Systems Flashcards
For all present and future Air Atlanta Icelandic pilots to keep re-current on systems on the Boeing 747-400
Wingspan
64.9 meters
Height
19.6 meters
length
70.66 meters
pilots eye view
8.66 meters
Forward view blindspot
26 meters
Wingspan category
CAT E
up to 65 meters. Hereafter CAT F
Turning radius
45.4 meters
Max width for a 180 degree turn
46.3 meters
Oxygen masks deploy automatically when
cabin altitude exceeds 14000 feet
Oxygen pressure for crew and passangers are displayed on secondary EICAS - status page
Min crew pressure required is: 680 psi
Oxygen requirements are found in FPPM 2.1.2 and 2.2.10 - 2.2.17
Minimum post decompression time
Oxygen
10 min
- This number is used to derive how many litres of oxygen is required.
- Devide the litres required with the bottles onboard
- see if we meet oxygen requirement.
Flight planning and performance manual - Oxygen requirements table note 2
Upper deck emergency exit blue light is extinguished…
Emergency exit cannot be opened
The emergency lighting system is powered by _______
External batteries. Charged by DC BUS 4
approximate capacity is 15 min
Emergency light switch positions
Flight deck
OFF - inhibits emergency lights to be turned on (EICAS MSG)
ARM - Loss of DC power turns on emergency lights.
ON - Turns emergency lights on
Number of Emergency light switches
Two
Flight deck & CSM
If Emergency lights has been activated from CSM a reset is possible on flight deck emergency light switch by ________
Turning switch OFF then ON for normal operations
When passanger oxygen is ON the RETURN TO SEAT sign is ________
(cabin lights)
Off
The RETURN TO SEAT sign is automatically ON when SEAT BELT signs are on, however when oxygen is supplied the sign is NOT on
The seat belt selector switch has three settings. They are ____, _____ & _____
(cabin lights)
OFF - signs are off
AUTO - Seat belt signs are in AUTO mode
ON - signs are on
Arming conditons for signs:
- Gear not locked
- Flaps not locked
- Airplane is below 10300’
- Cabin altitude is above 10000’
- Passenger oxygen is on
The no smoking selector switch has three settings. They are ____, _____ & _____
(cabin lights)
OFF - signs are off
AUTO - smoking signs are in AUTO mode
ON - signs are on
Arming conditons for signs:
- Gear not locked
- Cabin altitude is above 10000’
- Passenger/supernumerary) oxygen is on
On all passenger aircraft this function is overridden
EICAS stands for?
Engine Indication & Crew Alerting system
ELEC synoptic page displays____ but not ____
Flight instruments
AC power only, not DC
TAT probes functions when aspirated by
Flight instruments
Bleed air
How many IRU (inertial Reference Units) are installed on the aircraft?
3
EIU is short for
Flight instruments
EFIS Interface Unit
Three installed
Flight director is supplied from the
Flight instruments
Its respective FCC (Flight Control Computer)
If outboard PFD fails, it moves ______
Flight instruments
Inward and ND disappears
If EIU (EFIS Interface Unit) is switched from LEFT to RIGHT the _______ source …..
(Flight instruments)
ILS source; also switches
If IRU (inertial Reference Unit) is switched, the _____ and _____ source ….
(Flight instruments)
Attitude and Vertical Speed; also switches
Rest of IRU sensors are reliant on other system configurations, and might not switch
If the aircraft moves north of the ______ degree parallel of latitude N/S, ______, _______ and ______ modes are inoperative
(Flight instruments)
82N/S; HDG SEL, HDG HOLD and Localizer
When flying in HDG SEL and the heading reference switch is set to TRUE (Flight instruments) what happens
(Flight instruments)
Roll mode reverts to HDG HOLD
Weather radar informations are only supplied to the ________ and _______
(Flight instruments)
inboard DU; lower EICAS
At full scale deflection of slip skid indicator _______
Flight instruments
slip skid indicator turns solid white
Excessiv bank angle (above 35) the ________ indicator turns ______
(Flight instruments)
slip skid indicator; Amber
IAS trend vector shows ______ second
Flight instruments
10 second trend
Speed tape shows minimum airspeed of _____ knots
Flight instruments
30 knots airspeed
Mach number is displayed on the bottom of the speed tape when ______________
(Flight instruments)
Mach number is above 0.40M
When approaches preselected altitude, altitude boxes _____ altitude when _____ and _____ from preselected altitude.
(Flight instruments)
White; 300; 900
When deviates preselected altitude, altitude boxes _____ altitude when _____ and _____ from preselected altitude.
(Flight instruments)
Amber; 300; 900
Altimeter setting is boxed amber when _____ feet above Transition Altitude and ______ is not set
(Flight instruments)
300’; SPS
Altimeter setting is boxed amber when _____ feet below Transition Level and ______ is not set
(Flight instruments)
300’; QNH
TDZ marker is presented on altitude tape, and memorized departure altitude until _______ or _______ whichever is first
(Flight instruments)
400 NM; halv enroute distance
Track information is supplied by ________ and by ______ if primary system fails
(Flight instruments)
FMC, IRU
Look ahead terrain, WX radar, PWS and TCAS are available for display in all ND modes except the ____________ modes
(Flight instruments)
APP CTR, VOR CTR and PLAN
VNAv dev indicator is visible when passing ________
Flight instruments
TOD
TCAS information is available in all MAP modes except
Flight instruments
APP/VOR center modes
FCOM 2 10.10.61
When any nav source is unavailable it is replaced by
series of dashed “ - - - “
ISFD is an abbreviation of
Flight instruments
Integrated Standby Flight Display
ISFD RST button is held for ______ second to “cage” and it takes ____ seconds
(Flight instruments)
2 seconds; 10 seconds
Integrated Standby Flight Display
ISFD (Integrated Standby Flight Display) initialization takes ____ seconds
90 seconds
Weather and terrain can be showed on VOR center?
FALSE
Neither in PLAN
Weather and terrain can be showed on VOR expanded?
CORRECT
Weather and terrain can be showed on MAP center?
CORRECT
Weather and terrain can be showed on MAP expanded?
CORRECT
Weather and terrain can be showed on APP center?
FALSE
Neither in PLAN
Weather and terrain can be showed on APP expanded?
CORRECT
When selecting the VOR/ADF toggle switch to ADF the information is presented where?
Lower left and right corner of ND
Not shown in PLAN mode
When selecting the VOR/ADF toggle switch to VOR the information is presented where?
Upper left and right corner of ND
Not shown in PLAN
In case on EFIS control panel failure, a back up system is available where?
On the CDU’s
The STA (stations) button on the EFIS control panel shows close and lower altitude stations on what ranges?
5 / 10 / 20 / 40 NM
Upper ones are shown on 80 / 160 / 320 / 640 NM
The STA (stations) button on the EFIS control panel shows far and upper altitude stations on what ranges?
80 / 160 / 320 / 640 NM
Lower ones are shown on 5 / 10 / 20 / 40 NM
If the standby attitude indicator has failed a ______ flag will appear
Gyro
The standby attitude indicator is powered solely by the main aircraft battery
ILS informations are derived from the LEFT ILS
The standby attitude indicator is powered solely by what
The main aircraft battery
ILS informations are derived from the LEFT ILS
ILS informations are derived from which ILS receiver
The left one
The standby attitude indicator is powered solely by the main aircraft battery
The standby airspeed indicator is supplied from which pitot/static source?
PITOT 1 and the ALTERNATE static source
EICAS is short for
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System
These units are monitoring the aircraft systems to provide information to the EICAS
The three EIU (L, C, R)
EFIS Interface Units
When in AUTO their internal priority is: L -> C -> R
If the LEFT EIU fails on ground with power connected, all CRT/LCD’s fail
EICAS messages are divided into two groups, primary and secondary.
The Primary messages are:
Alerts and Memos
Alert: Warning, Caution, Advisory
Memo: Selected normal conditions
Alerts and memos, blanks when situation no longer exists
EICAS messages are divided into two groups, primary and secondary.
The Secondary messages are:
Status
Displays in white and bears MEL references.
Crew inaction is an EICAS advisory, and monitors certain controls in cockpit. This function is inhibited below ______ feet
20.000
> PILOT RESPONSE in upper EICAS.
(If this advisory is ignored, it will be upgraded to Caution)
When multiple EICAS messages are displayed, there is a specific order.
All primary messages, ALERT, CAUTIONS, ADVISORYS, are prioritized with the recent stacked _________
On top
However with MEMO’s it is the oppesite. The most RECENT is the lowest
When multiple EICAS messages are displayed, there is a specific order.
All primary messages, MEMOS, are prioritized with the most recent stacked _________
On the bottom
However with ALERT, CAUTIONS, ADVISORYS’s it is the oppesite. The most RECENT is the highest
The EICAS messages pages are controlled with the RCL and the CNL buttons on the EFIS control panel.
The CNL button does
Cancels cautions and scrolls pages
The EICAS messages pages are controlled with the RCL and the CNL buttons on the EFIS control panel.
The RCL button does
Recalls primary EICAS messages and goes to page 1
Takeoff warnings are delivered via EICAS and are automatically cancelled at V___
V1
The takeoff warnings are based on
- aircraft on ground
- eng 2/3 in T/o range
- fuel control switch in RUN
- Airspeed less than V1
Landing warnings are delivered via EICAS and are armed when
on warning is >CFG GEAR
- aircraft in flight
- Any gear NOT locked at 800’ RA
- flaps in LDG position (25 or more)
Can be cancelled when gear is down and locked og group proximity switch is pushed
If take off warning system fails what EICAS warning will appear
> CONFIG WARN SYS
The Boeing 747-400 has ____ IRUs installed
Three
The three IRU’s form part of the IRS
If AC fails, the IRUs are supplied from _______
APU hot battery bus
Note: The Center IRU will only receive DC power for 5 minutes, then it shuts down
Note: APU does not supply power in flight only bleed!
In case of power supply loss to the IRUs, the L - C - R receives power from _______
APU hot battery bus
Note: The Center IRU will only receive DC power for 5 minutes, then it shuts down
A fast IRS alignment takes approximately
30 seconds
A full IRS alignment takes approximately 10 min
A full IRS alignment takes approximately
10 min
A fast IRS alignment takes approximately 30 seconds
The time and IRS can operate before it needs a new full alignment
18 hours
RNP10
Required items for RNP 10:
- 2 IRS
- 1 FMC
- 2 CDU
The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The Left IRU supplies the
Autobrakes
The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The right IRU supplies the RMI
The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The right IRU supplies the
RMI
The Three IRU supply different systems with reference information. The Left IRU supplies the autobrakes
The IRU mode ATT required _____ seconds realignment
30 seconds
The boeing 747-400 has _____ VORs installed
Two
The boeing 747-400 has _____ DMEs installed
Two
The boeing 747-400 has _____ ADFs installed
Two
The boeing 747-400 has _____ ILSs installed
Three
Aerial location:
LOCs: Two in the nose and one in the fin
G/S: One in the nose, and two mounted on the nose gear doors
The ILS frequencies can be autotuned when selected in the CDU, but autotune is in inhibited when
- 10 min after initial takeoff
ILS tune inhibit is active when:
- 500’ RA and A/P off
- LOC&G/S capture with A/P on
ILS autotuned frequency unparks at
- 50 NM from T/D
- 150 from threshold
- in the descend
The boeing 747-400 has _____ transponders installed
two
and one common panel
The boeing 747-400 has _____ CDUs installed
Three
CDU is used to communicate with FMS
The boeing 747-400 has _____ GPSs installed
Two
Supplies the, FMC, GPWS and supplies time
IRS information is continiously corrected by ______
GPS
The boeing 747-400 has _____ FMCs installed
Two
LEFT FMC is concidered MASTER
In case of FMC failure a limited CDU reversion is possible
In case of dual FMC loss only; LEGS, PROG, NAVRAD function is available on CDU
In case of FMC failure, and CDU back up system in force, consider the following modes lost
LNAV, VNAV, and A/T
In case of dual FMC loss only; LEGS, PROG, NAVRAD function is available on CDU
LNAV engages at _____’ after take off and ______NM from active route?
50’ , 2.5
at 100 knots on take off roll, barometric altitude is recorded for reference
VNAV engages at ______’ above the runway
400’
same height as A/T
(at 100 knots on take off roll, barometric altitude is recorded for reference)
Cruise descend is possible _____ NM before T/D
50 miles
Its is advised to use MCP selector for such descend, as a DES NOW can turn fuel calculation invalid
Required items for RNP 10:
- 2 IRS
- 1 FMC
- 2 CDU
18 hour alignment
The Boeing 747-400 best angle of climb is (Vx)
Clean speed + 20 knots (Vx)
Best rate of climb is VX + 40 until passing M.84 (Vy)
The Boeing 747-400 rate of climb is
Vx + 40 until passing M.84
best angle of climb is clean speed + 20 (Vx)
TOGA sets THR REF until reaching ____ knots
65 knots and HOLD is engaged
in the HOLD the servos are deactivated the thrust can be manually set
The FCC supplies _______ pressure to the A/P servos
Hydraulic
TOGA arms on approach when
- Flaps are extended
or - Localizer and G/S capture
TOGA switches are inhibited below ______ feet and ____ seconds after climbing through ______ feet
5: 3: 5
TOGA switches are inhibited below 5 feet and 3 seconds after climbing through 5 feet
Minimum altitude for A/P engagement
250’
Minimum altitude for A/P disengagement is 100’
Minimum altitude for A/P disengagement
100’
If A/T window goes blank it can be reset by
resetting the A/T toggle switch on the MCP
If A/T toggle switch is disconnected the following is disabled
- A/T
- Any A/T activation
- engine trim equilization
A/T disconnect when the following occurs
- faulty A/T system
- revers thrust
- FMC selector switched
- both FMC fail
- Two or more engines are shut down
When two or more engines are shut down consider the following lost for approach
A/T funtion
On approach with autoland the A/T commands idle at
25’ RA
With pitch mode is NOT speed protected by A/T
VS
VNAV climb speed is qued at
- VREF +100
- 250 knots (FL100 constraint)
Autoland capability (CMD) will be show at
1500’ RA
Localizer can occur at _____ degrees
120
Glideslope may be captured at 80 degrees of localizer course
Glideslope may be captured at _____ degrees of localizer course
80
Localizer can occur at 120 degrees
Any degradation of LAND3 will not be shown under _____ RA
200’
Aircraft will be commanded wings level during E/O autoland at
1300’
If A/P is disengaged with CMD, rudder will return to
trimmed rudder position
Autoland FLARE will happen at
60-40 RA
Autoland IDLE will happen at
25’ RA
ROLLOUT arms at
1500’
engaged at 5’
ROLLOUT engages at
5’
A/T remains armed after reversers are down with flaps for _____ seconds
10 seconds
Speed protections is made by
FMC with a 5 know margin
No speed protection in following pitch mode
V/S
Above E/O altitude FMC offers speedprotection
FALSE
If TOGA is pushed with speed above 50 knots
TOGA is inhibited until reaching 400’
at 100 knots the barometric altitude is recorded as reference
It the ATT roll mode if a bank in excess of 30 degrees occur
wing roll back to 30 degrees
It the ATT roll mode if a bank less than 5 degrees occur
HDG HOLD will be engaged
If in the TOGA pitch mode the initial pitch is
8 degrees
In the TOGA the speed target is
V2 + 10 knots
If current speed is above that for more that 5 sec, this is set. (max v2+25)
TOGA will set the _____ feet per minute
2000
TOGA pitch initial pitch is 8 degrees
Boeing 747-400 engines
General electric CF6-80C2-B1F with 57900 lb thurst
PW4056 with 56750 lbs thrust
The engine accessory gearbox is driven by
Enginge N2
Each engine is supplied with _____ igniters
Two
- Controlled by EEC
- One starter is active on ground
- Two starters in the air
Primary engine indications
- EPR
- N1
- EGT
Secondary engine indications popup automatically when FUEL CONTROL SWITCH is moved to CUT OFF
Each engine is supplied with _____ EECs
One
EEC can set two idle positions
Approach idle: Nacelle anti-ice on; flaps in landing position
Minimum idle: engaged 5 sec after landing
Each engine is supplied with _____ pneumatic starter(s)
One
Engine overspeed protections is done by the ______
EEC
The EEC commands the Fuel Metering Valve to prevent rotor overspeed.
An engine exceedance has be recorded it can be removed by pressing ______ on the DPS
CANC
The Exceedance can be recalled by pressing RCL
The EGT has a starter limit line appears/disappears when
- Fuel control switch in CUT OFF
- N2 is stable
EGT color change, in relation to exceedence, is inhibited:
- 5 min after TO/GA
- 10 min after engine failure
EGT color change, in relation to exceedence, is inhibited when
- 5 min after TO/GA
- 10 min after engine failure
The N2 ‘Fuel on indicator’ disappears when
N2 is stable
used for manual start only
Low oil quantity is indicated as
a magenta number
The magenta inflight start envelope appears when:
- Fuel control switch is in CUT OFF
- Related fire switch is IN
Displays speed and level for successful engine restart
X-BLD indicates additional airflow is required to engine start.
if ‘vvvvvvvvvvvvvvv’ is displayed on the primary EICAS means what
An engine exceedance has occurred.
note: another secondary engine display replaces this.
The fuel flow is measured ________ of the engine fuel valve
Downstream
The fuel flow is shown on secondary engine displays and supplied to the FMS for fuel predictions.
One of the functions of the fuel/oil exchange is to
Reduce the risk of fuel icing
If a fuel filter has been clogged up it can be bypassed
TRUE
If impending fuel filter block ENG1 ,2 ,3 ,4 FUEL FLT on EICAS
FUEL CONTROL SWITCH in the RUN position opens
- Opens spar fuel valve
- Opens engine fuel valve
- EEC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve, and igniter operation
If autostart is off
- Opens spar fuel valve
- Opens engine fuel valve
- energized igniters
Engine oil pressure is measured _________ of the engine
UPSTREAM
Engine oil temperature is measured _________ of the engine
DOWNSTREAM
Engine starter motor is ________ controlled and _______ powered
Electrically; pneumatically
Receives air from either ground cart, APU or cross bleed.
EEC has two modes, normal and alternate mode. The normal mode uses ______ as thrust reference
EPR
- Keeps thrust constant despite OAT, nacelle anti ice and airplane bleed operation
EEC has two modes, normal and alternate mode. The alternate mode uses ______ as thrust reference
N1
In the alternate mode expect:
- no A/T
- No thrust protection of full thrust.
The EEC is able to set two IDLE positions. Minimum and approach. The approach idle is engaged when
- Nacelle anti ice is on
- flaps in the landing conditions
If system has failed; EICAS
Engine overspeed protection is assured by EEC by reducing the __________ to prevent overspeed
Fuel metering valve
In case of a failed autostart attempt, how many times will the system re-attempt autostart?
Three times on ground
continously in flight
If no EGT rise is detected:
- Autostart will purge fuel for new attempt
- EEC CUT OFF fuel and ignition
- Engine motors for 30 sec
- EEC Reapplies fuel and ignition with TWO igniters
note: after a HUNG start engine will NOT motor
If magenta X-BLD is shown on EICAS, N2 is insufficient for engine start. What can be done?
- Increase thrust to increase bleed pressure for crossbleed start
- Pull related starter switch
Starter switch arms/opens: (If in AUTO/MAN)
- Engine air start bleed
- Engine bleed valve
EGT start limit for manual start
25 seconds
reference?
With autostart OFF, what happens when the Engine start switch is pulled
- Engine start air valve is OPENED
- Engine bleed air valve is opened
For autostart:
Engine start air valve only arms and EEC sequences the opening when fuel control switch is moved out of CUT OFF
Fuel-on indicator is show when the autostart is off and fuel control switch is in CUT OFF
With autostart ON, what happens when the Engine start switch is pulled
- Engine start air valve is ARMED
- Engine bleed air valve is opened
For autostart OFF:
Engine start air valve open and starts N2 rotation. Manual inlet of fuel happens with Fuel Control Switch moved out of CUT OFF.
When the fuel control switch is moved in to RUN, the following occurs (autostart on)
- Spar valve opens
- Engine fuel valve
- EEC sequences start valve & igniters
System monitors all parameters excepts N1 & oil pressure
When the fuel control switch is moved in to RUN, the following occurs (autostart off)
- Spar valve opens
- Engine fuel valve
- Igniters are energized
Fuel-on indicator is show when the autostart is off and fuel control switch is in CUT OFF
The engine start switch is held in place by a solenoid and springs into off when
- pushed
- N2 reaches 50%
Each engine has an EEC, and the EEC has two modes. Which?
- Normal mode
- Alternate mode
The normal mode uses EPR, and keeps thrust constant despite OAT, use of nacelle anti ice, pressurization etc.
The alternate mode uses N1. It disconnects A/T and offers no thrust protection.
The EEC has two modes. The Alternate EEC mode…
- uses N1 as reference
- disconnects A/T
- provides no thrust protection
If Alternate mode is selected:
Set thrust IDLE upon selection to ensure no parameters are busted
EICAS: ENG1, 2, 3, 4 EEC MODE
The EEC has two modes. The Normal EEC mode…
- Uses EPR as reference
- Keeps thrust stable
- EEC commands fuel metering valve for stable thrust
The EEC provides two IDLE positions to reduce spool time. Which?
Minimum IDLE
- engaged 5 sec after touch down
Approach IDLE
- Nacelle anti ice ON
- Flaps in landing position
Engine overspeed protection is provided by the EEC by ….
limiting the fuel metering valve to prevent rotor overspeed
Continous ignition will automatically be on when
- Flaps are out of UP
- Nacelle anti ice is ON
- Engine flameout
Fuel Control Switch moved to CUTOFF the following happens
- Closes fuel valves
- Removes igniter power
- Commands demand pump to operate (when in auto)
- Unlock
Continous ignition shall be selected on when
- encountering moderate rain
- Hail og sleet
- Moderate to severe turbulence
- Flight through volcanic ash
- Entering icing conditions
There are two igniters, powered by the A/C and in case of failure
The standby A/C system in case of main A/C loss . (If switch is in ON)
The engine has a individual starter motor attached. How is it operated and attached?
- Electrically controlled
- Pneumatically operated
- Mechanically connected to the High pressure shaft (N2)
When pulling the engine starter switch the associated light comes on when
The Engine air start valve is opened!
The primary function of fuel/oil heat exchanger is to
Reduce the risk of fuel icing
Each engine has two stages of fuel pumps. The add pressure to the fuel system when?
- At N2 rotation
Engine fuel flow is measured where
The fuel flow is measured downstream of the engine
It is shown on secondary engine display and is supplied to the FMS for fuel predictions
With regards to EGT sensing and indication. The EGT shows a start limit line. When is this shown
The EGT start line is shown when
- Fuel Control Switch is out of CUT OFF
Disappears when
- N2 is stable
With regards to EGT sensing and indication. EGT color change is inhibited for TO/GA and engine failure.
For how many minutes
5 min after TO/GA
10 min after engine failure
When low oil quantity is detected, it is shown as what color
Magenta
The engine has primary and secondary engine indications. Are the secondary indications always shown and what can be said about them?
- Never shown in flight
- Shown when Fuel Control Switch is moved to cutoff
N1 is per definiton the
In an axial flow jet engine, N1 refers to the rotational speed of the low speed spool which consists of the fan, the low pressure compressor and the low pressure turbine
N2 is per definition the
In a two spool axial flow jet engine, N2 refers to the rotational speed of the high speed spool which consists of the high pressure compressor and the high pressure turbine
The barometric altitude is recorded at _____ knots for reference to the LNAV, VNAV etc
100 knots
APU can supply power from its generators in flight?
FALSE
APU can operate, if on, up to ______ feet
20.000
APU can supply electrical power to ALL systems on ground
TRUE
APU can supply all packs on ground
TRUE
except during engine start
APU can supply one pack up to 15.000
APU is provided with fuel from
Maintank 2 with A/C pump 2 AFT
In case of APU battery start, D/C pump operated på APU battery.
APU fire detection consist of
- Dual fire loop
- APU fire light
- Fire handle in RH gear well
- One extinguishing fire bottle
With regards to fire protection, it can be said that the APU battery provides
- Fire detection only
Note: Fire extinguishing is provided by the main battery
APU selector has three positions. (OFF, ON, START)
When the selector is in OFF
- APU bleed air valve closes
- Initiates normal shutdown
- Resets the auto shut down (keeps APU running for 60 seconds to cool down)
Note: Battery can only come off to minutes after APU shut down
APU selector has three positions. (OFF, ON, START)
When the selector is in ON
- APU fuel valve opens (main bat)
- APU inlet door opens (apu bat)
- Arms bleed isolation valve
- Main pump 2 aft activates/DC pump (apu/main bat)
APU selector has three positions. (OFF, ON, START)
When the selector is in START
- APU fuel valve opens (main bat)
- APU inlet door opens (apu bat)
- APU starter engages (apu bat)
- Engages the starter
- Ignites
- Accelerates RPM
With regards to Wing anti ice it can be said that
- Inhibited on ground
- Inhibited above 22.000
- ineffective when leading edge flaps are extended
indicates WAI on N1 column when on
With regards to Nacelle anti ice it can be said that
- Continous ignition is automatically on
- Supplied from engine bleed before the bleed valve
- Supplied from HP turbine at low thrust settings (EEC maintained)
All probes are electrically heated
True
TAT probe heat is inhibited on ground
icing conditions exists when
- On ground OAT is below 10° C
- In flight TAT is below 10° C
- Less than 1 statue mile visibility (1609 m)
- Visible moisture
The brake system is devided into two systems. Normal and Alternate. What can be said about the NORMAL system
- Powered by hydraulic system 4
- Full anti skid on each wheel
- Autobrake available
- backed up by alternate system in case of hydraulic failure
The brake system is devided into two systems. Normal and Alternate. What can be said about the ALTERNATE system
- Powered by hydraulic system 1 & 2
- Anti on each wheel pair.
- Autobrake system disabled
Anti skid is available in normal and alternate brake mode. (When brake system is fed from different hydraulic sytems)
TRUE
When in alternate mode antiskid brake wheel pairs instead of individual wheels
Autobrake system is available in normal and alternate brake mode. (When brake system is fed from different hydraulic sytems)
FALSE
When in alternate mode autobrake system is disabled!
The autobrake system is a decelleration rate govorned by what
Left IRU
When in alternate brake mode, hydraulic 1&2, autobrake system is disabled!
Antiskid activates at _____ kts on T/O
8
If wheel over-torque is sensed, ________ releases sensed wheel
Anti skid
In alternate mode, the associated wheel PAIR is released by anti skid
Locked wheel protection is ensure by
Wheel speed comparison
Parking brake is connected to which hydraulic system
hydraulic system 4 through its own accumulator
The landing gear lever is supplied with its own landing gear level lock which prevents OFF to UP position. This safety feature is automatically released when?
Main gear is tilted and centered
Note: Manual override is possible with pushbutton
When the landing gear lever is selected in the UP position, three things happen, what?
- Main gear brakes
- Gear is held in the UP position by uplocks
- UP indication is show for 10 sec
note: Main gear brake pressure is relieved when gear is selected OFF once held by uplocks
The landing gear can be manually extended expect the following
- Loss of nose wheel steering
- All gear doors stay down
The nose gear steering range?
0-70°
note: With rudder a range of 0-7° is maximum
note: Body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°
The body gear steering range?
- 13°
- activates at 15 knots
- centeres at 20 knots
note: body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°
The body gear activates at?
- activates at 15 knots
- centeres at 20 knots
note: body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°
The body gear centres at?
- centeres at 20 knots
- activates at 15 knots
note: body gear steering operates when nose gear exceeds 20°
The landing gear needs to know if the aircraft is on the ground or flight mode. This is done by the?
Main gear tilt
The stall warning is armed when upon?
Nose gear gear strut extension
note: after lift off and nose strut is extended the stall warning is armed
The autobrake system provides a deceleration rate, and is operation on both normal and alternate brake mode.
FALSE
However Antiskid is still available in alternate brake mode
Autobrake RTO can only be selected on ground
TRUE
RTO is active above 85 knots. Below this speed no automatic RTO function is available
Note: The autobrake snaps the switch to OFF when airborne
Autobrake RTO system is available above which speed
85 knots
Moving ANY thrust lever to idle will command max brake
Note: The autobrake system is referenced by the LEFT IRU
The autobrake settings 1, 2, 3, 4 MAX AUTO can be selected any time
FALSE
The autobrake settings 1, 2, 3, 4 MAX AUTO is only selectable in flight.
Note: switch snaps to disarm after landing
The autobrake system applies pressure when
- on ground
- wheel spinup is sensed
- all thrust levers are closed
Braking is automatically reduced when
- extension of spoilers
- thrust reversion
The autobrake system automatically disarms when
- Pedal braking is applied
- Any thrust lever is advanced
- Speed brake moved to DN
- switch set from DISARM to OFF
in case of following faults: - Hydraulic system 4 fault
- autobrak fault
- antiskid fault
Note: Select to OFF to deenergize the system
The L/R UTILITY power switch is located on the overhead panel has two switch positions. The ON position does the following
- Supplies the ELCU’s and the Galley ELCU for automatic load shedding
Order of shedding: Galley first then Utility
(Electrical Load Control Units)
The L/R UTILITY power switch is located on the overhead panel has two switch positions. The OFF position does the following
- Removes power from ELCU (single)
- Removes all power from IFE system and turns on nights lighting (both)
(In Flight Entertainment)
The STANDBY POWER selector is located on the overhead panel has three switch positions. The OFF position does the following
- Disables standby power
The STANDBY POWER selector is located on the overhead panel has three switch positions. The AUTO position does the following
- Provides power to the standby bus in case of total A/C loss
Note: This WILL deplete the battery if left in AUTO, and e.g EXT1/2 is removed. In this case the TRU will power the standbybus and deplete the main battery.
The STANDBY POWER selector is located on the overhead panel has three switch positions. The BAT position does the following
- Powers main battery bus from main battery.
- Power APU battery bus from APU battery
- Disables battery charge
Each battery supplies electricity for ______ minutes
30 min
The 747-400 has _____ IDGs installed
4 generators pr engine
additionally the APU has to generators for ground use only.
Integrated Drive Generator
One external power source can supply all busses
TRUE
The two syncrounous busses will be connected by the SSB
(Split System Breaker)
The Integrated Drive Generator IDG is cooled by
- Fan air
- Engine fuel flow
The Integrated Drive Generator has an automatic disconnection in case of ….
- Excessive high drive oil temperature only
Integrated Drive Generator disconnect is only possible under two conditions
- Thrust above idle
- Engine running
Note this is an irreverseable action
When an engine is started and an Integrated Drive Generator comes online, the previous A/C power source is disconnected ..
automatically when voltage and frequency are acceptable
If external A/C power is connected to a side where and IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) is already supplying, the associated IDG is….
Disconnected automatically and power transfer is completed.
If A/C BUS power is unacceptable the _____-Tie Breaker opens, but the BUS is still supplied through its ______-Tie Breaker
Bus (BTB); Generator (GTB)
If IDG power is unacceptable the _____-Tie Breaker opens, but the BUS is still supplied through its ______-Tie Breaker
Generator (GTB), Bus (BTB)
The A/C busses supply the following
- TRU’s
- Navigation Radios
- Flight deck lighting
- Pitot and window heat
The ground service bus is powered by
A/C BUS 1
The ground service bus does the following:
- APU and MAIN bat charge
- Run Fuel pumps for APU start
- Supplies upper deck emergency doors
The First officer transfer busses are supplied by
A/C BUS 2
Back up: A/C BUS 1
The transfer busses supply power to critical flight related equipment
Note: If FO transfer bus is lost expect loss of A/T.
The Captain transfer busses are supplied by
A/C BUS 3
Back up: A/C BUS 1
The transfer busses supply power to critical flight related equipment
The ground handling bus is powered when __________ is available
EXT1 or APU1 is available
Note: These just have to be available
Ground handling bus supplies power to facilitate, fueling, auxiliary hydraulic pumps.
Ground handling bus supplies power to …
- lower cargo handing eqipment
- fueling
- auxiliary hydraulic pumps
A/C and D/C busses 1, 2, 3 will be isolated during …
Automatic ILS approach
This function reverts to normal when
- all autopilot disengage
- TO/GA above 100’
- APP disarmed
- system unable to maintain LAND3/2
Note: Electrical synoptic page is unavailable
The MAIN standby bus is powered by …
A/C BUS 3
The standby bus will be powered with the standby inverter if:
- Battery on
- Standby power selector in AUTO
- A/C BUS 3 NOT powered
can supply power for 30 min
The standby bus will be powered with the standby inverter for ____ minutes
30 minutes
IF
- Battery on
- Standby power selector in AUTO
- A/C BUS 3 NOT powered
The APU standby bus is powered by …
Captain transfer bus
In case of A/C BUS 1, 3 fail, the APU standby bus will be powered by APU standby inverter
can supply power for 30 min
The main deck cargo handling bus is available if
- EXT2 is available
- APU2 is available
Note: not selected, only available
The Boeing 747 hydraulic system has ____ independant systems which has a proximate pressure of _____ psi
4; 3000
Each hydraulic reservoirs is protection agains cavitation by …
Bleed air
Demand pump 1 & 4 are ______ driven
air
These pumps are driven by air pressure from the aircraft pneumatic system
Demand pump 2 & 3 are electrically driven
Demand pump 2 & 3 are ______ driven
electrically driven
Demand pump 1 & 4 are air driven
Hydraulic fluid reservoir quantity is present as …
Service level in percentage
note: a graphical indication is also presented on the HYD page
The hydraulic demand pump 4 switch has three positions. OFF, AUTO, AUX. With the AUTO position, the demand pump is
- ON if system pressure is low
- ON in case of high demand on hydraulic system
- ON if fuel control switch is in CUTOFF
- ON if flaps not in UP position (system 1&4)
The hydraulic demand pump 4 switch has three positions. OFF, AUTO, AUX. With the AUX position, the demand pump is
- off and a auxiliary hydraulic pump is on for ground handling
note: auxiliary system depressurizes when engine driven pump is on
With regards to the hydraulic system, if a fire switch is pulled, the following happens
- Hydraulic fluid shut off valve closes
- Demand pump operates
note: Fault light on EDP pump comes on due to no pressure across this pump.
The hydraulic demand pump 4 switch has three positions. OFF, AUTO, AUX. With the OFF position, the demand pump is
- OFF
note: Demand pump PRESS fault light illuminates due to no pressure across this pump
With regards to the hydraulic system, the EDP is running under the following conditions …
- Engine running
- Fire switch not pulled
- Pb in
With regards to wind shear avoidance, the 747-400 has two modes. Which?
- Reactive
- Predictve
With regards to wind shear avoidance, the REACTIVE system issues the following aural alert …
“WIND SHEAR, WIND SHEAR”
- Offers Flight Director guidance
- Initiates thrust response (if A/T is available)
With regards to wind shear avoidance, the PREDICTIVE system issues the following aural alert …
“WIND SHEAR AHEAD”
- No automatic actions
The REACTIVE wind shear avoidance alerts are enabled below ________ RA
1500’
The PREDICTIVE windshear avoidance sweeps begin _____ AGL
2300’
Predictive Wind shear alerts are enabled between ______ AGL and _______ AGL
1200, 50
The predictive wind shear system scans out to ___ NM
5 NM
The predictive wind shear system issues alerts to _____ NM
3 NM
The predictive wind shear system issues warnings to _____ NM
1.5 NM
Below 370 RA, 0.5-1.5 NM only alerts are issued
The PWS is armed when …
Thrust lever 2 & 3 are in the T/O range
With regards to the TCAS system, no resolution advisories are issued below ______ RA
1000’ RA
note: below this height all RAs are converted to TAs and TA ONLY is displayed
With regards to the TCAS system, no TA’s are issued below ______ RA
500’ RA
With regards to the TCAS system, a corrective advisory expects …
A vertical maneuver
With regards to the TCAS system, a preventive advisory expects …
Vertical speed to be held
With regards to the TCAS system, a TA has a estimated _____ seconds to impact
20 - 30 seconds
With regards to the TCAS system, a RA has a estimated _____ seconds to impact
25 - 40 seconds
With regards to the TCAS system, the system accounts for aircraft performance
TRUE
note: It takes aircraft service ceiling into account
With regards to the fuel system, at 0.9T the following happens
FUEL QTY LOW in any maintank below 900 kg
With regards to the fuel system, 1,3 the following happens
Center wing tank OVRD JET pump lights come on and must be switched off
With regards to the fuel system, at and above 7,7T the following happens
Center wing tanks must be on for take off
With regards to the fuel system, below 9T the following happens during jettison
When main tank 2 & 3 reaches 9000 during fuel jettison, tank 1 & 4 fuel begins to drain into 2 & 3
With regards to the fuel system, at 18T the following happens
The fuel from the reserve tank is gravity transferred in to tank 2 & 3
With regards to the fuel system, at 27T the following happens
Center Wing Tank scavenge pumps start to drain fuel in to Main tank 2 & 3
With regards to the fuel system, 36T the following happens
The transfer jet pump in the horizontal stabilizers start to transfer fuel to center wing tank
With regards to the fuel system, 54T the following happens
FUEL TANK/ENG should be imminent
With regards to the fuel system, 108T
Full wings
With regards to the fuel system, 125T the following happens
Fuelling in horizontal stabilizer commences
Fuel temp is sensed in main tank
1
Fuel quantity is showed in amber when fuel drops below _____ degrees
-37
All valves are commanded open/closed by _______
FSMC
Fuel system management cards
A fuel quantity is measure in each tank, by 72 diffrent sensor. If one sensor is faulty …..
Fuel quantity is not displayed for that tank
Current fuel flow can be found on what CDU page
Progress page 2
Max fuel capacity for the 747-400 is
173072 kg
Both of the center wing tank override jett pumps override all other pumps
TRUE
Main tank override jet pumps are inhibited/armed
One A/C boost pump can supply ___ engine(s) during take off and ___ engine(s) cruise
one; two
One override jet pump can supply ___ engine(s) during take off and ___ engine(s) during cruise
two; two
The FSMC logic when flaps are extended to T/O on ground, ____ crossfeed 2 & 3 valve, letting OVRD JET pumps 2&3 supply engine __&__
close; 1 & 4
The FSMC logic when are flaps are out of 10 % 20, ____ crossfeed valve 2 & 3
opens
When the is no fuel in center wing tank, which pumps are activated
Override jet pump 2 & 3
Max fuel imballance between main tank1-4 …
1360 kg
Max fuel imballance between main tank 2-3 …
2720 kg
The lowest amount of fuel that can be drained from any main tank is
3200 kg
Ground spoiler activates _____ out of 12 spoilers
12
roll spoiler activates 10 out of 12 spoilers
Roll spoiler activates _____ out of 12 spoilers
10
Ground spoiler activates 12 out of 12 spoilers
Speed brake activates _____ out of 12 spoilers
8
Roll activates 10 out of 12 spoilers
Leading edge flaps are _______ operated
Pneumatically
electrically backed up
Trailing edge flaps are ________ operated
Hydraulically operated
electrically backed up
Primary flap control operates through the _______
Flight Control Unit
Alternate flap control operates through _______
No FCU and no asymetrical protection
Flap load relief is only ensure for flap _____ & _____
25 & 30
With regards to flight controls, the secondary flap control system is ___________ activated
automatically
With regards to flight controls, when flaps 1 is selected in the alternate mode all leading edge flaps extends
TRUE
no asymetrical protection is provided
With regards to flight controls, when flaps 1 is selected in the secondary mode all leading edge flaps extends
FALSE
When flaps are extended to flap 1, only inboard in midspan are extended
when flaps are extended to 5 all leading edge flaps are extended
