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NATOPS > SYSTEMS > Flashcards

SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

How are the outboard tanks structured?

A

divided into 3 sections by baffles

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2
Q

What do the main tank surge boxes do? Where is it located?

A

prevents fuel boost pumps from becoming fuel starved during nose-down, wing-down, or negative-g attitudes by keeping the boost pumps submerged in fuel

Inboard aft corner of each main tank

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3
Q

How many transfer pumps are in the aux tanks?

A

1

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4
Q

How many transfer pumps are in the external tanks?

A

2

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel tank vent system?

A

vents all fuel tanks to the atmosphere to equalize pressure and prevent damage to the wing or tank

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6
Q

What kind of vent system do the inboard and aux tanks have?

A

wrap-around vent system

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7
Q

How are the outboard tanks vented?

A

vented by float-controlled vent valves

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8
Q

How are the external tanks vented?

A

vented through the space at the top of the baffles, separating the tank compartments, and through the fuel vent line

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9
Q

What do FLCVs do?

A

automatically stops fuel from flowing into the tank when its full

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10
Q

How many FLCVs are in each tank?

A

3 in 1 and 4

1 in all the others

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11
Q

If the FLCVs lose electrical power, what position do they fail in?

A

spring-loaded closed

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12
Q

What is the boost pump rated at?

A

15 to 24 psi

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13
Q

What is the transfer pump rated at?

A

28 to 40 psi

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14
Q

Do both transfer pumps in the external tank run at the same time?

A

No they alternate. They only run at the same time during fuel dumping

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15
Q

The compensators in the fuel tanks measure what to get a more accurate fuel level reading?

A

density of the fuel, not the quantity

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16
Q

What monitors and controls the basic aircraft fuel system?

A

the dual channel Fuel Management Controller (FMC)

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17
Q

What buttons in the cockpit control the FLCVs? The transfer pumps?

A

TO button

FROM button

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18
Q

What turns on the boost pumps?

A

selecting the ENGINE START switch to RUN

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19
Q

In case of power failure, the fuel valves fail to what position?

A

hold the last energized position

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20
Q

The dump valve switches control which valves?

A

dump mast shutoff valves

interconnect valves

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21
Q

If the AR pumps are being used for dumping, what do the interconnect valves do and why?

A

Remain close or close upon activation to prevent high pressure fuel from entering the cross-ship manifold

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22
Q

Where is fuel returned to from the SPR manifold?

A

Tank 3

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23
Q

Placing the SPR DRAIN switch to ON does what?

A

opens the drain valve, closes the SPR valve, and activates the drain pump to initiate the drain cycle.

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24
Q

How long does the fuel drain cycle run? How many cycles are required to completely drain the SPR manifold?

A

2.5 mins

2

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25
Q

What do the interconnect valves do?

A

Isolates the AR manifold and the cross-ship manifold during AR

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26
Q

Why do we not want to land with fuel in the externals?

A

to prevent pylon fatigue cracking

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27
Q

Fuel Weight

Tanks 1 and 4

A

8310

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28
Q

Fuel Weight

Tanks 2 and 3

A

7650

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29
Q

Fuel Weight

Aux Tanks

A

5810

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30
Q

Fuel Weight

External Tanks

A

8900

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31
Q

Fuel Weight

Fuselage Tanks

A

24390

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32
Q

What is the APU starting altitude envelope?

A

-1000 to 20,000 ft

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33
Q

What degree does the APU air intake door open on the ground? in flight?

A

35

15

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34
Q

What does the Auxiliary Start Relay on the APU do?

A

acts as a holding relay until the APU reaches 50%, then it is de-energized

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35
Q

Fuel for the APU comes from where and how does it get there?

A

Gravity fed from Tank 2

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36
Q

How much fuel must be in tank 2 IOT feed the APU without turning the boost pumps on?

A

2000 lbs

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37
Q

What does external power supply power to?

A

LH/RH AC bus, essential AC bus, and main AC bus which in turn powers the avionics buses and all four regulated TRs

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38
Q

What is the reset position for the APU generator?

A

OFF on the external/APU switch

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39
Q

When the External power/APU switch is placed to APU, what does it power?

A

connects the APU generator to the essential AC bus

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40
Q

What is powered if the APU is the only source of power?

A

essential and main AC buses

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41
Q

When does the start light on the APU go out?

A

until the APU compressor reaches 50 percent rpm

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42
Q

An ESS DC BUS OVERLOAD ACAWS message may appear during APU starts. No maintenance is required unless what?

A

unless a TR and/or other bus fail ACAWS message also appear

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43
Q

The APU has to warm up for how long without a bleed air load?

A

1 minute

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44
Q

What is the starter duty cycle?

A

1 minute ON, 4 minutes OFF

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45
Q

How long is the APU door operation?

A

9-18 seconds

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46
Q

How long from APU start light to on speed?

A

35 seconds

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47
Q

Normal APU rpm

A

98-105 percent

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48
Q

Max APU rpm

A

110 percent

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49
Q

Normal APU EGT

A

260-680 C

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50
Q

Max APU EGT and for how long?

A

710 C for 3 seconds maximum

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51
Q

Normal bleed air pressure

A

40-50 psi

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52
Q

Bleed air pressure check, 30 to 15 psi

A

Not less than 22 seconds

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53
Q

What occurs when the APU oil subsystem senses low oil pressure?

A

APU automatically shuts down

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54
Q

What type of prop is it?

Describe some features of the propeller

A

Dowty R391 six blade, coarse seeking, counter-weight, variable pitch

controllable pitch in the ground operating range, constant speed in the flight and reverse ranges, full feathering

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55
Q

What are the propeller counterweights for?

A

they act as a safety device to drive the propeller blades towards feather if there is a loss of hydraulic pressure

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56
Q

What is the purpose of the propeller hub assembly?

A

provide an attachment point for the blades and a means of attaching the propeller to the PGB and to transmit engine HP to the blades

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57
Q

What is the purpose of the propeller pitch actuator? where is it located? what is it controlled by?

A

used to control fine and coarse blade angles
on the front hub
PCU

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58
Q

What is fine pitch? What direction is it driving the propeller?

A

refers to oil transferred, thru the beta tube, to the AFT side of the prop piston
Towards reverse position

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59
Q

What is coarse pitch? What direction is it driving the propeller?

A

refers to oil transferred, thru the beta tube, to the FORWARD side of the propeller piston
Towards feather position

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60
Q

What does the servo valve in the PCU do?

A

primary control device that changes blade angle in response to FADEC signals and operates in all modes except for manual feathering.

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61
Q

What does the auxiliary feather pump do?

A

provides backup oil pressure for full feathering when the FADEC-controlled feathering system is inoperative, when the high-pressure pump oil pressure is insufficient, and for ground maintenance purposes.

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62
Q

What is the purpose of the Magnetic Pulse Unit?

A

detects the passing of each blade and the propeller rotates and also provides backup NP sensing should the primary and secondary sensors fail.

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63
Q

Describe the three positions of the PROPELLER CONTROL switch and what they each do.

A

FEATHER - activates the aux feather pump and feathers the prop

NORMAL - shuts off the pump

UNFEATHER - commands prop to unfeather and drives it to full reverse unless the switch is released

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64
Q

How is propeller blade angle controlled?

A

by the PCU controlling the flow of oil to the pitch actuator in response to the FADEC signals. The FADEC controls engine fuel flow by providing signals to the FPMU

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65
Q

Positioning a power lever below FLT IDLE while airborne can cause what?

A

extreme propeller overspeed with damage to components, loss of electrical generators, and high drag levels.

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66
Q

Aux feather pump operating limit

A

80 seconds

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67
Q

Exceeding the 80 second aux feather pump operation limit could cause what to occur?

A

may cause oil to enter the compressor rotor. This creates a rotating imbalance when the engine is run and will likely result in severe engine damage.

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68
Q

Static propeller feathering is limited to how many cycles? When is a cycle counted?

A

2

each time the aux feather pump is used to drive the prop from feather to reverse to feather

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69
Q

The prop counterweights will stabilize the blade angle at approx. how many degrees?

A

66

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70
Q

The prop will windmill on the counterweights at up to what percent NP?

A

40

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71
Q

At what percent does the propeller speed digital readout change to red?

A

106

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72
Q

At what percentage are the propellers maintained thru fuel flow changes when the power levers are between FLT IDLE and reverse range?

A

99

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73
Q

At what percentage are the propellers maintained thru fuel flow changes when the power levers are above FLT IDLE?

A

100

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74
Q

At what percentage are the propellers maintained thru fuel flow changes when the power levers are in the reverse range?

A

101

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75
Q

What systems use bleed air?

A 
engine starting
AC
cabin pressurization
leading edge ice protection
ABSLATS
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76
Q

Where does the cross ship manifold extend across?

A

the wing front beams btwn engines 1 and 4

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77
Q

A bleed air duct that extends along the right side of the fuselage delivers bleed air for what?

A

the cargo compartment refrigeration unit and floor heat

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78
Q

What do bleed air compensators do? Where are they installed?

A

allow for expansion and contraction of the ducts caused by heating and cooling.
in the longer sections of the bleed air ducts

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79
Q

If you close an isolation valve, are both refrigeration units lost?

A

No. the opposite pair of engines will drive both units.

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80
Q

Where are the isolation valves located?

A

on each wing just before the cross ship manifold enters the cargo compartment

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81
Q

If you close the divider valve, are both refrigeration units lost?

A

Allows at least one AC system to continue to operate.

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82
Q

Where is the divider valve located?

A

in the cross ship manifold between the two wing isolation valves.

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83
Q

What do the check valves in the bleed air system do?

A

Permit air flow in one direction only. Prevents air flow into an inoperative engine or the APU and loss of system pressure to the atmosphere

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84
Q

What do augmenter valves in the bleed air system do?

A

Regulate 14th-stage bleed air from the engine compressor

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85
Q

What does the BA/ECS do? What valves does it control?

A

regulates air temperature and pressure in the bleed air system
augmenter valves and nacelle SOVs

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86
Q

What type of material is used in the fabrication of the cross-ship manifold and why?

A

Inconel

low thermal expansion property

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87
Q

What do the FLCVs require to open? What are they controlled by?

A

electrical power

FMC

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88
Q

If the primary FMC fails followed by a failure of the secondary FMC, what is displayed?

A

the fuel tank quantity indicators on the flight station overhead FUEL MANAGEMENT panel will display dashes while the quantity indicators at the ACS FUEL MANAGEMENT panel will display the last valid values.

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89
Q

What type of tanks are the aux tanks?

A

Bladder type

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90
Q

Why are the external tanks compartmented with baffles?

A

to prevent surges between compartments that would affect CG

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91
Q

What does the main tank water removal system do?

A

provides continuous water removal from the tank low points during boost pump operation

maintains the fuel level around the boost pump when the aircraft is in a nose-down attitude with low fuel level in the tank

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92
Q

How much fuel can be dumped?

A

All usable except approx. 1520 lbs in each main tank

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93
Q

Dump rate with 4 transfer pumps

A

2000 lbs/min

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94
Q

Dump rate with 6 transfer pumps

A

2770 lbs/min

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95
Q

Dump rate with 8 transfer pumps

A

2950 lbs/min

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96
Q

Dump rate with 10 transfer pumps

A

3900 lbs/min

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97
Q

Dump rate with 2 AR pumps

A

5440 lbs/min

98
Q

How is dumping prevented on the ground?

A

WOW system

99
Q

How do you dump fuel if you’re using a fuselage tank?

A

Fuselage tank fuel is dumped by the AR pumps, fuel from the other tanks may not be dumped directly overboard but may be transferred simultaneously into the fuselage tank.

100
Q

In case of power failure, what do the crossfeed valves do?

A

hold last energized position

101
Q

The fuel pressure indicator is located where on the FUEL MANAGEMENT panel?

A

right side of the cross ship manifold

102
Q

How do you display fuel pressure from the left side of the cross ship manifold?

A

the cross ship valve OR both interconnect valves must be open

103
Q

What is the general purpose of the APU?

A

supplies air for ground operation of the AC systems and for engine starting

provides shaft power to drive a 40-kVA AC generator

104
Q

When is the APU fuel and ignition circuits energized?

A

when APU oil pressure rises above approx. 4 psi

105
Q

When does the APU automatically shut down?

A

APU speed exceeds 110%
oil pressure is low
tachometer fails

106
Q

How is the APU maintained at a constant speed of 100%?

A

the speed-sensing governor controls it by regulating fuel flow into the combustion chamber

107
Q

What supplies APU starting control power?

A

isolated DC bus

108
Q

What supplies power to the APU start motor?

A

the essential DC bus (if the essential DC bus is powered) and the utility battery

109
Q

What should you do if the APU does not light off during ground start in extreme cold weather?

A

preheat the APU with an external source of heat prior to second start attempt

110
Q

What does the Ground Beta Enable Valve do?

A

removes the hydraulic low pitch stop (13.0 +/-2 degrees) and isolates the OSG during ground beta operations to prevent it from reacting to overspeed transients.

111
Q

What does the feather valve do?

A

allows the auxiliary feather pump to override the PCU servo valve to fx the prop. This override function protects against system failures in which the primary system is incapable of feathering the prop.

112
Q

What happens if the high pressure oil pump loses pressure completely?

A

The counterweights will move the blade angles toward 66 degrees and will stabilize NP at less than 40 percent. Drag in this configuration is very low.

113
Q

What are the 3 primary sources of electrical power?

A

AC, DC, external power

114
Q

Which MCBs are on the pilot side circuit breaker panel? Copilots?

A

Essential DC bus MCBs

Main and avionics DC bus MCBs

115
Q

How many ECBUs are there? How many AC and DC ECBs are in each unit?

A

14

24 DC / 15 AC

116
Q

What is the AC power system comprised of? What is it powered by?

A

6 AC buses and 2 AC inverters

powered by an external power supply, engine generators, and/or APU generator

117
Q

What powers the main avionics AC inverter and what does the inverter power in return?

A

Avionics DC bus

Main avionics AC bus

118
Q

What powers the essential avionics AC inverter and what does the inverter power in return?

A

Isolated DC bus

essential avionics AC bus

119
Q

What does the external power supply?

A

all 12 AC and DC buses

120
Q

What are the engine generators rated at? How are they cooled?

A

115V
3 phase
oil-cooled

121
Q

What is the APU generator rated at? How is it cooled?

A

115V
3 phase
air-cooled

122
Q

What is the DC power system comprised of?

A

6 DC buses
4 transformer rectifiers
bus-tie relay
2 batteries

123
Q

What do the transformer rectifiers do?

A

convert AC power to DC power

124
Q

What does the bus-tie relay do?

A

separates the isolated DC and avionics DC buses from each other when the APU is not online

125
Q

What are the two batteries? What do they supply power to?

A

Utility battery - utility battery bus and isolated dc bus

Avionics battery - avionics battery bus and avionics dc bus

126
Q

What are the batteries rated at?

A

lead-acid

24 Vdc, 35 amp/hour

127
Q

Are the batteries interchangeable?

A

Yes, they are identical and interchangable

128
Q

What are the 6 AC buses?

A

LH, RH, essential, main, essential avionics, main avionics

129
Q

Which buses are powered by any of the engine-driven generators?

A

Both the essential ac bus and the main ac bus

130
Q

What buses are powered by the APU if the APU is the only source of power?

A

essential ac and main ac

131
Q

What bus is ALWAYS powered by the APU?

A

essential ac

132
Q

If one generator is failed, which generator picks up the load? If both are failed on the same wing?

A

generator on the same wing

symmetrical generator on opposite wing

133
Q

What are the inverters rated at?

A

115 Vac

134
Q

The inverters supply how much power?

A

26 Vac

135
Q

Can the APU and external power supply power at the same time?

A

No. Interlocks allow either or to supply power

136
Q

During ground operations, do not attempt to start the APU if the battery voltage is less than what? In-flight? What happens if you do, both on the ground and in-flight?

A

22 Vdc, may cause the battery to overheat

23 Vdc, a voltage transient may cause an unrecoverable loss of essential equipment including MC, displays, and other mission critical battery powered systems.

137
Q

If a differential fault has occurred, the generator cannot be reset until when?

A

DC power has been removed from the GCU

generator has stopped rotating

generator control circuit breaker is pulled and reset

138
Q

What does the Generator Control Unit do?

A

monitors the generator frequency and voltage and regulates the power output to the bus

139
Q

A GCU can fail without generating an ACAWS. When should you suspect a latent GCU failure?

A

when 115 Vac is indicated on all phases with the % LOAD indicating zero when the generator should be providing power to the electrical system

140
Q

What TRs does the essential ac bus power?

A

1 and 2

141
Q

What TRs does the main ac bus power?

A

3 and 4

142
Q

Which TRs power the essential DC bus?

A

1 and 3

143
Q

Which TRs power the main DC bus?

A

2 and 4

144
Q

What are the 6 DC buses?

A

essential, main, isolated, avionics, utility battery bus, avionics battery bus

145
Q

The TRs convert AC power into how much DC power?

A

28 Vdc

146
Q

When should you pull MCBs?

A

only during emergencies or maintenance

147
Q

What does the utility hydraulic system power?

A 
Wing flaps
Main landing gear
Nose landing gear
Normal brakes
Nosewheel steering
Aerial refueling reels
Half of the aileron, rudder, and elevator control boost
148
Q

What does the booster hydraulic system power?

A

Half of the flight control boost system

149
Q

What does the auxiliary hydraulic system power?

A

ramp and cargo door
emergency brakes
emergency nose landing gear extension
(AR system in case of utility failure)

150
Q

How is the auxiliary system connected to the utility system on the ground?

A

ground test valve

151
Q

Utility system reservoir

A

5.5 gallons

152
Q

Booster system reservoir

A

3.1 gallons

153
Q

Describe the utility/booster system reservoirs

A

non-pressurized

gravity-fed

154
Q

Suction boost pump pressures

A

0-20 gallons/min

70-90 psi

155
Q

What are the engine-driven hydraulic pumps rated at?

A

3000 psi

156
Q

The flow capacity of each engine-driven hydraulic pump depends on what?

A

engine RPM

157
Q

When do the pressure relief valves open in the hydraulic system?

A

3450 psi and reset at 3100 psi

they bypass 23 gallons/min when fully open

158
Q

Where is the hydraulic ground test valve located?

A

aft of the left main landing gear wheelwell

159
Q

What is the hydraulic ground test valve used for?

A

allows the aux hyd system to be tied to the utility hyd system

ground maintenance and operational checkout of the utility hydraulic system

160
Q

Why are the suction boost pumps turn on prior to starting engines?

A

To prevent cavitation

161
Q

What utility hydraulic system pressure triggers the ACAWS caution UTIL SYS PRESS HI?

A

3450 psi

162
Q

When the FIRE handle is pulled, which valves in the hydraulic systems are shut off?

A

the suction line shutoff valve

the pressure line shutoff valve

163
Q

Auxiliary hydraulic reservoir

A

5.3 gallons

164
Q

How is the auxiliary hydraulic pump driven?

A

electrically-driven

165
Q

Where can we read auxiliary hydraulic pressure at all times?

A

direct-reading pressure indicator

166
Q

What is the benefit of the ground test valve in the hydraulic system?

A

eliminates the need for engine operation normally required to supply utility hydraulic system pressure

167
Q

How are the flight control surfaces moved?

A

by hydraulic booster assemblies connected through a series of cables, pulleys, and torque tubes.

168
Q

What does the aileron diverter valve do?

A

provides improved handling qualities at speeds below 270 kts when the autopilot is not engaged

directs either low limit or high limit booster and utility hyd pressure to the aileron booster assembly

169
Q

What is the difference between the left and right aileron trim tabs?

A

left - moved by an electrical actuator

right - fixed in place and only adjustable while the a/c is on the ground

170
Q

What system controls the elevator auto trim system?

A

the flap system

171
Q

What physically moves the elevator trim tabs?

A

mechanical jackscrews (which in turn are connected to an electric motor via a flex drive cable)

172
Q

ADV system

What happens to pressure once airspeed increases beyond 270 kts?

A

reduced until airspeed is once again less than 265 kts

173
Q

What are the conditions that allow the MCs to activate the Aileron Diverter Valve?

A

lateral autopilot disengaged

airspeed less than 270

hyd system px is within limits

aileron system px transducers have not failed

prop speed of two cross-side engines is greater than 80 percent

174
Q

When you move the aileron trim tab to the left, what direction does the trim tab move?

A

moves the left hand trim tab DOWN which forces the left aileron up and lowers the left wing

175
Q

When you move the aileron trim tab to the right, what direction does the trim tab move?

A

moves the left hand trim tab UP which forces the left aileron down and lowers the right wing

176
Q

When you move the rudder trim tab to the left, what direction does the trim tab move?

A

to the right - this forces the rudder to the left

177
Q

When you move the elevator trim tab to NOSE DOWN, what direction does the trim tab move?

A

up - forcing the elevators down and pitching the nose down

178
Q

Describe the flaps

A

Fowler high-lift type (4 flaps total)

flap motion is a combination of an aft movement to increase wing area and a downward tilting movement to alter the airfoil section to increase lift and drag

179
Q

What mechanically raises and lowers the flaps?

A

8 jackscrews (2 in each flap)

180
Q

What holds the flaps in the selected position and prevents movements by aerodynamic loads?

A

a spring-loaded flap brake

181
Q

How does hydraulic pressure raise and lower the flaps?

A

Hydraulic pressure goes to the flap drive motor

Flap drive motor provides torque to the flap drive gearbox

182
Q

What component prevents movement of the flaps when an asymmetric flap condition is sensed?

A

emergency flap brake

183
Q

Which component drives the flap travel through both hydraulic and mechanical action?

A

flap drive gearbox

184
Q

When will the landing gear warning audio go off?

A

When flap lever is set to 70 percent or more with refueling pods NOT attached

When flap lever is set to 80 percent or more with refueling pods attached

and with landing gear not down and locked

185
Q

When will the defensive system pylon chaff dispensers be disabled?

A

When flaps are extended greater than 15 percent

186
Q

Describe how the flaps move.

A

Flap lever -> moves control cables -> sets switch plate which sends an electrical signal to wing flap selector valve -> directs hyd pressure to flap motor

flap motor drives flap drive gearbox which spins the torque tubes -> torque tubes spin the 90 degree gearboxes which turn the jackscrews

187
Q

What are the two basic reasons that we could have a flap failure?

A

electrically and hydraulically

188
Q

What may result from pressing the manual reset on the emergency flap brake valve while the aircraft is in flight?

A

asymmetrical condition

189
Q

What do the brake fuses do?

A

prevent excessive hydraulic fluid from escaping the brake system in the even of a brake line failure

190
Q

How much brake fluid can escape the system before the brake fuse closes?

A

approx. 10 cubic inches

191
Q

If emergency brakes are selected, what system is inoperative?

A

anti-skid system

192
Q

What type of wheel brakes are installed on the aircraft?

A

hydraulically operated multiple disk

193
Q

How is the anti-skid system activated?

A

anti-skid system provides touchdown protection, preventing brake application, until a wheel spin-up or WOW signal from either landing gear is sensed

194
Q

What prevents the MLG from moving in the event of a hydraulic pressure loss?

A

an uplock brake

195
Q

What serve as downlocks and prevent the MLG from retracting?

A

friction washers

196
Q

What is the purpose of the nose landing gear pin when its installed?

A

prevents the release of the internal downlock and accidental retraction of the NLG

197
Q

When the landing gear is NOT in the down and locked postion, when will the landing gear aural warning sound?

A

when power levers are within 5 degrees of FLT IDLE and the aircraft is below 1500 ft AGL (can be hushed)

when extending the flaps more than 70 percent without refueling pods or 80 percent with refueling pods (cannot be hushed)

198
Q

Normal pressurization can be maintained with one AC, provided what else is on?

A

cargo underfloor heat

199
Q

What does the outflow valve do in flight? on the ground?

A

in flight - exhausts air from the cabin at a controlled rate to maintain the desired level of pressurization

on ground - allows avionics cooling discharge air to escape overboard

200
Q

Where is the outflow valve located?

A

aft right hand corner of the flight station, behind the ACS.

201
Q

What does the safety valve do?

A

relieves excessive positive or negative pressure to prevent damage to the aircraft or injury to personnel

202
Q

What does the MANUAL VALVE CONTROL ROCKER SWITCH do?

A

controls the electric actuator of the outflow valve. Functional only when the pressurization mode select switch is in MAN

203
Q

AUTO RATE SELECTOR

What does NORM do?
MIN?
MAX?

A

NORM - provides a nominal climb rate of 500 fpm and a nominal descent rate of 300 fpm

MIN - zero fpm rate

MAX - 3000 fpm rate

204
Q

What does NO PRESS do?

A

opens the outflow and safety valves and depressurizes the cabin at the rate set by the AUTO RATE selector

205
Q

What does AUX VENT do?

A

opens the AUX VENT valves and closes the AC flow control valves and floor heat shutoff valves

206
Q

What does the LDG/CONST ALT selector do?

A

sets the altitude of the selected landing field or the desired altitude when in the CONST ALT mode

207
Q

What does the DIF PRESS indicator display?

A

the cabin-to-atmosphere differential pressure in inches of mercury

208
Q

What does the EMER DEPRESSURE handle release?

A

releases the emergency depressurization door in the center overhead escape hatch

209
Q

Which cabin pressurization system switch controls the electric actuator of the outflow valve when the pressurization mode switch is in the MAN position?

A

MANUAL VALVE CONTROL switch

210
Q

Basically, how is pressurization achieved?

A

with air supplied from the bleed air system and ducted through the air conditioning system

211
Q

What event would have to occur to force the safety valve to work?

A

combination of the cabin pressure controller and outflow valve fails to regulate the cabin pressure within structural limits

212
Q

At what differential pressures does the safety valve open?

A

14.96 in Hg or -0.76 in Hg

213
Q

What are the 6 sub modes within the AUTO mode of the cabin pressurization system?

A

GROUND - provides an unpressurized cabin by opening the outflow and safety valves

PREPRESSURIZATION - as power levers are advanced above FLT IDLE for takeoff, cabin altitude begins a descent to 300 ft below field elevation

CLIMB - occurs at liftoff. Either with WOW or gear is retracted and IAS is greater than 100 kts

CRUISE - cabin altitude will increase to the auto schedule value and hold that value after the aircraft altitude remains constant within 200 feet for 10 minutes

DESCENT - initiated when aircraft altitude decreases 1,000 ft or more from the highest altitude achieved during flight

LANDING - WOW or landing gear extended and IAS is less than 60 kts

214
Q

When will you get the CAB PRESSURIZED ACAWS?

A

differential pressure exceeds 0.2 in Hg with WOW and power levers below FLT IDLE

215
Q

What is the duty cycle of the outflow valve manual control motor?

A

3 mins on, 17 mins off

216
Q

When will you get the CAB ALT HIGH ACAWS?

A

when cabin altitude is greater than 10,000 ft

217
Q

The constant altitude pressurization mode uses what as an altitude reference?

A

pilot barometric setting

218
Q

What is the rate of depressurization when the EMER DEPRESS switch is in the DUMP position?

A

an uncontrolled rate independent of cabin altitude

219
Q

What 3 valves close when the EMER DEPRESS switch is in the DUMP position?

A

floor heat shutoff valve

flight station AC control valve

cargo compartment AC control valve

220
Q

How long does it take to gain control of the outflow valve in manual pressurization mode?

A

40 seconds

221
Q

What does the cross flow valve in the AC system do?

A

connects the flight station and cargo compartment distribution ducts so that one system can provide AC to both the flight station and cargo compartment

222
Q

What are the two stages of the refrigeration unit in the AC system?

A

air-to-air heat exchanger

cooling turbine

223
Q

Under what conditions might the ECS produce small chunks of ice and expel them at high speed from the air conditioning outlets?

A

high humidity

224
Q

How much water is removed from the refrigerated air by the water separators?

A

70-85 percent

225
Q

In which position is the pressurization mode select switch placed when using an external air conditioning unit?

A

AUX VENT

226
Q

What are the 3 major assemblies of the engine?

A

PGB
torquemeter
power section

227
Q

What does the PGB do?

A

transmits shaft power from the torquemeter, reduces shaft rpm to run the propeller, and provides shaft power to the GMAD

228
Q

What does the GMAD provide drive pads for?

A 
AC generator
Hydraulic pump
PGB oil supply and scavenge pump
PCU
Prop high px oil pump
OSG
229
Q

Where is the GMAD located?

A

rear of the propeller gearbox

230
Q

What does the torquemeter do?

A

transmits engine output power to the PGB and supplies torque reference to the FADECs

231
Q

What are the major components of the power section of the engine?

A

variable flow 14 stage compressor
2 stage gas generator turbine
2 stage free power turbine

232
Q

What does the PUAD provide drive pads for?

A

FPMU
PMA
Oil px and scavenge pumps
Air turbine starter

233
Q

Where is the PUAD located?

A

lower forward portion of the engine power section

234
Q

What does the NIU do?

A

provides conditioning and processing of engine monitoring system sensor data signals

provides engine, nacelle, and propeller sensor signal conditioning and nacelle component control

235
Q

What does the FPMU do?

A

delivers filtered, metered fuel necessary for engine operation, and pressurized fuel for the CVG hydraulic actuator

236
Q

What does the CVG do?

A

changes the angle of the compressor stator blades to assist with engine power control

237
Q

What does the FCOC do?

A

cools engine return oil and heats the fuel to minimize engine fuel system icing

238
Q

How big is the oil tank?

A

20 gallons

12 gallons of oil, 8 gallons of air

239
Q

How big is the oil reservoir for the emergency feather pump oil supply?

A

0.66 gallon

240
Q

What does the air oil cooler use on the ground to cool the engine oil? In flight?

A

Ground - propeller air flow

In flight - ram air

NATOPS (8 decks)

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