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2019 CQ > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is bleed air used for?

A

ECS (environmental control system)
Engine Start
Engine/Wing Anti-ice
Water pressurization

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2
Q

Can the engine bleeds and APU bleed be used at the same time?

A

No

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3
Q

When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation Valve open

A

When both packs are commanded OFF or failed OFF and the altitude is less than 25,000’.

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4
Q

When is the pressurization Dump function used?

A

Emergency Evacuation
Smoke Evacuation
Fast Cabin Depressurization

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5
Q

What is the cabin pressure controller abort mode?

A

On departure, if the aircraft hasn’t reached:
5,000 AGL
10,000 MSL
CRZ Activated

Then: Cabin altitude is schedule back to takeoff field elevation.

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6
Q

What does the CPCS system do when the DUMP button is pushed?

A

Turns off the packs and recirculation fans.
Commnads the outflow valve to raise the cabin at 2000’ FPM up to 12,400’
At 12,400’ the outflow valve is closed.

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7
Q

What does pressing the BANK button on the guidance panel do?

A

Enables and disables bank angle limit of 17 degrees used by the heading mode.

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8
Q

When is 1/2 bank automatically enabled?

A

FL250

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9
Q

What does pressing the APP button on guidance panel do?

A

Activates and deactivates the mode for intercepting on an ILS. FMA lateral mode displays LOC, FMA vertical mode displays GS.

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10
Q

What does FPA stand for?

A

Flight path angle

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11
Q

What does FPA do?

A

Creates a manually selected vertical angle.

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12
Q

How can you determine FPA selection?

A

Flight path reference line displayed on profile view on MFD.

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13
Q

Under what conditions will the Autopilot Disengage?

A
  • AP button on the guidance pane or yoke is pushed.
  • Either manual pitch trim switch is actuated
  • Either stick shaker is actuated
  • windshear guidance is activated
  • Direct mode
  • Internal Failure
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14
Q

When is the Yaw Damper automatically engaged?

A

After power up of either Hydraulic system 1 or 3.

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15
Q

What do the different flight mode annexation colors signify?

A

Magenta= FMS commanded active/engaged mode
Green= Non-FMS commanded active/engaged mode
White=Armed mode
Amber= An alert condition
Red= And abnormal condition

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16
Q

What lateral mode is non-selectable by the pilot?

A

TRACK-track hold

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17
Q

When does the automatic transition from ROLL to TRACK occur on takeoff?

A

When IAS is greater than 100kts and bank angle less thank 3* for more than 10 seconds.

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18
Q

When is the windshear system active?

A

Below 1500’ AGL

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19
Q

How is a windshear Caution differ from a windshear Warning?

A
  • Caution is associated with increasing headwinds and updrafts. The Aural ales is “caution windshear”
  • Warning is associated with decreasing headwind (or increasing tailwind) and severe downdrafts. The Aural alert is “windshear, windshear, windshear”
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20
Q

How is the Windshear Guidance mode activated?

A
  • Windshear warning or caution detected and TOGA switch is pressed.
  • Windshear warning and thrust lever is set to To/GA position,.
  • Automatically when windshear warning condition and FD mode is TO or GA.
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21
Q

What does LIM Annunciation on the FMA mean?

A

Vertical speed or Target speed are incompatible with thrust rating available.

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22
Q

Can you override Auto Throttles?

A

Yes

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23
Q

What does the APU emergency stop button do?

A

Closes the APU shutoff valve, shutting off the APU with no cool down period.

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24
Q

What happens when the APU switch is selected to OFF?

A

Pneumatics are immediately removed and after a 1 minute cool down period the electrical power is removed and the APU is shutdown.

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25
Q

Can you abort an APU shutdown during the cool down period?

A

Yes, by reselecting “on”

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26
Q

What is the normal fuel source for the APU?

A

Right wing tank

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27
Q

Can the APU Draw fuel from the left wing tank?

A

yes, through the crossfeed valve

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28
Q

What is the minimum battery temperature for starting the APU?

A

-20c

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29
Q

If the battery temperature is less thank -20c, how can the APU be started?

A

DC GPU

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30
Q

What is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply electrical power?

A

33,000

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31
Q

What is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply bleed air for engine starting?

A

21,000

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32
Q

What is the maximum altitude that the APU can provide bleed air for the air condition and pressurization?

A

15,000

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33
Q

What is the maximum altitude for the APU start?

A

30,000

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34
Q

What condition will cause the APU auto-shutdown in flight?

A

overspeed, underspeed, fadec critical fault.

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35
Q

What conditions will cause the APU to auto-shutdown on the ground?

A

overspeed, underspeed, FADEC critical fault, APU fire, APU EGT Over temp, APY high oil pressure, sensor fail.

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36
Q

What will happen with tan APU fire indication in flight?

A

Aural warning, master warning, red stripped bar on APY emergency stop illuminates, APY FIRE EICAS message.

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37
Q

What will happen with an APU fire indication on the ground?

A

Aural warning, Master warenining, Red stripped bar on APU emergency stop Illuminates, APU Fire EICAS message, APY will auto-shutdown 10 seconds after fire condition.

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38
Q

Is the APU fire extinguisher automatic or manual?

A

Manual

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39
Q

When will the APU generator come online?

A

95% + 3 seconds

40
Q

What fire detection systems are checked when the fire detection test button is pressed?

A

Engines, APU and cargo compartment fire protection systems.

41
Q

What does putting the engine fire extinguisher handle do?

A

closes the associated engine bleed air, fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves. (crossbleed and wing anti ice)

42
Q

How many engine fire bottles are installed?

A

2 (shared)

43
Q

Can both engine fire bottles be discharged into one engine?

A

yes

44
Q

when are the engine fire bottles armed?

A

Whoever the batteries are on (HOT BATT busses 1&2 powered)

45
Q

How does the APU FADEC resold to an APU fire on the ground?

A

Automatically shuts down the APU 10 seconds after fire is detected and arms the fire extinguisher bottle.

46
Q

How is the APU fire extinguisher bottle discharged on the ground?

A

By manually pressing the APU FIRE EXTINGUISHING push button.

47
Q

How many APU extinguisher bottles are installed?

A

1

48
Q

Will the APU shutdown if the Fire Detection Test button is pressed?

A

only if held for more than 10 seconds

49
Q

If a cargo compartment smoke warning message is displayed on the ground, how many times must the cargo fire extinguishing button be pressed?

A

twice. Once for the high rate bottle, once for the low rate bottle.

50
Q

Can fires in each of the cargo compartments be extinguished simultaneously?

A

no

51
Q

How long will the low-rate bottle provide fire suppression?>

A

75 minutes

52
Q

What happens when smoke is detected in a LAV?

A

Master warning
LAV SMOKE message
Alarm Sounds in the LAV
Flashing amber light on the FA lights panel

53
Q

How does the lavatory fire extinguishing system work?

A

Automatically discharges when the temperature limit in the trash container is exceeded.

54
Q

What are the function of the PCU’s?

A

Power control units are hydraulic actuators that control the respective flight control surfaces.

55
Q

Which flight controls are not fly-by wire?

A

Ailerons

56
Q

How long are manual trim commands limited to?

A

3 seconds

57
Q

How are the flaps powered?

A

AC power

58
Q

What does pushing the flight control mode button do?

A

places the associated flight system into direct mode

59
Q

When is the electrical PBIT performed?

A

Whenever AC power is applied

60
Q

How long does the Electrical PBIT take to complete?

A

3 minutes

61
Q

Can the Electrical PBIT be interrupted?

A

yes, by turning on a hydraulic pump

62
Q

How is the hydraulic PBIT initiated?

A

when all 3 hydraulic systems are pressurized

63
Q

How long does the hydraulic PBIT take to complete?

A

1 minute

64
Q

What does the Fly by wire backup battery do?

A

Powers the elevator and rudder actuators for 15 minutes in case of complete loss of power to the FBW system.

65
Q

When will the ground spoilers retract after landing?

A

Wheel speed below 45 knots for 5 seconds

66
Q

Are the ground spoilers/speed brakes available in direct mode?

A

no

67
Q

When will speed brakes automatically retract in flight?

A

Flaps 2 or greater
Airspeed below 180KIAS
TLA above 70 degrees

68
Q

What affect will a deployed RAT have on the slats and flaps?

A

Operate at half speed

Limited to flaps 2 to ensure adequate airspeed for the rat

69
Q

How are the flight controls powered during an electrical emergency while the RAT is being deployed?

A

Hydraulic 3 accumulator

70
Q

What does the takeoff configuration warning monitor?

A

Flaps
Parking brake
Pitch trim
Spoilers

71
Q

What does F-but indicate?

A

Ideal flap retraction speed for each flap setting

72
Q

When will a vertical track alert appear?

A

1 minute prior to starting a descent

73
Q

What normally powers the refueling system?

A

DC BUS 1&2

74
Q

What is the function of the collector tanks?

A

to keep the fuel pumps submerged, ensuring a constant flow of fuel to the engines.

75
Q

What does the DC fuel pump do?

A

Provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operation and engine start when AC power tot he AVC fuel pump is not available.

76
Q

Can fuel be transferred from one fuel tank to the other?

A

no, only from tank to engine.

77
Q

What is the maximum fuel embalance?

A

794lbs (fuel imbalance EICAS message 800lbs)

78
Q

What does an EICAS FUEL EQUAL- XFEED OPEN message mean?

A

fuel imbalance<100lbs with the cross feed valve open

79
Q

When the fuel quantity indicator is amber, approximately how many minutes of fuel is left?

A

60 minutes

80
Q

When the fuel quantities indicator is red, approximately how many minutes of fuel is left?

A

30 Minutes

81
Q

Are all the wind leading edges heated?

A

no. the section between the fuselage and engine are not heated. Nor is the tail.

82
Q

Can the APU provide bleed air for anti-icing

A

no

83
Q

can one engine provide bleed anti-ice for both wings?

A

yes, through the cross bleed valve.

84
Q

How long do the anti-ice valves remain open after leaving icing condition?

A

5 minutes

85
Q

when is the ice detector activation inhibited?

A

below 1700’ AGL or 2 minutes after liftoff.

86
Q

How can we get engine/wing anti-ice below 1700’ after takeoff?

A

it must be setup on the T/O DATASET MENU in the MCDU

87
Q

If only one AC power source is available are both windshields heated?

A

No (only the captains unless it is inop)

88
Q

What does the TIMER selection on the windshield do?

A

Activates associated wiper in 8 second intervals.

89
Q

What happens when you press the oxygen test/reset button with the mask stowed?

A

Tests the oxygen mask
Flow indicator start momentarily blinks
Oxygen flow is edible through the audio system

90
Q

How do you return to normal operation after oxygen mask use?

A

Ensure mask door is closed
Press the test/reset button
(This stops oxygen flow and returns communications from cockpit speakers to the headsets )

91
Q

What does the oxygen mask EMERG selection provide?

A

100% oxygen under positive pressure

92
Q

Were is Crew Oxygen pressure displayed?

A

system stats page on MFD

93
Q

What are the minimums crew oxygen values?

A

Green for Three
Blue for two
Amber-no dispatch
(values are automatically temp comensated)

94
Q

When do the passenger masks auto deploy?

A

Cabin altitude between 14,000 -14,750ft.

95
Q

How long do the passenger masks provide oxygen?

A

12 minutes

96
Q

What does the OVRD position of the MASK DEPLOY switch do?

A

Deploys the passenger oxygen masks regardless of cabin altitude.

97
Q

When is the yaw damper automatically engaged?

A

after power up of either hydraulic system 1 and 3.

2019 CQ (5 decks)

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