FOM & Normal Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

When reaching an aircraft directly from another crew, must an originating checklist be completed?

A

Yes

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2
Q

What must the captains pre-departure briefing to FAs cover?

A

Aircraft assignment, projected passenger loads, origination or through flight, forecast turbulence, related weather conditions, pertinent MEL items, flight plan esteemed time enroute, Andy addition items captain deems necessary.

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3
Q

When do the emergency systems and equipment on the flight deck have to visually checked?

A

When the aircraft as been left unattended by the flight crew for any period of time.

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4
Q

What is required to be checked during a review of the MTX log?

A
  1. Correct log is on board
  2. Verify number of pink pages in log meets requirement (five)
  3. General review of all pages to understand the recent mechanical history of the aircraft.
  4. Determine whether the daily system check has been competed per FSM section 3. Normal procedures.
  5. If there is an entry in the LOG ENTRY section, verify the following fields are completed in the CORRECTIVE ACTION section.
    -Corrective action text
    -SIGNATURE (corrective action)
    -EMP # or CERT # (non QX)
    -Date
  6. Verify all fields in the LOG ENTRY and CORRECTIVE ACTION sections are completed and boxes are marked.
    (PHASE OF FLIGHT and EVENT CATEGORY are not regulatory, QX DATA only.)
    -Confirm MEL/CDL items on dispatch release matches items and effective dates in the log.
  7. Comply with any MELs/CDLs operational restrictions or conditions.
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5
Q

If the aircraft starts to roll backwards, what should you do?

A

add power, don’t use brakes

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6
Q

When just a Terminating Checklist be accomplished?

A

A RON, crew is leaving the aircraft for more than 1 hour or next crew has not arrived. Or any other time deemed appropriate by the captain.

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7
Q

Is it OK to complete a rudder check with nose wheel steering off, but with the tug sill attached to the aircraft?

A

No

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8
Q

The aircraft must be configured for landing prior to what point?

A

1000 AFE

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9
Q

The aircraft must be stabilized at final approach airspeed prior to what point?

A

Crossing the FAF on approaches where the MAP is determined by time. 1000’ AFE on approaches with antiquated windshear. Otherwise, 500 AGL.

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10
Q

What is our definition of a stabilized approach?

A
  • Airplane in approach configuration for the applicable approach profile.
  • Instrument Approach with vertical guidance (ILS or RMS VNAV)
    • Course deviation of one dot or less.
    • Glidepath deviation up to one dot above or 1/2 below
  • Instrument approach without vertical guidance
    • Course deviation of one dot or less
    • MDA, -0 +50 feet
  • Visual Approach
    • no more than one dot deviation if electronic course or glidepath is available.
  • 1000 AFE and Below
  • Configured for landing as defined in AOM
  • Rate of descent necessary to maintain published glidepath.
  • Below 500 AFE
    • Bank angle 15* or less
    • The airplane on profile speed within -5/+10 knots of target speed.
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11
Q

When is takeoff alternate required?

A

Reported departure weather is below landing minimums for the airport. (FOM)

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12
Q

Are First officers with less than 100 hours in type in company aircraft prohibited from making takeoffs and landings at special airports?

A

yes

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13
Q

What other conditions restrict them from making the takeoff or landing?

A
Contaminated runway
Braking action less than "good"
Crosswind greater of 15 kts
Windshear reported at the airport
Visibility les than 4000 RVR or 3/4 mile
any other condition the captain deems appropriate.
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14
Q

What regular airports are designated as special?

A

MS0, PSP, SFO, SAN, SUN,RNO, MMH, MLT (FOM)

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15
Q

What alternate airports are deserted as special?

A

LMT, ONT, BUR, (FOM)

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16
Q

What does the term “lockdown” mean in association with the treat levels listed in the ops manual?

A

Closure of the flight deck door and suspension of all entry and exit through it.

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17
Q

If a liquid is found onboard the aircraft that is considered suspicion where is the threat level guidance found?

A

in the FOM

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18
Q

In a FRA is not specified, at what altitude AFE should flaps be retracted?

A

1000 AFE

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19
Q

Under what weather conditions are complex-special turn procedures mandatory in the case of an engine failure on takeoff?

A

both VMC and IMC

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20
Q

What should a captain do if a crew member is unable to perform his or her duties?

A

Contact duty officer (FOM)

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21
Q

What is the Horizon air “use of alcohol” policy?

A

10 hours before duty and not during the same duty day. look this one up to be sure… then edit as necessary!!!!!

22
Q

What is the maximum difference between the two primary altimeters crossing the FAF on approach?

A

100’

23
Q

What is required if the difference is more than 100’?

A

missed approach unless visual reference to the runway and the aircraft is in position to allow safe continuation to a landing.

24
Q

What is the suggested use of pilot controlled lighting?

A

suggested use is seven clicks to ensure all lights are turned on to maximum intensity.

25
Q

How many minutes of lighting is available from the last keying event?

A

15 min

26
Q

What is the runway verification procedure for takeoff?

A

Prior to crossing ANY runway hold short line the captain and first officer shall verbally verify:

  • The aircraft is cleared onto the runway
  • The runway is correct
  • the runway is clear of conflicts.
27
Q

Minimum clearance from objects while taxiing?

A

10 feet, 5 feet with wing walkers

28
Q

How does captain certify that special airport qualifications has been accomplished?

A

Captains signature on dispatch release indicates compliance.

29
Q

Ipad preflight requirements?

A

75% to begin duty day, 30% flight segment.

30
Q

How should the captain proceed when the FA advises of a con flight regarding a differently abled passenger?

A

the CRO shall be notified

31
Q

When flying into an uncontrolled airport, what position report should be made on CTAF?

A

10 miles out, entering downwind, base, final. Clearing the runway.

32
Q

What restrictions are placed on an FO with less than 100 hrs?

A

Captain shall make all takeoffs and landings when:

  • Special airports
  • water, snow, slush, other contaminates which affect aircraft performance are on the runway.
  • braking action is reported less than good.
  • windshear is reported in vicinity of the airport.
  • Viz is less than RVR 4000 or 3/4 sm.
  • Any other condition in which the captain determines it would be prudent to exercise his prerogative.
33
Q

What is the minimum runway width?

A

100’

34
Q

How much fuel reserve is reared if no alternate is listed on release?

A

55 min at normal cruising fuel consumption.

35
Q

When may standard ct be removed?

A

when the flight is planned at maximum zero fuel weight,.

36
Q

Will BO, AF, REm, CT always equal MT?

A

No, since they are rounded to the nearest 100 pounds.

37
Q

What if actual takeoff wt exceeds METW?

A

contact dispatch to run a new METW calculation based on the higher weights.

38
Q

“terrain clearance” provides what clearance from terrain?

A

clear terrain by 1000’

39
Q

“mountain drift down” provides what terrain clearance?

A

2000’

40
Q

When does a dispatch release expire?

A

Air turn back- requires rerelease

Intermediate airport- after 60 minutes on ground

41
Q

When is takeoff alternate required?

A

when reported departure weather is below landing mins.

42
Q

when is a destination alternate required?

A

1,2,3 rule for IFR alternated.

43
Q

At check in, when shall CA call scheduling to locate a missing crewmember?

A

5 min after check in. FO if CA not present.

44
Q

How do you know if a pilot has less thank 75 hours?

A

“J” qualification

45
Q

When must pilots be at the aircraft?

A

30 min prior to scheduled departure

46
Q

When must pilots be on the flightdeck?

A

20 min (40 min for star flight) prior to scheduled departure.

47
Q

Can you take “other airline pilot” to Mexico or Canada?

A

no

48
Q

What is the “block out” definition in regards to an on time departure?

A

aircraft movement including pushback

49
Q

What are two things that a captain is required to do following a takeoff abort?

A

Submit a PIR and contact dispatch.

50
Q

Must the Flight director be used on a n RNAN-1 SID?

A

Yes

51
Q

What is the max rate of descent from 2000’ AGL to 1000’ AGL

A

2000FPM

52
Q

What is the max bank angle below 500’ on approach?

A

15 degrees