NATOPS Flashcards
What types of engines power our mighty bird?
Allison Engine Co. AE2100D3 turboprop engines
How many combat troops can we carry?
78
How many ground troops (including wheelwell wall seats) can we carry?
92
How many paratroopers can we carry?
64
How many litters/attendants can we carry?
70/6
74/2
What are the dimensions of the cargo compartment?
Length: 41’
Width: 10’ 3”
Height: 9’
What are the dimensions of the aircraft?
Length: 97’ 9”
Width: 132’ 7”
Height: 39’ 2”
When should you not connect fuel servicing equipment or start fuel servicing operations?
during an electrical storm or if an electrical storm is reported within 3 miles of the area
What are the danger areas around the aircraft?
APU air intake APU exhaust area Turbine disintegration zone Prop danger areas Prop blast area
What is the minimum space required for turning with the nose gear turned to 60 degrees?
169’ 8”
Max Normal Takeoff weight
164k
Max Alternate Takeoff weight
175k
Recommended landing weight
142k
Max normal landing weight
164k
Max alternate landing weight
175k
What are the 3 categories of fuel management?
Takeoff and landing
enroute
secondary
Define takeoff fuel management
Tanks 1 and 4 always contain 500-1000 lbs more fuel than tanks 2 and 4
The main tanks are full, except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb; but not less than 7060 lbs in tanks 1 and 4, and not less than 6410 lbs in tanks 2 and 3 when the external tanks contain usable fuel
What is enroute fuel management meant to do?
Seeks to maximize the weight in the outboard fuel tanks as long as possible but does not take mission constraints into consideration while doing so
Designed to maintain maximum fuel in the outboard tanks during the enroute phase of flight.
Improves wing-loading and efficiency during long transit legs; it also extends airframe service life, especially with medium to heavy cargo loads.
Define enroute fuel management
When the ext and/or aux tanks contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a max fuel level of 8310 and contain 500-1000 lbs more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3
When ext and/or aux tanks do not contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a max level of 8310 while tanks 2 and 3 are reduced to a level of 1520. Fuel from 1 and 4 will then supply the motors until all main tanks reach a level of 1520. When all main tanks reach 1520, establish direct tank-to-engine feed.
Flap airspeed limits
10 - 220 20 - 210 30 - 200 40 - 190 50 - 183 60 - 165 70 - 155 80 - 150 90 - 145 100 - 145
Operation in the areas between recommended speed limits and maximum speed limits is permissible for initiating penetrations from what altitude and what airspeed?
20,000 ft
250 KIAS
Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area A
3 Gs up to Vh
Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area B
2.5 Gs up to Vh
Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area C
2.5 Gs up to Vh
Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area D
2.25 Gs up to Vh
Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area E
2 Gs up to Vh
Any cruise speed up to the recommended speed may be utilized up to and including what type of turbulence?
moderate
Severe turbulence airspeed
Flight should be in the range of 65 KIAS above power-off stall speed, not to exceed 180 KIAS
When should you avoid abrupt or full rudder deflection?
With flaps lever positioned 15 percent or greater (high rudder boost) and airspeed 210 KIAS or greater
Landing gear extended airspeed
168
Landing lights extended airspeed
250
Cargo door open and locked; ramp up and locked airspeed
250
Cargo door (all positions and motions) airspeed
250
Ramp (all positions and motions) airspeed
250
Paratroop doors open and locked airspeed
250
Paratroop doors opening/closing airspeed
150
High-speed drogue airspeed
185-250
Low speed drogue airspeeds
105-120 - while extending/retracting/engaging
130 - receiver engaged
Severe turbulent air operation airspeed
180
Inoperative windshield anti-icing below 10,000 ft
187
Max speed with landing gear doors removed (gear up)
200
Flight is not permitted with which landing gear doors removed and installed?
forward nose gear door removed and aft door installed
In regards to CG shifts while we have fuel in the fuselage tank, what are our limitations?
If fuel is carried in the fuselage tank, the external tanks should be empty when the fuselage tank contains less than 20,000 lbs, or the aircraft is restricted to level flight until external tanks are empty.
Max speed with 20 degrees of nose gear deflection
20 kts
Max speed with 21-60 degrees of nose gear deflection
5 kts
Taxi limitations up to 164K lbs
Taxiing over rough surfaces should be avoided. If this is unavoidable, exercise caution and limit taxi speed to a max of 10 kts
Taxi limitations if above 164k lbs
- Taxi and takeoff are permissible only on smooth surfaces comparable to those of a major airfield, free of dips, depressions, and holes
- Max taxi speed is 10 kts
- Taxi shortest distance possible
- Use minimum braking during all taxi ops
- Use only light braking while turning
- Limit nose gear steering angle to 20 degrees
- Avoid abrupt or hard uneven application of brakes
Max nose tire speed
139 KTAS
Max main tire speed
174 KTAS
Extended over-water operations with mixed cargo/passenger loads are restricted to a maximum of __ occupants per unobstructed overhead exit.
35
Normal Utility/Booster system pressure
2900-3200 psi
Differential Pressure Limits
Outflow valve differential control
Safety valve
Negative pressure relief
Negative pressure limit
14.3° ±0.2° in. Hg
15.0° ±0.3° in. Hg (do not exceed 16.0 in. Hg)
-0.76 in. Hg
Do not exceed -1.6 in. Hg
To ensure sufficient liferaft capacity, no more than __ persons, including crewmembers, should be carried on extended over-water flights that operate more than __ nautical miles from the nearest shore line.
80
50
Limitations apply to maneuvers beyond __° angle of bank with flaps retracted or beyond __° angle of bank with flaps extended.
60
45
Cabin Differential Pressure
Max
Min
- 2 in Hg
- 1.6 in Hg
Altimeter differences at 30,000 feet
Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 265 feet.
Altimeter differences at 10,000 feet
Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 120 feet.
Trim Tab Limits
Aileron
Rudder
Elevator
Left/right wing down 20° ±5°
Nose left/right 25° ±5°
Nose up 22° to 28° and Nose down 5° to 8°
Cabin altimeter (zero differential at field elevation)
±500 feet of actual field pressure altitude
Oxygen Regulator Pressure Check
Continuous Breathing
No Flow
270 to 340 psi
270 to 455 psi
The cabin differential pressure should be kept below __ in. Hg while operating in the manual mode to avoid operating on safety valve relief.
14.3
Oil quantity white digital readout
4 to 14.1 gallons
Altimeters
Static reading at field elevation
±50 feet of field elevation
If bleed air is available from another operating engine, a starter assisted air start can be accomplished at any airspeed less than approximately ___ (NG below __ percent). If bleed air is not available or if the engine starter is not functional, maintain NG between __ and __ percent. If the propeller is windmilling at 100 percent NP, NG will stabilize at __ percent at speeds as low as ___ to ___ KIAS. If the propeller is feathered, speed as high as ___ to ___ KIAS may be required to achieve the required __ percent NG.
250 KIAS (NG below 29%) 15 and 29% 15% 110 to 130 KIAS 200 to 250 KIAS 15 %
To avoid the possibility of aircraft structural damage, do not exceed __ in. Hg.
16
APU generator load
0-100
Rudder Boost Pressure
Flaps 15-100%
Flaps 0-15%
2,900 to 3,200 psi
1,100 to 1,390 psi
Minimum for one brake application with emergency brakes is ___ psi.
2,900 psi
Engine starts are prohibited when oil temp is __C or below
-40
Normal Aux system pressure
2,760 to 3,200 psi
Avoid stabilized operation between ____ and ____ % propeller rpm (turbine shaft and propeller critical speed range)
52-68
76-85
When oil temp is in normal range and sustained power section oil px equals or exceeds ___psi, perform engine shutdown. Engine main’t req.
90 psi
Define marginal strength airfields
Marginal strength airfields are temporary airfields which include minimally surfaced and unsurfaced runways such as dirt, grass, gravel, coral, etc.
To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than __ °F (__ °C) above the freeze point defined in the Fuel Reference Chart.
6 F (3.3 C)
Vertical functions
IAS hold
VS hold
ALT hold
ALT SEL
±3 KIAS
±70 fpm at 1,000 fpm
±40 feet of initial altitude
±40 feet with ±75 foot overshoot at 1,000 fpm
Prohibited Maneuvers
- Aerobatics and spins.
- Practice stalls with power above 1,000 HP.
- Practice asymmetric power stalls.
- Intentional zero or negative G maneuvers lasting longer than 7 seconds.
- Sustained airspeed below stick pusher speed.
- Intentionally maneuvering the aircraft into a side slip for a LEFT/RIGHT RUDDER alert.
- Abrupt longitudinal control inputs at high speeds (faster than 1.0 g per second load factor increase or decrease).
- Rapid roll reversals (roll rate shall be zero momentarily before applying full aileron in the opposite direction).
- At airspeeds above 150KIAS, moderate to large rudder input held until sideslip peaks followed by opposite rudder (past neutral) or a series of large alternating rudder inputs tending to produce successively larger sideslip angles.
Engine power is limited to ___ when oil temperature is less than __C and to ____ HP when engine oil temperature is less than ___C during ground ops.
idle
0
1,000
45
If the propeller does not reach or stay in the full feather position and controlling oil pressure is not available, the propeller counterweights will stabilize the blade angle at approximately __°. The propeller will windmill on the counterweights at up to __ percent NP depending on airspeed.
66
40
Minimum for one brake application with normal brakes and anti skid OFF is ___ psi.
2,250
TR loadmeters white digital readout
0 to 110 percent
Starting (start sequence, below __% NG) MGT of ___C for a maximum of __ seconds is permitted. If temperature is exceeded, over temp inspection is req.
65
807
2
Engine and APU starting can be difficult when the temperature is approximately __ °C
-40
HUD/PFD, and standby compass headings
±5°
Altimeter differences at 20,000 feet
Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 180 feet.
If oil temp is between __ to __C for >__ minutes or exceeds __C, engine shutdown is recommended and oil over temperature inspection req.
86 to 93
5 mins
93
If oil temp remains in the yellow zone, (__ to __C), red zone indication is initiated after __ minutes if the engine has been shut down. No action is req if the engine is not operating.
86 to 93
5 mins
Prior to start maximum MGT
175C
Autopilot Limitations
- Takeoff and landing.
- At airspeeds above maximum recommended airspeed VH.
- ILS coupled approach below 200 feet HAT (CATI), 100 feet HAT(CATII), below MDA on a non-precision approach, or when flying over the localizer transmitter.
- During IPRA coupled approach below 200 feet HAT.
- At or below 500 feet AGL for non approach operations.
- In RVSM airspace, unless the autopilot, in ALT HOLD mode is able to maintain altitude within ±65 feet of ATC assigned flight level (steady, level flight in non-turbulent conditions) at all times during normal cruise.
- At gross weights above 164,000 lbs for any of the following:
a. Below 1,000 feet AGL.
b. During configuration changes.
c. During approach operations.
Takeoff is permitted with an oil temp of __C
45
Blade angle changes when the engine is not operating should not be accomplished when the oil temp is less than __C
-40
Transient operations up to ___% during transition from flight idle to ground idle is acceptable
112
Pilot and copilot HUD/PFD headings
±2°
If MGT exceeds ___C, over temp inspection is req.
852
Maximum HP for normal operation is limited to ___
4840 HP
Static propeller feathering is limited to ___ cycles before the propeller gearbox must be drained or the engine started.
two
The fuel unbalance limits are:
- ____ pounds between tanks of a symmetrical pair (main or external).
- ____ pounds between the left and right wings except as stated in item 3.
- One auxiliary tank __ and the other auxiliary tank ___, provided all other tanks are symmetrically fueled or unbalanced toward the opposite side within the above limits.
1,000
1,500
full and empty
When comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known check point, the maximum allowable error is ±__ feet for pilot, copilot, and standby altimeters. Since the standby altimeter does not internally compensate for temperature, these tolerances only apply to the standby altimeter if the flight station temperature is between __ °F and __ °F.
50
60 and 85
If oil temp exceeds ___C, shut down the engine. Main’t is required.
93
Normal Emergency Brake Pressure
2,900 to 3,300 psi
DC Bus Voltages (ESS and MAIN) white digital readout
25 to 30 V
AFCS Limitations
Maximum Bank Angles: Turn knob PILOT/COPILOT ENGAGE Course intercept On course Localizer tracking
Approximately 35° 25° ±3° 25° ±3° 10° 15° ±3°
Maximum continuous EGT is __ °C. If EGT exceeds __ °C for longer than __ seconds, the ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading.
680
710
3
Hydraulic Accumulator Preload
- Utility System
- Booster System
- Normal Brake
- Emergency Brake
- Aerial Refueling Hydraulic Accumulator
1,500 (±100) psi 1,500 (±100) psi 1,500 (±100) psi 1,000 (±100) psi 1,350 (±50) psi
Engine Generator Loadmeters white digital readout
≤125 percent
With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ___ g in symmetrical maneuvers and ___ g in unsymmetrical maneuvers.
- 0
1. 5
Airspeed indicators between pilot and copilot
must agree within ±6 KCAS
Normal Oxygen Quantity
5 to 25 liters
Define substandard airfields
Substandard airfields may be either paved or unpaved, and are those which have unusually rough, undulating, pitted, or rutted runways.
VV Indicators
at 1,000 fpm
at 2,000 fpm
±200 fpm
±300 fpm
Because of propulsion systems limitations, avoid intentional negative and zero g maneuvers lasting longer than ___ seconds.
7
How many TACAN navigation systems are on the plane?
3
the AN/ARN-153 serves as the own aircraft TACAN system
How far out can the TACAN operate?
220 NM of a surface TACAN or a cooperating aircraft
For air-to-air TACAN, how many channels must the receiver be above or below the other aircraft?
63
Which GCAS warnings can be cancelled?
GLIDESLOPE
TOO LOW FLAPS
What modes are required for TCAS to operate?
S and C
What is the difference between mode S and mode C?
Mode S transponders announce their presence by transmitting a squitter message once every second
Mode C does not transmit squitter messages
How many intruders can TCAS track? How many are displayed on the Nav-Radar?
45
30
What are the boundary limits of intruder detection for TCAS?
40 NM off the nose
15 NM either side of the aircraft
12 NM off the tail
The TCAS processor receives an input from flap position to inhibit the increased climb maneuver anytime the flaps are extended beyond ___ percent.
40
How far away is traffic if it is displayed as a white-filled diamond on TCAS?
within 6 nm AND within 1200 feet vertically
E-TCAS boundary limits?
360 degrees out to 40 nm
E-TCAS
Above-
Normal-
Below-
2700 below to 12700 above
2700 below to 2700 above
12700 below to 2700 above
What are the eight operational modes of the LPCR?
Map Weather Skin Paint Monopulse Ground Map Windshear Beacon (ground and airborne) Precision measurement Integrated Precision Approach Radar
What are the 4 processing techniques of the Map mode of the LPCR?
Monopulse Ground Map
Doppler Beam Sharpening
Monopulse Stabilized Doppler Beam Sharpening
Real Beam Ground Map
What is the range of the Monopulse Ground Map mode of the LPCR?
> 40 nm
Which scan speed is slower? Which has a better resolution?
Doppler Beam Sharpening or Monopulse Ground Map?
DBS
When is Monopulse Stabilized Doppler Beam Sharpening used by the LPCR?
What is the range?
incorporates both MGM and DBS
At angles >10 degrees from the velocity vector it uses DBS
At angles <5 degrees from the velocity vector it uses MGM
Between 5 and 10 degrees it uses MSDBS out to 40 nm
When is Real Beam Ground Map mode used by the LPCR?
during degraded radar operations
displays slant range rather than ground range
In the weather mode of the LPCR, what is displayed at less than or equal to 40 nm?
weather plus turbulence data is provided
In the weather mode of the LPCR, what is displayed in the 80 nm range scale?
weather plus turbulence to 50 nm
weather alone to 80 nm
for range scales >80 nm, turbulence is not provided
What color is turbulence in the weather mode of the LPCR?
White
What color does blue represent in the weather mode of the LPCR?
masked region/unknown
Skin paint mode displays targets up to a range of what?
20 nm
What does pressing MGM of the LPCR do?
selects MGM and inhibits DBS
How far out is windshear hazard processed and displayed in the windshear mode of the LPCR?
up to 5 nm
What does the windshear icon look like when displayed on the Nav-Radar?
red and black striped pattern
How far out is windshear in relation to the following:
Level 1 Windshear Alert
Level 2 Windshear Alert
Level 3 Windshear Alert
> 3 nm
1.5 to 3 nm
< 1.5
How far out can the Beacon mode of the LPCR display ground and airborne beacon transponders?
40 nm
What does the Precision Measurement Mode of the LPCR do?
allows the LPCR to correct for certain map inaccuracies
What are the four common cursor modes?
manual, ground, computer, quick
Where does the manual cursor hang out in relation to the aircraft?
remains at a fixed distance from the aircraft at a fixed direction relative to the top of the master display, unless the cursor is slewed
Where does the ground cursor hang out?
remains fixed relative to the ground unless the cursor is slewed
Where does the computer cursor hang out?
remains fixed at the geographic coordinates of a specific target, even when the cursor is slewed.
What does the EGI consist of?
global positioning and inertial navigation systems
What are the three major segments of the GPS? What do they each consist of?
Space: GPS satellites, minimum of 4 are always observable
Control: master control station, monitor stations, ground antennas
User: variety of civilian and military organizations all over the world
What makes INS different from GPS? What is the biggest error in regards to INS?
provides accurate navigation and position determination anywhere on earth, in any weather, without the aid of anything except pressure altitude from the DADS
inertial drift
The normal mode Look Ahead Distance corresponds with how much travel ahead time of the aircraft?
What is the tactical mode of LAD?
40-60 seconds
50 percent shorter and narrower than normal
TAWS
high density red
high density yellow
low density yellow
high density green
low density green
black
magenta
More than 2000 feet above current altitude
Between 1000 and 2000 feet above current altitude
Between 250 feet below and 1000 feet above current altitude
Between 250 feet below and 1000 feet below current altitude
Between 1000 and 2000 feet below current altitude
More than 2000 feet below current altitude
Unknown terrain
What HDD does TAWS pop-up on?
HDD 3
HDD 2 if 3 is failed
What does the Gamma Cutoff Envelope of the TAWS encompass?
begins 100 feet below aircraft present altitude and extends out to a maximum of 10 nm ahead of airplane along an angle which is set to 6 degrees below the current flight path angle of the airplane.
Once the a/c flight path angle reaches 9 degrees or greater, the cutoff angle is fixed to 3 degrees above the horizon. Can never point up more than 3 degrees. No limit for negative flight path angles
What is considered a “critical phase of flight”?
all ground ops involving taxi, takeoff and landing
1000 feet prior to reaching assigned altitude during climb/descent
When shall both pilots never be “heads down”?
Below 5000’ AGL
When shall autothrottles be disconnected?
no later than crossing the threshold on approach
What is the criteria for a stabilized approach?
Aircraft in a safe landing configuration
PA/NPA approach: +/- 1 dot of glideslope/CDI
PAR/ASR: No “well above/below” / “well right/left”
Proper airspeed: normal +/- 10 kts
max effort -3 to +10 kts
All briefings and checklists completed
No GCAS special alerts
What are the 3 distinct phases of an emergency?
- establish and maintain a/c control, ensure its clear of terrain, accomplish bold face EPs
- complete remaining of checklists, review engine-out considerations, determine a course of action
- monitor/manage degraded systems, prepare for unscheduled landing if necessary
What is the greatest danger of ice accumulation?
reduced aerodynamic efficiency of the aircraft
What are some of the effects of ice accumulation?
- Increased takeoff distance, landing distance, and stall speeds
- Reduced rate of climb
- Increased power requirement, thus increasing fuel consumption and decreasing range and endurance
- Noticeable decrease in aircraft maneuverability, reduced directional stability and control at high sideslip angles, heavier than normal stall buffet when approaching stall speds
- Reduced engine power due to obstruction of the engine inlet air duct
How could prolonged exposure to icing affect the radome?
Radome may accumulate ice that will not shed easily. This may result in degraded radar returns in the ground mapping mode within 30 degrees of the nose at ranges beyond 40 nm
If ice is detected on takeoff roll and the wing/empennage ice protection is in AUTO or ON, when does the system become operative and what may result from it?
operative at 60 kts
result in a noticeable HP decrease. This decrease is more significant at higher density altitude, and may be as much as 30 percent
The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and takeoff when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temp of 10 C or less. What could happen if its not on?
Ice may enter the engine air inlet and cause engine power fluctuations
This can cause the propeller to autofeather or damage the engine
Which ice protection systems are not functional during taxi?
wing/empennage
propeller blade and aft spinner
At pressure altitudes greater than 3000 ft, what should you do with the engine anti-ice if you have it switched ON?
Operate with it ON for a minimum of 3 minutes to stabilize engine temps before applying takeoff power. This will reduce the possibility of an ENG 1 (2,3,4) MGT HI ACAWS.
If landing gear retraction is required following extended exposure to icing, what should you do?
cycle the gear at least once to remove accumulated ice before accelerating above gear limiting speed
When should the wing/empennage ice protection not be operated in anti-icing mode?
Operation at power settings above 2500 HP at temps below -30 C or at pressure altitudes above 20,000 ft at any HP may degrade engine life
When possible, change altitude to prevent icing. If climbing to a non-icing altitude is not possible, what should you do? What are some things you should consider?
a check of fuel flow vs ground speed should be made to determine if range will permit completion of the flight
OAT, nature of clouds, type of icing, duration of icing
Why should you avoid high angles of attack during periods of transition from icing to melting conditions and/or ice shedding from the center wing section?
very likely that the shedding ice will strike the horizontal tail and possibly cause extensive damage to the horizontal tail leading edge
What is the minimum power setting schedule that you need to maintain when descending in icing conditions?
1300 HP above 20,000 ft
Starting at 20,000 ft, reduces power 100 HP every 5000 ft until reaching 5000 ft
Below 5000 ft, at least 750 HP
Wing/empennage ice protection system must be turned on in the anti-icing mode prior to final approach if icing is anticipated. What could happen if you don’t do this?
may cause ice accumulation on the vertical tail, resulting in limited crosswind landing capability
For all landings where icing conditions have been encountered and ice may not have cleared, increase landing approach and threshold speeds by:
100 percent flaps
50 percent flaps
0 percent flaps
6 kts
10 kts
20 kts
What causes icing in the engine inlet air duct?
What is an indication that this icing has occurred?
sudden drop in temperature resulting from pressure loss in the engine inlet air duct
falling HP indication
Should you use autothrottles when flying through extreme turbulence or thunderstorms?
What about the autopilot?
No. Should be disengaged
Autopilot may be used and in some cases is desirable.
What should you do with trim when flying through extreme turbulence or thunderstorms?
Trim the a/c to zero control force for the altitude and recommended airspeed. Avoid the use of elevator trim in controlling pitch attitude
What can flying through heavy rain (magenta) do?
- Reduce lift by up to 30 percent at high AOAs such as during approach or missed approaches
- Increase drag up to 30 percent
- Cause the aircraft to slow down faster than normal when power is reduced
- Cause engine rollback and flameout
- Cause turbulence
When do the windshield wipers become ineffective?
above 180 kts
What is windshear?
rapid change in wind velocity and direction as well as vertical air movement
When is windshear the greatest? When does it most commonly occur?
greatest ahead of warm fronts
most common following the passage of cold fronts during periods of gusty surface winds
When a temperature change of __ F or more is reported across the front or if the front is moving at __ kts or more, conditions are conducive to windshear.
10
30
What are some indications of windshear?
+/- 20 kts airspeed
+/- 500 fpm altitude changes
+/- 6 degrees pitch attitude changes
+/- 1.5 degrees glideslope deviation
What should you be alert for, in regards to aircraft performance, when windshear is suspected?
- unusually steep or shallow rate of descent required to maintain glidepath
- unusually high or low power setting required to maintain approach airspeed
- large variation btwn reported surface wind and displayed winds
When should you use cold weather procedures?
when 0 C and below
When should you use hot weather procedures?
above 35 C (95F) with or without high humidity
How do you establish long-range cruise?
set fuel flow and cross-check HP from the operating chart for the particular flight gross weight and altitude
What are the 4 types of cruises we can fly?
Long Range
Constant TAS
Max Continuous
Max Endurance
How far out does the HF radio hazard area extend?
15 ft
How far out does the IRCM hazard area extend without safety glasses? With safety glasses?
12 ft
2 ft
How far out does the infared light hazard area extend?
10 ft
Why are engines normally started in LSGI?
provides a more gradual heating of the engine components
On the ground, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, what should you do?
On subsequent starts, what is acceptable to see?
motor the engine for at least 30 seconds with the engine start switch in the MOTOR position.
flames out the tailpipe for a few seconds due to residual fuel
If starting an engine with a windmilling prop (from wind), what could happen?
the FADEC may not perform the check of the propeller independent overspeed protection circuit.
If the propeller independent overspeed protection circuit is not checked, what will happen?
the PROP 1(2,3,4) NO 119 percent PROTECT ACAWS will appear
Can the engine be started with the propeller at any blade angle?
Yes
What is the typical time from starter activation until NP is on speed? How long can you allow it to take?
30 seconds
Allow up to 2 minutes after NG is on speed
When is fuel flow normally indicated on engine start?
at approx. 40 percent NG
When will the FADEC shut off fuel if a start is not successful?
after 70 seconds from starter activation
If an automatic shutdown occurs, what should you do before restarting?
place the ENGINE START switch to STOP and allow NG to decrease to 0 then wait 30 seconds before attempting a restart
Why do we wait 30 seconds after NG reaches 0 before restarting an engine?
to enable a successful test of the NG independent overspeed protection circuit
Can you motor an engine before NG reaches 0 on a restart?
Yes
When do you pull the fire handle during engine starts?
ENG FIRE ENG MGT HI START VLV OPEN If MGT is rapidly increasing through the 6 oclock postion Visible indications of a fire Visible fluid leak
When do you discontinue a start by placing the ENGINE START switch to STOP?
No NG within 10 seconds No oil px within 15 seconds of NG or NP rotation ENG FLAMEOUT ENG NO LIGHTOFF ENG STAGNATED START
When should normal hydraulic system px be indicated on an engine start?
within 30 seconds after propeller is on speed
The OAT is 72F and the wing/empennage anti-ice test must be repeated. What do you do and why?
Because OAT is above 70F, we must wait 10 minutes before repeating the test to prevent overheating the vertical tail
How long does the WING/EMP A/I TEST run for?
90 seconds
Propeller ice protection system BIT requires how many engines in HSGI?
at least 2
If the stick pusher test is attempted __ consecutive times, what do you do and why?
5
allow a minimum of 5 minutes of cooling time before attempting another test
This is to prevent failure of the stick pusher servo
When might differential power be necessary while taxiing?
at aft center of gravity
in high winds
on slippery taxiways
Is differential braking effective in turning the aircraft?
No, and if used excessively can cause structural damage
On a soft or gravel runway/taxiway, a tight turn might result in what?
in the inboard tires sinking into the surface. If braking is used on the inboard side, the inboard tires may sink in so far that the aircraft will not be able to continue taxiing
Why shouldn’t you taxi fast on rough terrain?
greatly increases the loads normally imposed on landing gear and wing structure and can cause structural damage and reduced component life
If taxiing with two engines on and in LSGI, what should you have turned on?
aux hyd pump ON
EMER BRAKE SEL switch set to EMER to ensure adequate brake pressure
If any engine is shut down during taxi with 2 or more other engines in HSGI, what must be placed OFF and why?
PROPELLER switches - to prevent possible damage to the propeller anti-ice boots
Do you check the HUD radar altimeter or the PFD radar altimeter during the “Above the Line” checklist? Why?
The PFD must be used since the HUD will not depict a negative number
HSGI should be selected by disengaging the LSGI buttons rather than by power lever movement. Why?
Movement of the power levers beyond LSGI range with ambient temperature above 27C may cause rpm stall and over temperature
An abrupt release of deflected brake pedals could cause what? What should a mindful pilot do?
could possibly cause the brakes on the left side of the aircraft to remain partially engaged
pilot should smoothly release fully applied brakes pedals over approx. 2 seconds
When does the rudder become effective?
at approx. 50-70 kts
The normal takeoff performance data assumes a rotation rate of what?
Max effort takeoff?
3 degrees per second
5 degrees per second
What causes an excursion in airspeed, altitude, and rate of climb when you retract or extend the landing gear?
an air disturbance around the pitot tubes caused when the forward nose gear door opens
Normal Flap Retraction Schedule
< 100,000 lbs - raise flaps passing FUSS (135 KIAS)
100,000 to 140,000 lbs - being flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS (Vobs plus 25)
> 140,000 lbs - raise flaps in 10 percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (Vobs plus 5) and ending at FUSS (Vobs plus 25)
After takeoff, when should you reduce power to max continuous?
after the flaps are retracted
What is the normal climb speed schedule?
180 KIAS to 10,000 ft (4 eng climb above 165K)
170 KIAS to 15,000 ft (4 eng climb above 150K)
160 KIAS to 25,000 ft (4 eng climb above 130K)
4 engine climb speed above 25,000 ft
What should you do to avoid sideslip control difficulties during a max effort climb?
limit angle of bank to 20 degrees until airspeed is above 120 kts
Max Effort Flap Retraction Schedule
< 100,000 lbs - raise flaps passing FUSS (135 KIAS)
100,000 to 140,000 lbs - being flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS (Vobs plus 45)
> 140,000 lbs - raise flaps in 10 percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (Vobs plus 25) and ending at FUSS (Vobs plus 45)
How often should you check the center and side windscreens to ensure NESA operations?
once per flight
Is the standby altimeter RVSM compliant?
No
What is the maximum difference allowed between pilot and copilot altitudes during RVSM operations?
200 ft
Are TAs alone sufficient enough to deviate from an assigned clearance?
No
When does the clacker activate?
Vd plus 2 knots
What are the two segments of a penetration descent?
The first from altitude down to 20,000 ft at speeds for max lift over drag with power levers at FLT IDLE and landing gear and flaps retracted
The second from 20,000 ft to sea level at 250 kts
When should you refer to the LANDING WITH ICE ACCUMULATION procedure?
if icing is encountered on an approach within 6 minutes of landing
If you turn on the anti-ice switch, how long can it take to ensure the vertical stabilizer is completely anti-iced?
as long as 2.5 minutes
What is the bank angle limit capture for a non-precision approach?
Once on course?
25 degrees
10 degrees
The autopilot is capable of intercepts up to what? What is the max recommended?
90 degrees
45 degrees
Ground speed of less than __ kts is generally required to being a 90 degree turn.
20
Stall warning margin varies significally with what?
aircraft power setting
When are high speed landing procedures required?
- 100 percent flap landings at weights above 155,000 lbs
- 50 percent flap landings at weights above 130,000 lbs
- All 0 percent flap landings
- All landings at field elevation greater than 4000’ MSL
- Temperature greater than ISA +15C, all landings at field elevation greater than 2000’ MSL
What is the maximum crosswind component for landing?
35 kts
Do you have better roll control with 100 percent flap landings or 50 percent?
What about lower sideslip?
50 percent for both
In strong crosswinds, what airspeed should be set 100 feet above the runway?
Threshold plus 5 kts
To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over __ degrees during landing.
5
7-102
7-102
