a individual starter motor attached. How is it operated and attached?

A
  • Electrically controlled
  • Pneumatically operated
  • Mechanically connected to the High pressure shaft (N2)
179
Q

When pulling the engine starter switch the associated light comes on when

A

The Engine air start valve is opened!

180
Q

The primary function of fuel/oil heat exchanger is to

A

Reduce the risk of fuel icing

181
Q

Each engine has two stages of fuel pumps. The add pressure to the fuel system when?

A
  • At N2 rotation
182
Q

Engine fuel flow is measured where

A

The fuel flow is measured downstream of the engine

It is shown on secondary engine display and is supplied to the FMS for fuel predictions

183
Q

With regards to EGT sensing and indication. The EGT shows a start limit line. When is this shown

A

The EGT start line is shown when
- Fuel Control Switch is out of CUT OFF

Disappears when
- N2 is stable

184
Q

With regards to EGT sensing and indication. EGT color change is inhibited for TO/GA and engine failure.

For how many minutes

A

5 min after TO/GA

10 min after engine failure

185
Q

When low oil quantity is detected, it is shown as what color

A

Magenta

186
Q

The engine has primary and secondary engine indications. Are the secondary indications always shown and what can be said about them?

A
  • Never shown in flight

- Shown when Fuel Control Switch is moved to cutoff

187
Q

N1 is per definiton the

A

In an axial flow jet engine, N1 refers to the rotational speed of the low speed spool which consists of the fan, the low pressure compressor and the low pressure turbine

188
Q

N2 is per definition the

A

In a two spool axial flow jet engine, N2 refers to the rotational speed of the high speed spool which consists of the high pressure compressor and the high pressure turbine

189
Q

The barometric altitude is recorded at _____ knots for reference to the LNAV, VNAV etc

A

100 knots

190
Q

APU can supply power from its generators in flight?

A

FALSE

191
Q

APU can operate, if on, up to ______ feet

A

20.000

192
Q

APU can supply electrical power to ALL systems on ground

A

TRUE

193
Q

APU can supply all packs on ground

A

TRUE

except during engine start

APU can supply one pack up to 15.000

194
Q

APU is provided with fuel from

A

Maintank 2 with A/C pump 2 AFT

In case of APU battery start, D/C pump operated på APU battery.

195
Q

APU fire detection consist of

A
  • Dual fire loop
  • APU fire light
  • Fire handle in RH gear well
  • One extinguishing fire bottle
196
Q

With regards to fire protection, it can be said that the APU battery provides

A
  • Fire detection only

Note: Fire extinguishing is provided by the main battery

197
Q

APU selector has three positions. (OFF, ON, START)

When the selector is in OFF

A
  • APU bleed air valve closes
  • Initiates normal shutdown
  • Resets the auto shut down (keeps APU running for 60 seconds to cool down)

Note: Battery can only come off to minutes after APU shut down

198
Q

APU selector has three positions. (OFF, ON, START)

When the selector is in ON

A
  • APU fuel valve opens (main bat)
  • APU inlet door opens (apu bat)
  • Arms bleed isolation valve
  • Main pump 2 aft activates/DC pump (apu/main bat)
199
Q

APU selector has three positions. (OFF, ON, START)

When the selector is in START

A
  • APU fuel valve opens (main bat)
  • APU inlet door opens (apu bat)
  • APU starter engages (apu bat)
  • Engages the starter
  • Ignites
  • Accelerates RPM
200
Q

With regards to Wing anti ice it can be said that

A
  • Inhibited on ground
  • Inhibited above 22.000
  • ineffective when leading edge flaps are extended

indicates WAI on N1 column when on

201
Q

With regards to Nacelle anti ice it can be said that

A
  • Continous ignition is automatically on
  • Supplied from engine bleed before the bleed valve
  • Supplied from HP turbine at low thrust settings (EEC maintained)
202
Q

All probes are electrically heated

A

True

TAT probe heat is inhibited on ground

203
Q

icing conditions exists when

A
  • On ground OAT is below 10° C
  • In flight TAT is below 10° C
  • Less than 1 statue mile visibility (1609 m)
  • Visible moisture
204
Q

The brake system is devided into two systems. Normal and Alternate. What can be said about the NORMAL system

A
  • Powered by hydraulic system 4
  • Full anti skid on each wheel
  • Autobrake available
  • backed up by alternate system in case of hydraulic failure
205
Q

The brake system is devided into two systems. Normal and Alternate. What can be said about the ALTERNATE system

A
  • Powered by hydraulic system 1 & 2
  • Anti on each wheel pair.
  • Autobrake system disabled
206
Q

Anti skid is available in normal and alternate brake mode. (When brake system is fed from different hydraulic sytems)

A

TRUE

When in alternate mode antiskid brake wheel pairs instead of individual wheels

207
Q

Autobrake system is available in normal and alternate brake mode. (When brake system is fed from different hydraulic sytems)

A

FALSE

When in alternate mode autobrake system is disabled!

208
Q

The autobrake system is a decelleration rate govorned by what

A

Left IRU

When in alternate brake mode, hydraulic 1&2, autobrake system is disabled!

209
Q

Antiskid activates at _____ kts on T/O

A

8

210
Q

If wheel over-torque is sensed, ________ releases sensed wheel

A

Anti skid

In alternate mode, the associated wheel PAIR is released by anti skid

211
Q

Locked wheel protection is ensure by

A

Wheel speed comparison

212
Q

Parking brake is connected to which hydraulic system

A

hydraulic system 4 through its own accumulator

213
Q

The landing gear lever is supplied with its own landing gear level lock which prevents OFF to UP position. This safety feature is automatically released when?

A

Main gear is tilted and centered

Note: Manual override is possible with pushbutton

214
Q

When the landing gear lever is selected in the UP position, three things happen, what?

A
  • Main gear brakes
  • Gear is held in the UP position by uplocks
  • UP indication is show for 10 sec

note: Main gear brake pressure is relieved when gear is selected OFF once held by uplocks

215
Q

The landing gear can be manually extended expect the following

A
  • Loss of nose wheel steering

- All gear doors stay down

216
Q

The nose gear steering range?

A

0-70°

note: With rudder a range of 0-7° is maximum
note: Body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°

217
Q

The body gear steering range?

A
  • 13°
  • activates at 15 knots
  • centeres at 20 knots

note: body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°

218
Q

The body gear activates at?

A
  • activates at 15 knots
  • centeres at 20 knots

note: body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°

219
Q

The body gear centres at?

A
  • centeres at 20 knots
  • activates at 15 knots

note: body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°

220
Q

The landing gear needs to know if the aircraft is on the ground or flight mode. This is done by the?

A

Main gear tilt

221
Q

The stall warning is armed when upon?

A

Nose gear gear strut extension

note: after lift off and nose strut is extended the stall warning is armed

222
Q

The autobrake system provides a deceleration rate, and is operation on both normal and alternate brake mode.

A

FALSE

However Antiskid is still available in alternate brake mode

223
Q

Autobrake RTO can only be selected on ground

A

TRUE

RTO is active above 85 knots. Below this speed no automatic RTO function is available

Note: The autobrake snaps the switch to OFF when airborne

224
Q

Autobrake RTO system is available above which speed

A

85 knots

Moving ANY thrust lever to idle will command max brake

Note: The autobrake system is referenced by the LEFT IRU

225
Q

The autobrake settings 1, 2, 3, 4 MAX AUTO can be selected any time

A

FALSE

The autobrake settings 1, 2, 3, 4 MAX AUTO is only selectable in flight.

Note: switch snaps to disarm after landing

226
Q

The autobrake system applies pressure when

A
  • on ground
  • wheel spinup is sensed
  • all thrust levers are closed

Braking is automatically reduced when

  • extension of spoilers
  • thrust reversion
227
Q

The autobrake system automatically disarms when

A
  • Pedal braking is applied
  • Any thrust lever is advanced
  • Speed brake moved to DN
  • switch set from DISARM to OFF
    in case of following faults:
  • Hydraulic system 4 fault
  • autobrak fault
  • antiskid fault

Note: Select to OFF to deenergize the system

228
Q

The L/R UTILITY power switch is located on the overhead panel has two switch positions. The ON position does the following

A
  • Supplies the ELCU’s and the Galley ELCU for automatic load shedding

Order of shedding: Galley first then Utility

(Electrical Load Control Units)

229
Q

The L/R UTILITY power switch is located on the overhead panel has two switch positions. The OFF position does the following

A
  • Removes power from ELCU (single)
  • Removes all power from IFE system and turns on nights lighting (both)

(In Flight Entertainment)

230
Q

The STANDBY POWER selector is located on the overhead panel has three switch positions. The OFF position does the following

A
  • Disables standby power
231
Q

The STANDBY POWER selector is located on the overhead panel has three switch positions. The AUTO position does the following

A
  • Provides power to the standby bus in case of total A/C loss

Note: This WILL deplete the battery if left in AUTO, and e.g EXT1/2 is removed. In this case the TRU will power the standbybus and deplete the main battery.

232
Q

The STANDBY POWER selector is located on the overhead panel has three switch positions. The BAT position does the following

A
  • Powers main battery bus from main battery.
  • Power APU battery bus from APU battery
  • Disables battery charge
233
Q

Each battery supplies electricity for ______ minutes

A

30 min

234
Q

The 747-400 has _____ IDGs installed

A

4 generators pr engine

additionally the APU has to generators for ground use only.

Integrated Drive Generator

235
Q

One external power source can supply all busses

A

TRUE

The two syncrounous busses will be connected by the SSB

(Split System Breaker)

236
Q

The Integrated Drive Generator IDG is cooled by

A
  • Fan air

- Engine fuel flow

237
Q

The Integrated Drive Generator has an automatic disconnection in case of ….

A
  • Excessive high drive oil temperature only
238
Q

Integrated Drive Generator disconnect is only possible under two conditions

A
  • Thrust above idle
  • Engine running

Note this is an irreverseable action

239
Q

When an engine is started and an Integrated Drive Generator comes online, the previous A/C power source is disconnected ..

A

automatically when voltage and frequency are acceptable

240
Q

If external A/C power is connected to a side where and IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) is already supplying, the associated IDG is….

A

Disconnected automatically and power transfer is completed.

241
Q

If A/C BUS power is unacceptable the _____-Tie Breaker opens, but the BUS is still supplied through its ______-Tie Breaker

A

Bus (BTB); Generator (GTB)

242
Q

If IDG power is unacceptable the _____-Tie Breaker opens, but the BUS is still supplied through its ______-Tie Breaker

A

Generator (GTB), Bus (BTB)

243
Q

The A/C busses supply the following

A
  • TRU’s
  • Navigation Radios
  • Flight deck lighting
  • Pitot and window heat
244
Q

The ground service bus is powered by

A

A/C BUS 1

The ground service bus does the following:

  • APU and MAIN bat charge
  • Run Fuel pumps for APU start
  • Supplies upper deck emergency doors
245
Q

The First officer transfer busses are supplied by

A

A/C BUS 2

Back up: A/C BUS 1

The transfer busses supply power to critical flight related equipment

Note: If FO transfer bus is lost expect loss of A/T.

246
Q

The Captain transfer busses are supplied by

A

A/C BUS 3

Back up: A/C BUS 1

The transfer busses supply power to critical flight related equipment

247
Q

The ground handling bus is powered when __________ is available

A

EXT1 or APU1 is available

Note: These just have to be available

Ground handling bus supplies power to facilitate, fueling, auxiliary hydraulic pumps.

248
Q

Ground handling bus supplies power to …

A
  • lower cargo handing eqipment
  • fueling
  • auxiliary hydraulic pumps
249
Q

A/C and D/C busses 1, 2, 3 will be isolated during …

A

Automatic ILS approach

This function reverts to normal when

  • all autopilot disengage
  • TO/GA above 100’
  • APP disarmed
  • system unable to maintain LAND3/2

Note: Electrical synoptic page is unavailable

250
Q

The MAIN standby bus is powered by …

A

A/C BUS 3

The standby bus will be powered with the standby inverter if:

  • Battery on
  • Standby power selector in AUTO
  • A/C BUS 3 NOT powered

can supply power for 30 min

251
Q

The standby bus will be powered with the standby inverter for ____ minutes

A

30 minutes

IF

  • Battery on
  • Standby power selector in AUTO
  • A/C BUS 3 NOT powered
252
Q

The APU standby bus is powered by …

A

Captain transfer bus

In case of A/C BUS 1, 3 fail, the APU standby bus will be powered by APU standby inverter

can supply power for 30 min

253
Q

The main deck cargo handling bus is available if

A
  • EXT2 is available
  • APU2 is available

Note: not selected, only available

254
Q

The Boeing 747 hydraulic system has ____ independant systems which has a proximate pressure of _____ psi

A

4; 3000

255
Q

Each hydraulic reservoirs is protection agains cavitation by …

A

Bleed air

256
Q

Demand pump 1 & 4 are ______ driven

A

air

These pumps are driven by air pressure from the aircraft pneumatic system

Demand pump 2 & 3 are electrically driven

257
Q

Demand pump 2 & 3 are ______ driven

A

electrically driven

Demand pump 1 & 4 are air driven

258
Q

Hydraulic fluid reservoir quantity is present as …

A

Service level in percentage

note: a graphical indication is also presented on the HYD page

259
Q

The hydraulic demand pump 4 switch has three positions. OFF, AUTO, AUX. With the AUTO position, the demand pump is

A
  • ON if system pressure is low
  • ON in case of high demand on hydraulic system
  • ON if fuel control switch is in CUTOFF
  • ON if flaps not in UP position (system 1&4)
260
Q

The hydraulic demand pump 4 switch has three positions. OFF, AUTO, AUX. With the AUX position, the demand pump is

A
  • off and a auxiliary hydraulic pump is on for ground handling
    note: auxiliary system depressurizes when engine driven pump is on
261
Q

With regards to the hydraulic system, if a fire switch is pulled, the following happens

A
  • Hydraulic fluid shut off valve closes
  • Demand pump operates

note: Fault light on EDP pump comes on due to no pressure across this pump.

262
Q

The hydraulic demand pump 4 switch has three positions. OFF, AUTO, AUX. With the OFF position, the demand pump is

A
  • OFF

note: Demand pump PRESS fault light illuminates due to no pressure across this pump

263
Q

With regards to the hydraulic system, the EDP is running under the following conditions …

A
  • Engine running
  • Fire switch not pulled
  • Pb in
264
Q

With regards to wind shear avoidance, the 747-400 has two modes. Which?

A
  • Reactive

- Predictve

265
Q

With regards to wind shear avoidance, the REACTIVE system issues the following aural alert …

A

“WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR”

  • Offers Flight Director guidance
  • Initiates thrust response (if A/T is available)
266
Q

With regards to wind shear avoidance, the PREDICTIVE system issues the following aural alert …

A

“WIND SHEAR AHEAD”

- No automatic actions

267
Q

The REACTIVE wind shear avoidance alerts are enabled below ________ RA

A

1500’

268
Q

The PREDICTIVE windshear avoidance sweeps begin _____ AGL

A

2300’

269
Q

Predictive Wind shear alerts are enabled between ______ AGL and _______ AGL

A

1200, 50

270
Q

The predictive wind shear system scans out to ___ NM

A

5 NM

271
Q

The predictive wind shear system issues alerts to _____ NM

A

3 NM

272
Q

The predictive wind shear system issues warnings to _____ NM

A

1.5 NM

Below 370 RA, 0.5-1.5 NM only alerts are issued

273
Q

The PWS is armed when …

A

Thrust lever 2 & 3 are in the T/O range

274
Q

With regards to the TCAS system, no resolution advisories are issued below ______ RA

A

1000’ RA

note: below this height all RAs are converted to TAs and TA ONLY is displayed

275
Q

With regards to the TCAS system, no TA’s are issued below ______ RA

A

500’ RA

276
Q

With regards to the TCAS system, a corrective advisory expects …

A

A vertical maneuver

277
Q

With regards to the TCAS system, a preventive advisory expects …

A

Vertical speed to be held

278
Q

With regards to the TCAS system, a TA has a estimated _____ seconds to impact

A

20 - 30 seconds

279
Q

With regards to the TCAS system, a RA has a estimated _____ seconds to impact

A

25 - 40 seconds

280
Q

With regards to the TCAS system, the system accounts for aircraft performance

A

TRUE

note: It takes aircraft service ceiling into account

281
Q

With regards to the fuel system, at 0.9T the following happens

A

FUEL QTY LOW in any maintank below 900 kg

282
Q

With regards to the fuel system, 1,3 the following happens

A

Center wing tank OVRD JET pump lights come on and must be switched off

283
Q

With regards to the fuel system, at and above 7,7T the following happens

A

Center wing tanks must be on for take off

284
Q

With regards to the fuel system, below 9T the following happens during jettison

A

When main tank 2 & 3 reaches 9000 during fuel jettison, tank 1 & 4 fuel begins to drain into 2 & 3

285
Q

With regards to the fuel system, at 18T the following happens

A

The fuel from the reserve tank is gravity transferred in to tank 2 & 3

286
Q

With regards to the fuel system, at 27T the following happens

A

Center Wing Tank scavenge pumps start to drain fuel in to Main tank 2 & 3

287
Q

With regards to the fuel system, 36T the following happens

A

The transfer jet pump in the horizontal stabilizers start to transfer fuel to center wing tank

288
Q

With regards to the fuel system, 54T the following happens

A

FUEL TANK/ENG should be imminent

289
Q

With regards to the fuel system, 108T

A

Full wings

290
Q

With regards to the fuel system, 125T the following happens

A

Fuelling in horizontal stabilizer commences

291
Q

Fuel temp is sensed in main tank

A

1

292
Q

Fuel quantity is showed in amber when fuel drops below _____ degrees

A

-37

293
Q

All valves are commanded open/closed by _______

A

FSMC

Fuel system management cards

294
Q

A fuel quantity is measure in each tank, by 72 diffrent sensor. If one sensor is faulty …..

A

Fuel quantity is not displayed for that tank

295
Q

Current fuel flow can be found on what CDU page

A

Progress page 2

296
Q

Max fuel capacity for the 747-400 is

A

173072 kg

297
Q

Both of the center wing tank override jett pumps override all other pumps

A

TRUE

Main tank override jet pumps are inhibited/armed

298
Q

One A/C boost pump can supply ___ engine(s) during take off and ___ engine(s) cruise

A

one; two

299
Q

One override jet pump can supply ___ engine(s) during take off and ___ engine(s) during cruise

A

two; two

300
Q

The FSMC logic when flaps are extended to T/O on ground, ____ crossfeed 2 & 3 valve, letting OVRD JET pumps 2&3 supply engine __&__

A

close; 1 & 4

301
Q

The FSMC logic when are flaps are out of 10 % 20, ____ crossfeed valve 2 & 3

A

opens

302
Q

When the is no fuel in center wing tank, which pumps are activated

A

Override jet pump 2 & 3

303
Q

Max fuel imballance between main tank1-4 …

A

1360 kg

304
Q

Max fuel imballance between main tank 2-3 …

A

2720 kg

305
Q

The lowest amount of fuel that can be drained from any main tank is

A

3200 kg

306
Q

Ground spoiler activates _____ out of 12 spoilers

A

12

roll spoiler activates 10 out of 12 spoilers

307
Q

Roll spoiler activates _____ out of 12 spoilers

A

10

Ground spoiler activates 12 out of 12 spoilers

308
Q

Speed brake activates _____ out of 12 spoilers

A

8

Roll activates 10 out of 12 spoilers

309
Q

Leading edge flaps are _______ operated

A

Pneumatically

electrically backed up

310
Q

Trailing edge flaps are ________ operated

A

Hydraulically operated

electrically backed up

311
Q

Primary flap control operates through the _______

A

Flight Control Unit

312
Q

Alternate flap control operates through _______

A

No FCU and no asymetrical protection

313
Q

Flap load relief is only ensure for flap _____ & _____

A

25 & 30

314
Q

With regards to flight controls, the secondary flap control system is ___________ activated

A

automatically

315
Q

With regards to flight controls, when flaps 1 is selected in the alternate mode all leading edge flaps extends

A

TRUE

no asymetrical protection is provided

316
Q

With regards to flight controls, when flaps 1 is selected in the secondary mode all leading edge flaps extends

A

FALSE

When flaps are extended to flap 1, only inboard in midspan are extended

when flaps are extended to 5 all leading edge flaps are extended

Air Atlanta Boeing 747-400 Typerating course (8 decks)

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