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NATOPS > NATOPS > Flashcards

NATOPS Flashcards

1
Q

What types of engines power our mighty bird?

A

Allison Engine Co. AE2100D3 turboprop engines

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2
Q

How many combat troops can we carry?

A

78

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3
Q

How many ground troops (including wheelwell wall seats) can we carry?

A

92

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4
Q

How many paratroopers can we carry?

A

64

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5
Q

How many litters/attendants can we carry?

A

70/6

74/2

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6
Q

What are the dimensions of the cargo compartment?

A

Length: 41’
Width: 10’ 3”
Height: 9’

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7
Q

What are the dimensions of the aircraft?

A

Length: 97’ 9”
Width: 132’ 7”
Height: 39’ 2”

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8
Q

When should you not connect fuel servicing equipment or start fuel servicing operations?

A

during an electrical storm or if an electrical storm is reported within 3 miles of the area

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9
Q

What are the danger areas around the aircraft?

A 
APU air intake
APU exhaust area
Turbine disintegration zone
Prop danger areas
Prop blast area
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10
Q

What is the minimum space required for turning with the nose gear turned to 60 degrees?

A

169’ 8”

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11
Q

Max Normal Takeoff weight

A

164k

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12
Q

Max Alternate Takeoff weight

A

175k

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13
Q

Recommended landing weight

A

142k

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14
Q

Max normal landing weight

A

164k

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15
Q

Max alternate landing weight

A

175k

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16
Q

What are the 3 categories of fuel management?

A

Takeoff and landing
enroute
secondary

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17
Q

Define takeoff fuel management

A

Tanks 1 and 4 always contain 500-1000 lbs more fuel than tanks 2 and 4

The main tanks are full, except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb; but not less than 7060 lbs in tanks 1 and 4, and not less than 6410 lbs in tanks 2 and 3 when the external tanks contain usable fuel

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18
Q

What is enroute fuel management meant to do?

A

Seeks to maximize the weight in the outboard fuel tanks as long as possible but does not take mission constraints into consideration while doing so

Designed to maintain maximum fuel in the outboard tanks during the enroute phase of flight.

Improves wing-loading and efficiency during long transit legs; it also extends airframe service life, especially with medium to heavy cargo loads.

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19
Q

Define enroute fuel management

A

When the ext and/or aux tanks contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a max fuel level of 8310 and contain 500-1000 lbs more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3

When ext and/or aux tanks do not contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a max level of 8310 while tanks 2 and 3 are reduced to a level of 1520. Fuel from 1 and 4 will then supply the motors until all main tanks reach a level of 1520. When all main tanks reach 1520, establish direct tank-to-engine feed.

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20
Q

Flap airspeed limits

A 
10 - 220
20 - 210
30 - 200
40 - 190
50 - 183
60 - 165
70 - 155
80 - 150
90 - 145
100 - 145
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21
Q

Operation in the areas between recommended speed limits and maximum speed limits is permissible for initiating penetrations from what altitude and what airspeed?

A

20,000 ft

250 KIAS

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22
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area A

A

3 Gs up to Vh

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23
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area B

A

2.5 Gs up to Vh

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24
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area C

A

2.5 Gs up to Vh

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25
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area D

A

2.25 Gs up to Vh

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26
Q

Maximum symmetrical maneuver load and airspeed in Area E

A

2 Gs up to Vh

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27
Q

Any cruise speed up to the recommended speed may be utilized up to and including what type of turbulence?

A

moderate

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28
Q

Severe turbulence airspeed

A

Flight should be in the range of 65 KIAS above power-off stall speed, not to exceed 180 KIAS

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29
Q

When should you avoid abrupt or full rudder deflection?

A

With flaps lever positioned 15 percent or greater (high rudder boost) and airspeed 210 KIAS or greater

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30
Q

Landing gear extended airspeed

A

168

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31
Q

Landing lights extended airspeed

A

250

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32
Q

Cargo door open and locked; ramp up and locked airspeed

A

250

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33
Q

Cargo door (all positions and motions) airspeed

A

250

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34
Q

Ramp (all positions and motions) airspeed

A

250

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35
Q

Paratroop doors open and locked airspeed

A

250

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36
Q

Paratroop doors opening/closing airspeed

A

150

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37
Q

High-speed drogue airspeed

A

185-250

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38
Q

Low speed drogue airspeeds

A

105-120 - while extending/retracting/engaging

130 - receiver engaged

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39
Q

Severe turbulent air operation airspeed

A

180

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40
Q

Inoperative windshield anti-icing below 10,000 ft

A

187

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41
Q

Max speed with landing gear doors removed (gear up)

A

200

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42
Q

Flight is not permitted with which landing gear doors removed and installed?

A

forward nose gear door removed and aft door installed

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43
Q

In regards to CG shifts while we have fuel in the fuselage tank, what are our limitations?

A

If fuel is carried in the fuselage tank, the external tanks should be empty when the fuselage tank contains less than 20,000 lbs, or the aircraft is restricted to level flight until external tanks are empty.

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44
Q

Max speed with 20 degrees of nose gear deflection

A

20 kts

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45
Q

Max speed with 21-60 degrees of nose gear deflection

A

5 kts

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46
Q

Taxi limitations up to 164K lbs

A

Taxiing over rough surfaces should be avoided. If this is unavoidable, exercise caution and limit taxi speed to a max of 10 kts

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47
Q

Taxi limitations if above 164k lbs

A
  1. Taxi and takeoff are permissible only on smooth surfaces comparable to those of a major airfield, free of dips, depressions, and holes
  2. Max taxi speed is 10 kts
  3. Taxi shortest distance possible
  4. Use minimum braking during all taxi ops
  5. Use only light braking while turning
  6. Limit nose gear steering angle to 20 degrees
  7. Avoid abrupt or hard uneven application of brakes
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48
Q

Max nose tire speed

A

139 KTAS

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49
Q

Max main tire speed

A

174 KTAS

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50
Q

Extended over-water operations with mixed cargo/passenger loads are restricted to a maximum of __ occupants per unobstructed overhead exit.

A

35

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51
Q

Normal Utility/Booster system pressure

A

2900-3200 psi

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52
Q

Differential Pressure Limits

Outflow valve differential control
Safety valve
Negative pressure relief
Negative pressure limit

A

14.3° ±0.2° in. Hg
15.0° ±0.3° in. Hg (do not exceed 16.0 in. Hg)
-0.76 in. Hg
Do not exceed -1.6 in. Hg

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53
Q

To ensure sufficient liferaft capacity, no more than __ persons, including crewmembers, should be carried on extended over-water flights that operate more than __ nautical miles from the nearest shore line.

A

80

50

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54
Q

Limitations apply to maneuvers beyond __° angle of bank with flaps retracted or beyond __° angle of bank with flaps extended.

A

60

45

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55
Q

Cabin Differential Pressure

Max
Min

A
  1. 2 in Hg

- 1.6 in Hg

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56
Q

Altimeter differences at 30,000 feet

A

Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 265 feet.

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57
Q

Altimeter differences at 10,000 feet

A

Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 120 feet.

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58
Q

Trim Tab Limits

Aileron
Rudder
Elevator

A

Left/right wing down 20° ±5°
Nose left/right 25° ±5°
Nose up 22° to 28° and Nose down 5° to 8°

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59
Q

Cabin altimeter (zero differential at field elevation)

A

±500 feet of actual field pressure altitude

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60
Q

Oxygen Regulator Pressure Check

Continuous Breathing
No Flow

A

270 to 340 psi

270 to 455 psi

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61
Q

The cabin differential pressure should be kept below __ in. Hg while operating in the manual mode to avoid operating on safety valve relief.

A

14.3

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62
Q

Oil quantity white digital readout

A

4 to 14.1 gallons

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63
Q

Altimeters

Static reading at field elevation

A

±50 feet of field elevation

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64
Q

If bleed air is available from another operating engine, a starter assisted air start can be accomplished at any airspeed less than approximately ___ (NG below __ percent). If bleed air is not available or if the engine starter is not functional, maintain NG between __ and __ percent. If the propeller is windmilling at 100 percent NP, NG will stabilize at __ percent at speeds as low as ___ to ___ KIAS. If the propeller is feathered, speed as high as ___ to ___ KIAS may be required to achieve the required __ percent NG.

A 
250 KIAS
(NG below 29%)
15 and 29%
15%
110 to 130 KIAS
200 to 250 KIAS
15 %
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65
Q

To avoid the possibility of aircraft structural damage, do not exceed __ in. Hg.

A

16

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66
Q

APU generator load

A

0-100

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67
Q

Rudder Boost Pressure

Flaps 15-100%
Flaps 0-15%

A

2,900 to 3,200 psi

1,100 to 1,390 psi

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68
Q

Minimum for one brake application with emergency brakes is ___ psi.

A

2,900 psi

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69
Q

Engine starts are prohibited when oil temp is __C or below

A

-40

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70
Q

Normal Aux system pressure

A

2,760 to 3,200 psi

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71
Q

Avoid stabilized operation between ____ and ____ % propeller rpm (turbine shaft and propeller critical speed range)

A

52-68

76-85

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72
Q

When oil temp is in normal range and sustained power section oil px equals or exceeds ___psi, perform engine shutdown. Engine main’t req.

A

90 psi

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73
Q

Define marginal strength airfields

A

Marginal strength airfields are temporary airfields which include minimally surfaced and unsurfaced runways such as dirt, grass, gravel, coral, etc.

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74
Q

To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than __ °F (__ °C) above the freeze point defined in the Fuel Reference Chart.

A

6 F (3.3 C)

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75
Q

Vertical functions

IAS hold
VS hold
ALT hold
ALT SEL

A

±3 KIAS
±70 fpm at 1,000 fpm
±40 feet of initial altitude
±40 feet with ±75 foot overshoot at 1,000 fpm

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76
Q

Prohibited Maneuvers

A
  1. Aerobatics and spins.
  2. Practice stalls with power above 1,000 HP.
  3. Practice asymmetric power stalls.
  4. Intentional zero or negative G maneuvers lasting longer than 7 seconds.
  5. Sustained airspeed below stick pusher speed.
  6. Intentionally maneuvering the aircraft into a side slip for a LEFT/RIGHT RUDDER alert.
  7. Abrupt longitudinal control inputs at high speeds (faster than 1.0 g per second load factor increase or decrease).
  8. Rapid roll reversals (roll rate shall be zero momentarily before applying full aileron in the opposite direction).
  9. At airspeeds above 150KIAS, moderate to large rudder input held until sideslip peaks followed by opposite rudder (past neutral) or a series of large alternating rudder inputs tending to produce successively larger sideslip angles.
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77
Q

Engine power is limited to ___ when oil temperature is less than __C and to ____ HP when engine oil temperature is less than ___C during ground ops.

A

idle
0
1,000
45

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78
Q

If the propeller does not reach or stay in the full feather position and controlling oil pressure is not available, the propeller counterweights will stabilize the blade angle at approximately __°. The propeller will windmill on the counterweights at up to __ percent NP depending on airspeed.

A

66

40

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79
Q

Minimum for one brake application with normal brakes and anti skid OFF is ___ psi.

A

2,250

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80
Q

TR loadmeters white digital readout

A

0 to 110 percent

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81
Q

Starting (start sequence, below __% NG) MGT of ___C for a maximum of __ seconds is permitted. If temperature is exceeded, over temp inspection is req.

A

65
807
2

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82
Q

Engine and APU starting can be difficult when the temperature is approximately __ °C

A

-40

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83
Q

HUD/PFD, and standby compass headings

A

±5°

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84
Q

Altimeter differences at 20,000 feet

A

Maximum difference between pilot, copilot and standby altimeters is 180 feet.

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85
Q

If oil temp is between __ to __C for >__ minutes or exceeds __C, engine shutdown is recommended and oil over temperature inspection req.

A

86 to 93
5 mins
93

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86
Q

If oil temp remains in the yellow zone, (__ to __C), red zone indication is initiated after __ minutes if the engine has been shut down. No action is req if the engine is not operating.

A

86 to 93

5 mins

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87
Q

Prior to start maximum MGT

A

175C

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88
Q

Autopilot Limitations

A
  1. Takeoff and landing.
  2. At airspeeds above maximum recommended airspeed VH.
  3. ILS coupled approach below 200 feet HAT (CATI), 100 feet HAT(CATII), below MDA on a non-precision approach, or when flying over the localizer transmitter.
  4. During IPRA coupled approach below 200 feet HAT.
  5. At or below 500 feet AGL for non approach operations.
  6. In RVSM airspace, unless the autopilot, in ALT HOLD mode is able to maintain altitude within ±65 feet of ATC assigned flight level (steady, level flight in non-turbulent conditions) at all times during normal cruise.
  7. At gross weights above 164,000 lbs for any of the following:
    a. Below 1,000 feet AGL.
    b. During configuration changes.
    c. During approach operations.
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89
Q

Takeoff is permitted with an oil temp of __C

A

45

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90
Q

Blade angle changes when the engine is not operating should not be accomplished when the oil temp is less than __C

A

-40

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91
Q

Transient operations up to ___% during transition from flight idle to ground idle is acceptable

A

112

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92
Q

Pilot and copilot HUD/PFD headings

A

±2°

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93
Q

If MGT exceeds ___C, over temp inspection is req.

A

852

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94
Q

Maximum HP for normal operation is limited to ___

A

4840 HP

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95
Q

Static propeller feathering is limited to ___ cycles before the propeller gearbox must be drained or the engine started.

A

two

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96
Q

The fuel unbalance limits are:

  1. ____ pounds between tanks of a symmetrical pair (main or external).
  2. ____ pounds between the left and right wings except as stated in item 3.
  3. One auxiliary tank __ and the other auxiliary tank ___, provided all other tanks are symmetrically fueled or unbalanced toward the opposite side within the above limits.
A

1,000

1,500

full and empty

97
Q

When comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known check point, the maximum allowable error is ±__ feet for pilot, copilot, and standby altimeters. Since the standby altimeter does not internally compensate for temperature, these tolerances only apply to the standby altimeter if the flight station temperature is between __ °F and __ °F.

A

50

60 and 85

98
Q

If oil temp exceeds ___C, shut down the engine. Main’t is required.

A

93

99
Q

Normal Emergency Brake Pressure

A

2,900 to 3,300 psi

100
Q

DC Bus Voltages (ESS and MAIN) white digital readout

A

25 to 30 V

101
Q

AFCS Limitations

Maximum Bank Angles:
Turn knob 
PILOT/COPILOT ENGAGE 
Course intercept
On course
Localizer tracking
A 
Approximately 35° 
25° ±3°
25° ±3°
10°
15° ±3°
102
Q

Maximum continuous EGT is __ °C. If EGT exceeds __ °C for longer than __ seconds, the ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading.

A

680
710
3

103
Q

Hydraulic Accumulator Preload

  1. Utility System
  2. Booster System
  3. Normal Brake
  4. Emergency Brake
  5. Aerial Refueling Hydraulic Accumulator
A 
1,500 (±100) psi 
1,500 (±100) psi 
1,500 (±100) psi 
1,000 (±100) psi 
1,350 (±50) psi
104
Q

Engine Generator Loadmeters white digital readout

A

≤125 percent

105
Q

With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ___ g in symmetrical maneuvers and ___ g in unsymmetrical maneuvers.

A
  1. 0

1. 5

106
Q

Airspeed indicators between pilot and copilot

A

must agree within ±6 KCAS

107
Q

Normal Oxygen Quantity

A

5 to 25 liters

108
Q

Define substandard airfields

A

Substandard airfields may be either paved or unpaved, and are those which have unusually rough, undulating, pitted, or rutted runways.

109
Q

VV Indicators

at 1,000 fpm
at 2,000 fpm

A

±200 fpm

±300 fpm

110
Q

Because of propulsion systems limitations, avoid intentional negative and zero g maneuvers lasting longer than ___ seconds.

A

7

111
Q

How many TACAN navigation systems are on the plane?

A

3

the AN/ARN-153 serves as the own aircraft TACAN system

112
Q

How far out can the TACAN operate?

A

220 NM of a surface TACAN or a cooperating aircraft

113
Q

For air-to-air TACAN, how many channels must the receiver be above or below the other aircraft?

A

63

114
Q

Which GCAS warnings can be cancelled?

A

GLIDESLOPE

TOO LOW FLAPS

115
Q

What modes are required for TCAS to operate?

A

S and C

116
Q

What is the difference between mode S and mode C?

A

Mode S transponders announce their presence by transmitting a squitter message once every second

Mode C does not transmit squitter messages

117
Q

How many intruders can TCAS track? How many are displayed on the Nav-Radar?

A

45

30

118
Q

What are the boundary limits of intruder detection for TCAS?

A

40 NM off the nose
15 NM either side of the aircraft
12 NM off the tail

119
Q

The TCAS processor receives an input from flap position to inhibit the increased climb maneuver anytime the flaps are extended beyond ___ percent.

A

40

120
Q

How far away is traffic if it is displayed as a white-filled diamond on TCAS?

A

within 6 nm AND within 1200 feet vertically

121
Q

E-TCAS boundary limits?

A

360 degrees out to 40 nm

122
Q

E-TCAS

Above-
Normal-
Below-

A

2700 below to 12700 above

2700 below to 2700 above

12700 below to 2700 above

123
Q

What are the eight operational modes of the LPCR?

A 
Map
Weather
Skin Paint
Monopulse Ground Map
Windshear
Beacon (ground and airborne)
Precision measurement
Integrated Precision Approach Radar
124
Q

What are the 4 processing techniques of the Map mode of the LPCR?

A

Monopulse Ground Map
Doppler Beam Sharpening
Monopulse Stabilized Doppler Beam Sharpening
Real Beam Ground Map

125
Q

What is the range of the Monopulse Ground Map mode of the LPCR?

A

> 40 nm

126
Q

Which scan speed is slower? Which has a better resolution?

Doppler Beam Sharpening or Monopulse Ground Map?

A

DBS

127
Q

When is Monopulse Stabilized Doppler Beam Sharpening used by the LPCR?

What is the range?

A

incorporates both MGM and DBS

At angles >10 degrees from the velocity vector it uses DBS

At angles <5 degrees from the velocity vector it uses MGM

Between 5 and 10 degrees it uses MSDBS out to 40 nm

128
Q

When is Real Beam Ground Map mode used by the LPCR?

A

during degraded radar operations

displays slant range rather than ground range

129
Q

In the weather mode of the LPCR, what is displayed at less than or equal to 40 nm?

A

weather plus turbulence data is provided

130
Q

In the weather mode of the LPCR, what is displayed in the 80 nm range scale?

A

weather plus turbulence to 50 nm

weather alone to 80 nm

for range scales >80 nm, turbulence is not provided

131
Q

What color is turbulence in the weather mode of the LPCR?

A

White

132
Q

What color does blue represent in the weather mode of the LPCR?

A

masked region/unknown

133
Q

Skin paint mode displays targets up to a range of what?

A

20 nm

134
Q

What does pressing MGM of the LPCR do?

A

selects MGM and inhibits DBS

135
Q

How far out is windshear hazard processed and displayed in the windshear mode of the LPCR?

A

up to 5 nm

136
Q

What does the windshear icon look like when displayed on the Nav-Radar?

A

red and black striped pattern

137
Q

How far out is windshear in relation to the following:

Level 1 Windshear Alert
Level 2 Windshear Alert
Level 3 Windshear Alert

A

> 3 nm

1.5 to 3 nm

< 1.5

138
Q

How far out can the Beacon mode of the LPCR display ground and airborne beacon transponders?

A

40 nm

139
Q

What does the Precision Measurement Mode of the LPCR do?

A

allows the LPCR to correct for certain map inaccuracies

140
Q

What are the four common cursor modes?

A

manual, ground, computer, quick

141
Q

Where does the manual cursor hang out in relation to the aircraft?

A

remains at a fixed distance from the aircraft at a fixed direction relative to the top of the master display, unless the cursor is slewed

142
Q

Where does the ground cursor hang out?

A

remains fixed relative to the ground unless the cursor is slewed

143
Q

Where does the computer cursor hang out?

A

remains fixed at the geographic coordinates of a specific target, even when the cursor is slewed.

144
Q

What does the EGI consist of?

A

global positioning and inertial navigation systems

145
Q

What are the three major segments of the GPS? What do they each consist of?

A

Space: GPS satellites, minimum of 4 are always observable

Control: master control station, monitor stations, ground antennas

User: variety of civilian and military organizations all over the world

146
Q

What makes INS different from GPS? What is the biggest error in regards to INS?

A

provides accurate navigation and position determination anywhere on earth, in any weather, without the aid of anything except pressure altitude from the DADS

inertial drift

147
Q

The normal mode Look Ahead Distance corresponds with how much travel ahead time of the aircraft?

What is the tactical mode of LAD?

A

40-60 seconds

50 percent shorter and narrower than normal

148
Q

TAWS

high density red

high density yellow

low density yellow

high density green

low density green

black

magenta

A

More than 2000 feet above current altitude

Between 1000 and 2000 feet above current altitude

Between 250 feet below and 1000 feet above current altitude

Between 250 feet below and 1000 feet below current altitude

Between 1000 and 2000 feet below current altitude

More than 2000 feet below current altitude

Unknown terrain

149
Q

What HDD does TAWS pop-up on?

A

HDD 3

HDD 2 if 3 is failed

150
Q

What does the Gamma Cutoff Envelope of the TAWS encompass?

A

begins 100 feet below aircraft present altitude and extends out to a maximum of 10 nm ahead of airplane along an angle which is set to 6 degrees below the current flight path angle of the airplane.

Once the a/c flight path angle reaches 9 degrees or greater, the cutoff angle is fixed to 3 degrees above the horizon. Can never point up more than 3 degrees. No limit for negative flight path angles

151
Q

What is considered a “critical phase of flight”?

A

all ground ops involving taxi, takeoff and landing

1000 feet prior to reaching assigned altitude during climb/descent

152
Q

When shall both pilots never be “heads down”?

A

Below 5000’ AGL

153
Q

When shall autothrottles be disconnected?

A

no later than crossing the threshold on approach

154
Q

What is the criteria for a stabilized approach?

A

Aircraft in a safe landing configuration

PA/NPA approach: +/- 1 dot of glideslope/CDI
PAR/ASR: No “well above/below” / “well right/left”

Proper airspeed: normal +/- 10 kts
max effort -3 to +10 kts

All briefings and checklists completed

No GCAS special alerts

155
Q

What are the 3 distinct phases of an emergency?

A
  1. establish and maintain a/c control, ensure its clear of terrain, accomplish bold face EPs
  2. complete remaining of checklists, review engine-out considerations, determine a course of action
  3. monitor/manage degraded systems, prepare for unscheduled landing if necessary
156
Q

What is the greatest danger of ice accumulation?

A

reduced aerodynamic efficiency of the aircraft

157
Q

What are some of the effects of ice accumulation?

A
  1. Increased takeoff distance, landing distance, and stall speeds
  2. Reduced rate of climb
  3. Increased power requirement, thus increasing fuel consumption and decreasing range and endurance
  4. Noticeable decrease in aircraft maneuverability, reduced directional stability and control at high sideslip angles, heavier than normal stall buffet when approaching stall speds
  5. Reduced engine power due to obstruction of the engine inlet air duct
158
Q

How could prolonged exposure to icing affect the radome?

A

Radome may accumulate ice that will not shed easily. This may result in degraded radar returns in the ground mapping mode within 30 degrees of the nose at ranges beyond 40 nm

159
Q

If ice is detected on takeoff roll and the wing/empennage ice protection is in AUTO or ON, when does the system become operative and what may result from it?

A

operative at 60 kts

result in a noticeable HP decrease. This decrease is more significant at higher density altitude, and may be as much as 30 percent

160
Q

The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and takeoff when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temp of 10 C or less. What could happen if its not on?

A

Ice may enter the engine air inlet and cause engine power fluctuations

This can cause the propeller to autofeather or damage the engine

161
Q

Which ice protection systems are not functional during taxi?

A

wing/empennage

propeller blade and aft spinner

162
Q

At pressure altitudes greater than 3000 ft, what should you do with the engine anti-ice if you have it switched ON?

A

Operate with it ON for a minimum of 3 minutes to stabilize engine temps before applying takeoff power. This will reduce the possibility of an ENG 1 (2,3,4) MGT HI ACAWS.

163
Q

If landing gear retraction is required following extended exposure to icing, what should you do?

A

cycle the gear at least once to remove accumulated ice before accelerating above gear limiting speed

164
Q

When should the wing/empennage ice protection not be operated in anti-icing mode?

A

Operation at power settings above 2500 HP at temps below -30 C or at pressure altitudes above 20,000 ft at any HP may degrade engine life

165
Q

When possible, change altitude to prevent icing. If climbing to a non-icing altitude is not possible, what should you do? What are some things you should consider?

A

a check of fuel flow vs ground speed should be made to determine if range will permit completion of the flight

OAT, nature of clouds, type of icing, duration of icing

166
Q

Why should you avoid high angles of attack during periods of transition from icing to melting conditions and/or ice shedding from the center wing section?

A

very likely that the shedding ice will strike the horizontal tail and possibly cause extensive damage to the horizontal tail leading edge

167
Q

What is the minimum power setting schedule that you need to maintain when descending in icing conditions?

A

1300 HP above 20,000 ft

Starting at 20,000 ft, reduces power 100 HP every 5000 ft until reaching 5000 ft

Below 5000 ft, at least 750 HP

168
Q

Wing/empennage ice protection system must be turned on in the anti-icing mode prior to final approach if icing is anticipated. What could happen if you don’t do this?

A

may cause ice accumulation on the vertical tail, resulting in limited crosswind landing capability

169
Q

For all landings where icing conditions have been encountered and ice may not have cleared, increase landing approach and threshold speeds by:

100 percent flaps
50 percent flaps
0 percent flaps

A

6 kts

10 kts

20 kts

170
Q

What causes icing in the engine inlet air duct?

What is an indication that this icing has occurred?

A

sudden drop in temperature resulting from pressure loss in the engine inlet air duct

falling HP indication

171
Q

Should you use autothrottles when flying through extreme turbulence or thunderstorms?

What about the autopilot?

A

No. Should be disengaged

Autopilot may be used and in some cases is desirable.

172
Q

What should you do with trim when flying through extreme turbulence or thunderstorms?

A

Trim the a/c to zero control force for the altitude and recommended airspeed. Avoid the use of elevator trim in controlling pitch attitude

173
Q

What can flying through heavy rain (magenta) do?

A
  1. Reduce lift by up to 30 percent at high AOAs such as during approach or missed approaches
  2. Increase drag up to 30 percent
  3. Cause the aircraft to slow down faster than normal when power is reduced
  4. Cause engine rollback and flameout
  5. Cause turbulence
174
Q

When do the windshield wipers become ineffective?

A

above 180 kts

175
Q

What is windshear?

A

rapid change in wind velocity and direction as well as vertical air movement

176
Q

When is windshear the greatest? When does it most commonly occur?

A

greatest ahead of warm fronts

most common following the passage of cold fronts during periods of gusty surface winds

177
Q

When a temperature change of __ F or more is reported across the front or if the front is moving at __ kts or more, conditions are conducive to windshear.

A

10

30

178
Q

What are some indications of windshear?

A

+/- 20 kts airspeed

+/- 500 fpm altitude changes

+/- 6 degrees pitch attitude changes

+/- 1.5 degrees glideslope deviation

179
Q

What should you be alert for, in regards to aircraft performance, when windshear is suspected?

A
  1. unusually steep or shallow rate of descent required to maintain glidepath
  2. unusually high or low power setting required to maintain approach airspeed
  3. large variation btwn reported surface wind and displayed winds
180
Q

When should you use cold weather procedures?

A

when 0 C and below

181
Q

When should you use hot weather procedures?

A

above 35 C (95F) with or without high humidity

182
Q

How do you establish long-range cruise?

A

set fuel flow and cross-check HP from the operating chart for the particular flight gross weight and altitude

183
Q

What are the 4 types of cruises we can fly?

A

Long Range
Constant TAS
Max Continuous
Max Endurance

184
Q

How far out does the HF radio hazard area extend?

A

15 ft

185
Q

How far out does the IRCM hazard area extend without safety glasses? With safety glasses?

A

12 ft

2 ft

186
Q

How far out does the infared light hazard area extend?

A

10 ft

187
Q

Why are engines normally started in LSGI?

A

provides a more gradual heating of the engine components

188
Q

On the ground, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, what should you do?

On subsequent starts, what is acceptable to see?

A

motor the engine for at least 30 seconds with the engine start switch in the MOTOR position.

flames out the tailpipe for a few seconds due to residual fuel

189
Q

If starting an engine with a windmilling prop (from wind), what could happen?

A

the FADEC may not perform the check of the propeller independent overspeed protection circuit.

190
Q

If the propeller independent overspeed protection circuit is not checked, what will happen?

A

the PROP 1(2,3,4) NO 119 percent PROTECT ACAWS will appear

191
Q

Can the engine be started with the propeller at any blade angle?

A

Yes

192
Q

What is the typical time from starter activation until NP is on speed? How long can you allow it to take?

A

30 seconds

Allow up to 2 minutes after NG is on speed

193
Q

When is fuel flow normally indicated on engine start?

A

at approx. 40 percent NG

194
Q

When will the FADEC shut off fuel if a start is not successful?

A

after 70 seconds from starter activation

195
Q

If an automatic shutdown occurs, what should you do before restarting?

A

place the ENGINE START switch to STOP and allow NG to decrease to 0 then wait 30 seconds before attempting a restart

196
Q

Why do we wait 30 seconds after NG reaches 0 before restarting an engine?

A

to enable a successful test of the NG independent overspeed protection circuit

197
Q

Can you motor an engine before NG reaches 0 on a restart?

A

Yes

198
Q

When do you pull the fire handle during engine starts?

A 
ENG FIRE
ENG MGT HI
START VLV OPEN
If MGT is rapidly increasing through the 6 oclock postion
Visible indications of a fire
Visible fluid leak
199
Q

When do you discontinue a start by placing the ENGINE START switch to STOP?

A 
No NG within 10 seconds
No oil px within 15 seconds of NG or NP rotation
ENG FLAMEOUT
ENG NO LIGHTOFF
ENG STAGNATED START
200
Q

When should normal hydraulic system px be indicated on an engine start?

A

within 30 seconds after propeller is on speed

201
Q

The OAT is 72F and the wing/empennage anti-ice test must be repeated. What do you do and why?

A

Because OAT is above 70F, we must wait 10 minutes before repeating the test to prevent overheating the vertical tail

202
Q

How long does the WING/EMP A/I TEST run for?

A

90 seconds

203
Q

Propeller ice protection system BIT requires how many engines in HSGI?

A

at least 2

204
Q

If the stick pusher test is attempted __ consecutive times, what do you do and why?

A

5

allow a minimum of 5 minutes of cooling time before attempting another test

This is to prevent failure of the stick pusher servo

205
Q

When might differential power be necessary while taxiing?

A

at aft center of gravity
in high winds
on slippery taxiways

206
Q

Is differential braking effective in turning the aircraft?

A

No, and if used excessively can cause structural damage

207
Q

On a soft or gravel runway/taxiway, a tight turn might result in what?

A

in the inboard tires sinking into the surface. If braking is used on the inboard side, the inboard tires may sink in so far that the aircraft will not be able to continue taxiing

208
Q

Why shouldn’t you taxi fast on rough terrain?

A

greatly increases the loads normally imposed on landing gear and wing structure and can cause structural damage and reduced component life

209
Q

If taxiing with two engines on and in LSGI, what should you have turned on?

A

aux hyd pump ON

EMER BRAKE SEL switch set to EMER to ensure adequate brake pressure

210
Q

If any engine is shut down during taxi with 2 or more other engines in HSGI, what must be placed OFF and why?

A

PROPELLER switches - to prevent possible damage to the propeller anti-ice boots

211
Q

Do you check the HUD radar altimeter or the PFD radar altimeter during the “Above the Line” checklist? Why?

A

The PFD must be used since the HUD will not depict a negative number

212
Q

HSGI should be selected by disengaging the LSGI buttons rather than by power lever movement. Why?

A

Movement of the power levers beyond LSGI range with ambient temperature above 27C may cause rpm stall and over temperature

213
Q

An abrupt release of deflected brake pedals could cause what? What should a mindful pilot do?

A

could possibly cause the brakes on the left side of the aircraft to remain partially engaged

pilot should smoothly release fully applied brakes pedals over approx. 2 seconds

214
Q

When does the rudder become effective?

A

at approx. 50-70 kts

215
Q

The normal takeoff performance data assumes a rotation rate of what?
Max effort takeoff?

A

3 degrees per second

5 degrees per second

216
Q

What causes an excursion in airspeed, altitude, and rate of climb when you retract or extend the landing gear?

A

an air disturbance around the pitot tubes caused when the forward nose gear door opens

217
Q

Normal Flap Retraction Schedule

A

< 100,000 lbs - raise flaps passing FUSS (135 KIAS)

100,000 to 140,000 lbs - being flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS (Vobs plus 25)

> 140,000 lbs - raise flaps in 10 percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (Vobs plus 5) and ending at FUSS (Vobs plus 25)

218
Q

After takeoff, when should you reduce power to max continuous?

A

after the flaps are retracted

219
Q

What is the normal climb speed schedule?

A

180 KIAS to 10,000 ft (4 eng climb above 165K)

170 KIAS to 15,000 ft (4 eng climb above 150K)

160 KIAS to 25,000 ft (4 eng climb above 130K)

4 engine climb speed above 25,000 ft

220
Q

What should you do to avoid sideslip control difficulties during a max effort climb?

A

limit angle of bank to 20 degrees until airspeed is above 120 kts

221
Q

Max Effort Flap Retraction Schedule

A

< 100,000 lbs - raise flaps passing FUSS (135 KIAS)

100,000 to 140,000 lbs - being flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS (Vobs plus 45)

> 140,000 lbs - raise flaps in 10 percent increments for each 5 knot increase in airspeed, beginning at Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (Vobs plus 25) and ending at FUSS (Vobs plus 45)

222
Q

How often should you check the center and side windscreens to ensure NESA operations?

A

once per flight

223
Q

Is the standby altimeter RVSM compliant?

A

No

224
Q

What is the maximum difference allowed between pilot and copilot altitudes during RVSM operations?

A

200 ft

225
Q

Are TAs alone sufficient enough to deviate from an assigned clearance?

A

No

226
Q

When does the clacker activate?

A

Vd plus 2 knots

227
Q

What are the two segments of a penetration descent?

A

The first from altitude down to 20,000 ft at speeds for max lift over drag with power levers at FLT IDLE and landing gear and flaps retracted

The second from 20,000 ft to sea level at 250 kts

228
Q

When should you refer to the LANDING WITH ICE ACCUMULATION procedure?

A

if icing is encountered on an approach within 6 minutes of landing

229
Q

If you turn on the anti-ice switch, how long can it take to ensure the vertical stabilizer is completely anti-iced?

A

as long as 2.5 minutes

230
Q

What is the bank angle limit capture for a non-precision approach?

Once on course?

A

25 degrees

10 degrees

231
Q

The autopilot is capable of intercepts up to what? What is the max recommended?

A

90 degrees

45 degrees

232
Q

Ground speed of less than __ kts is generally required to being a 90 degree turn.

A

20

233
Q

Stall warning margin varies significally with what?

A

aircraft power setting

234
Q

When are high speed landing procedures required?

A
  • 100 percent flap landings at weights above 155,000 lbs
  • 50 percent flap landings at weights above 130,000 lbs
  • All 0 percent flap landings
  • All landings at field elevation greater than 4000’ MSL
  • Temperature greater than ISA +15C, all landings at field elevation greater than 2000’ MSL
235
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for landing?

A

35 kts

236
Q

Do you have better roll control with 100 percent flap landings or 50 percent?

What about lower sideslip?

A

50 percent for both

237
Q

In strong crosswinds, what airspeed should be set 100 feet above the runway?

A

Threshold plus 5 kts

238
Q

To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over __ degrees during landing.

A

5

239
Q

7-102

A

7-102

NATOPS (8 decks)

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