Syspath400 -- reproductive pathologies (4-3) Flashcards

1
Q

class 4 – reproductive pathologies

A

Prenatal Pathologies
Gestational Tumors
Breast Pathologies

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2
Q

placenta previa

A

“Previa” is a combination of two words: “pre” (or “prae”) meaning before, and “via” meaning way. “Previa” in medicine, usually refers to anything obstructing the passage in childbirth. Literally therefore, vasa previa means “vessels in the way, before the baby”.

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3
Q

placenta previa is

A

Implantation of the placenta over or near cervix, in lower part of the uterus.

Placenta may completely or partially cover the opening of the cervix.

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4
Q

placenta previa – how common?

who is more affected?

A

Occurs in 1 of 200 deliveries,

usually in women who have had more than one pregnancy

or who have structural abnormalities of the uterus, such as fibroids.

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5
Q

common risk factor – placenta previa

A

Scars in the uterus are a common risk factor

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6
Q

placenta previa — incidence increasing or lowering?

A

Incidence increasing

possibly increased smoking/alcohol

and increased proportion of women giving birth at later age

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7
Q

placenta previa — bleeding

A

Placenta previa can cause painless bleeding from the vagina that suddenly begins late in pregnancy.

The blood may be bright red.

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8
Q

can placenta previa be life-threatening?

A

Bleeding may become profuse, endangering the life of the woman and the fetus

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9
Q

how is placenta previa identified?

A

Ultrasonography helps doctors identify placenta previa and distinguish it from a placenta that has detached prematurely.

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10
Q

what happens if profuse bleeding during placenta previa?

A

When bleeding is profuse, women may be hospitalized until delivery, especially if the placenta is located over the cervix.

Women who bleed profusely may need repeated blood transfusions.

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11
Q

what happens if there is not significant bleeding during placenta previa

A

When bleeding is slight and delivery is not imminent, doctors typically advise bed rest in the hospital.

If the bleeding stops and does not recur, women are usually sent home, provided that they can return to the hospital easily.

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12
Q

is vaginal birth common for placenta previa?

A

A caesarean section is almost always performed before labour begins.

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13
Q

what can happen when women with placenta previa go into labour?

A

If women with placenta previa go into labour, the placenta tends to become detached very early, depriving the baby of its oxygen supply.

—> The lack of oxygen may result in brain damage or other problems.

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14
Q

ABRUPTIO PLACENTAE

A

Aka placental abruption

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15
Q

placental abruption is

A

Placental abruption is the premature detachment of a normally positioned placenta from the wall of the uterus. The placenta may detach incompletely (sometimes just 10 to 20%) or completely.

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16
Q

placental abruption, cause

A

The cause is usually unknown.

see risk factors

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17
Q

placental abruption, risk factors

A

Tobacco use

Mother is younger than 20 or older than 35

Fibroids

Previous c-section

high BP
(including preeclampsia)

cocaine-use

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18
Q

how commonly does placental detachment occur

A

Detachment of the placenta occurs in up to 1% of all deliveries.

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19
Q

preeclampsia

A

Etymology. The word “eclampsia” is from the Greek term for lightning.

“perhaps alluding to how suddenly and unexpectedly convulsions may arise.”

____

a condition in pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure, sometimes with fluid retention and proteinuria.

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20
Q

ABRUPTIO PLACENTAE – bleeding/hemorrhage

A

The uterus bleeds from the site where the placenta was attached.

The blood may pass through the cervix and out the vagina as an external hemorrhage,

or it may be trapped behind the placenta as a concealed hemorrhage.

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21
Q

placental abruption, SSx

A

Symptoms depend on the degree of detachment and the amount of blood lost (which may be massive).

Symptoms may include sudden continuous or crampy abdominal pain, tenderness when the abdomen is pressed, and shock.

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22
Q

complications of premature detachment (placental abruption)

A

can lead to widespread clotting inside the blood vessels (DIC),

kidney failure,

and bleeding into the walls of the uterus, esp. in women who also have preeclampsia.

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23
Q

kidney failure vs blood loss

A

“Heavy blood loss, an injury, or a bad infection called sepsis can reduce blood flow to the kidneys. Not enough fluid in the body (dehydration) also can harm the kidneys.”

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24
Q

what happens to fetus during placental abruption

A

When the placenta detaches, the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus may be reduced.

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25
Q

how is placental abruption diagnosed

A

Doctors suspect premature detachment of the placenta on the basis of symptoms.

Ultrasonography can confirm the diagnosis.

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26
Q

how are women with placental abruption treated?

A

Women with premature detachment of placenta are hospitalized.

Treatment is bed rest.

If symptoms lessen, women may be discharged from the hospital.

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27
Q

what happens if bleeding worsens during placental disruption?

A

If bleeding continues or worsens or if the pregnancy is near term, an early delivery is often best for the woman and the baby.

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28
Q

placental abruption – vaginal birth?

A

If vaginal delivery is not possible, a c-section is performed.

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29
Q

HYDATIDIFORM mole

A

The first part of the name ‘hydatidiform’ comes from the Greek word ‘hydatid’ meaning droplet

These droplets appear to burrow into the wall of the uterus, hence the name mole.

In a complete molar pregnancy, the growth stops a fetus from developing.

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30
Q

HYDATIDIFORM MOLE aka

A

Aka molar pregnancy

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31
Q

hydatidiform mole is

A

growth of an abnormal fertilized egg

These growths are not viable

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32
Q

complete vs incomplete mole

A

Complete mole (46 XX or 46 XY)

Incomplete mole (69 XXY or 92 XXXY)

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33
Q

hydatidiform mole pathogenesis – vs normal

A

Normally, the fetus has 46 chromosomes, half of which have been inherited from the mother and the other half from the father

The cells of the complete mole (molar pregnancy) have a 46 XX or 46 XY KARYOTYPE;
—>
all of which have been inherited from the father.

—> 46 YY is not seen

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34
Q

karyotype define

A

“the number and visual appearance of the chromosomes in the cell nuclei of an organism or species.”

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35
Q

who passes on genetics for hydatidiform moles (COMPLETE MOLE)?

A

“all of which have been inherited from the father.”

(for complete moles)

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36
Q

what happens to maternal chromosomes during fertilization?

(in hydatidiform mole pathogenesis)

A

During fertilization the maternal chromosomes are lost and the paternal chromosomes (23X or 23Y) duplicate, bringing the number of chromosomes to 46

—> Thus, the hydatidiform mole has the correct number of chromosomes but the incorrect genetic makeup

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37
Q

pathogenesis of INCOMPLETE moles

A

involves mother and father

The incomplete moles (partial molar pregnancy) evolve from the oocytes fertilized with 1 or 2 spermatozoa;

—> the sperm duplicate; therefore, the cells have 69 or 92 chromosomes – one set from the mother and TWO sets from the father

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38
Q

hydatidiform moles – risk factors

A

The risk of hydatidiform moles is highest for women who become pregnant before age 17 or in their late 30s or later.

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39
Q

hydatidiform moles – rate

A

Hydatidiform moles occur in about 1 of 2,000 pregnancies in the United States and,

for unknown reasons, are nearly 10 times more common among Asian women

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40
Q

hydatidiform moles — clinical manifestations

what happens to abdomen?

A

Women who have a hydatidiform mole feel as if they are pregnant.

But because hydatidiform moles grow much faster than a fetus, the abdomen becomes larger much faster than it does in a normal pregnancy.

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41
Q

hydatidiform moles – SSx

A

Severe nausea and vomiting are common,

vaginal bleeding may occur.

—>
These symptoms indicate the need for prompt evaluation by a doctor.

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42
Q

hydatidiform moles – complications

A

infections,
bleeding,
and preeclampsia
or eclampsia

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43
Q

eclampsia

A

a condition in which one or more convulsions occur in a pregnant woman suffering from high blood pressure, often followed by coma and posing a threat to the health of mother and baby.

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44
Q

hydatidiform mole, Dx

A

Often, hydatidiform mole is diagnosed shortly after conception.

No fetal movement and heartbeat are detected.

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45
Q

what can happen as a result of mole decay?

where does the decayed tissue go?

what does it resemble?

A

As parts of the mole decay, small amounts of tissue that resemble a bunch of grapes may pass through the vagina.

—>
After examining this tissue under a microscope, a pathologist can confirm the diagnosis.

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46
Q

hydatidiform mole — other Dx techniques

blood test type?

A

Ultrasonography may be performed.

hCG blood test
—>
hCG level is higher if a hydatidiform mole is present
—>
(mole produces a large amount of this hormone.)

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47
Q

hydatidiform mole, Tx

A

surgery / D&C

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48
Q

D&C

A

dilation and curettage

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49
Q

hydatidiform moles vs INVASIVE moles

how commonly do hydatidiform moles become invasive?

A

About 15 to 20% of hydatidiform moles invade the surrounding tissue and tend to persist.

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50
Q

what is a complication of invasive moles?

A

Of these invasive moles, 2 to 3% become cancerous and spread throughout the body;

they are then called
choriocarcinomas.

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51
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

Choriocarcinoma is a fast-growing cancer that occurs in a woman’s uterus (womb).

The abnormal cells start in the tissue that would normally become the placenta.

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52
Q

choriocarcinoma – metastasis

A

Can spread quickly through
the lymphatic vessels or
bloodstream

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53
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

A malignant tumour composed of cytotrophoblastic and syncytiotrophoblastic cells

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54
Q

cytotrophoblast

A

“‘Cytotrophoblast’ is the name given to both the inner layer of the trophoblast (also called layer of Langhans) or the cells that live there. It is interior to the syncytiotrophoblast and external to the wall of the blastocyst in a developing embryo.”

“The syncytiotrophoblast (from the Greek ‘syn’- “together”; ‘cytio’- “of cells”; ‘tropho’- “nutrition”; ‘blast’- “bud”) is the epithelial covering of the highly vascular embryonic placental villi, which invades the wall of the uterus to establish nutrient circulation between the embryo and the mother. It is a multinucleate, terminally differentiated syncytium, extending to 13 cm.”

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55
Q

where does choriocarcinoma originate?

A

In 50% of cases, choriocarcinoma arises from preexisting complete moles

in 25% it arises from placental cells retained after miscarriage

25% arises from normal placenta after completion of a normal pregnancy

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56
Q

which mole type can give rise to choriocarcinoma (via invasive moles?)

A

COMPLETE MOLES

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57
Q

choriocarcinoma cells are highly ____ and secrete ____

A

Cells are highly invasive, secrete hCG

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58
Q

choriocarcinoma – what blood test is used to detect amount of tumour tissue?

A

hCG levels are used for estimating the amount of tumour tissue and for monitoring tumour tissue recurrence after chemotherapy

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59
Q

what can choriocarcinoma form in placental bed?

A

Choriocarcinoma forms bulky HEMORRHAGIC NODULES in the placental bed

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60
Q

where can choriocarcinoma implant?

A

It invades through the walls of the uterus and often implants in the vagina

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61
Q

where can choriocarcinoma metastasize?

A

invading the veins, it metastasizes to…

lung(s),
liver,
brain

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62
Q

where does choriocarcinoma most COMMONLY metastasize to?

A

brain

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63
Q

despite high rate of metastasis, does choriocarcinoma respond well to Treatment if detected early?

A

Yes.

Fortunately, this tumour responds well to combination of chemotherapy and medications

—> Cure rates of 80% to 100% have been achieved but only in those patients who do not have brain metastases

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64
Q

Mastitis

typically caused by ___

A

mastos = breast

Typically is caused by purulent bacteria, such as staphylococcus or streptococcus

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65
Q

how do microbes invade breasts?

A

The microbes invade the breast
through the dilated milk ducts
or through skin lacerations or
minor injuries acquired during suckling

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66
Q

mastitis usually affects women who are ____

A

Usually affects woman who are lactating (acute)

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67
Q

how common is mastitis

A

The most common inflammatory disease of the breast

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68
Q

under what circumstance can mastitis occur more commonly?

A

Stagnant milk in breast that has not been fully emptied by suckling provides a good growth medium for the bacteria

(plugged ducts)

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69
Q

can mastitis spread throughout a larger area of breasts?

A

Yes

Acute inflammation may spread through the entire breast

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70
Q

what can form as a complication of mastitis?

A

can cause a localized abscess to form

lesion develops quickly and causes localized or diffuse swelling of the breast

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71
Q

mastitis – how does the affected area feel?

A

The inflamed area appears red, is painful, and is sensitive to palpation

(point tenderness)

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72
Q

mastitis – what happens to fluid?

which cells invade area?

A

The entire area is edematous

is infiltrated with numerous acute inflammatory cells, mostly polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)

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73
Q

under what circumstances can abscesses form during mastitis?

A

The excretory ducts may contain pus, and if massive suppuration occurs in conjunction with destruction of tissue, an abscess will develop.

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74
Q

how can abscess formation be prevented

A

However, this does not usually happen if acute mastitis is recognized early and the lesion is properly treated

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75
Q

mastitis – Tx

A

Treatment - antibiotics and emptying the breast

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76
Q

Benign breast disease / Fibroadenoma

A

..

Common, benign breast irregularities

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77
Q

other names for benign breast disease

A

aka mammary dysplasia

(formerly fibrocystic breast disease)

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78
Q

benign breast disease / fibroadenoma

can be described as “____”

A

“Tissue nodularity”

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79
Q

clinical manifestations

A

Bilateral and cyclical swelling, discomfort, tenderness, pain

Mastalgia

Nodularity – regular, firm, mobile, rubbery

Nipple discharge

Infections and inflammation

Fluctuations in size

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80
Q

etiology

A

Idiopathic

Related to estrogen levels (pregnancy, lactation, menopause)

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81
Q

Dx

A

Examination
Palpation
Mammogram
Biopsy

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82
Q

Tx

A

Analgesics
Local heat/cold
Adequate support

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83
Q

fat necrosis

A

Sometimes the normal fat cells in the breast become round, firm lumps made up of damaged fatty tissue. This is called fat necrosis of the breast.

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84
Q

is fat necrosis in the breast painful?

A

The lumps may or may not be painful.

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85
Q

fat necrosis of breast — most common in which individuals?

A

This problem is most often seen in obese women who have very large breasts or after an injury to a breast.

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86
Q

fat necrosis can be caused by

A

Can be caused by an injury or blow to the breast.

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87
Q

skin around lump can look ____

A

Sometimes the skin around this lump looks red or bruised.

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88
Q

after what type of injury can fat necrosis of breasts occur?

A

Sometimes seen following a MVA in
which the seat belt has forcefully
squeezed the breast

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89
Q

fat necrosis of breasts – pathogenesis

A

The inadequate blood supply causes some cells to die and release particles of fat.

—> These drain to the surface. The remaining tissue may become hard or calcified.

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90
Q

is fat necrosis of breasts common?

A

Fat necrosis of the breast is uncommon.

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91
Q

breast cancer – mortality?

A

Second leading cause of cancer death among women

—> Lung cancer is 1st (?)

92
Q

is mortality d/t breast cancer increasing or decreasing?

A

Mortality decreasing due to earlier diagnosis and better treatment

93
Q

breast cancer – etiology / risk factors

A

Age
Gender
Personal or family history of breast cancer

Late first pregnancy, late menopause

Prolonged use of oral contraceptives or estrogen therapy

Ethnicity
Weight gain/obesity
Alcohol use

Breast cancer gene (BRCA 1 and 2)

Radiation exposure

94
Q

BRCA mutation (?)

A

“BReast CAncer gene.”

“Every human has both the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes.”

cancer d/t abnormal mutation (?)

95
Q

breast cancer classification

A

Breast cancer is classified by the kind of tissue in which the cancer starts and by the extent of its spread.

96
Q

ductal carcinoma

A

Breast cancer that starts in
the milk ducts is called
ductal carcinoma (80%)

97
Q

lobular carcinoma

A

Breast cancer that starts in
the milk-producing glands
(lobules) is called lobular
carcinoma (20%)

98
Q

types of ductal carcinoma

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)

Invasive lobular carcinoma

Medullary, tubular and mucinous carcinoma

Inflammatory breast cancer (IBC)

Paget’s disease of
the nipple

99
Q

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

A

most common type of in situ cancer; precancerous; highly treatable (30%)

100
Q

Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)

&
Invasive lobular carcinoma

A

most common invasive breast cancer; begins
in a duct,

breaks through the
duct wall; invades fatty tissue

with further metastasis possible
through lymphatic vessels

____

ILC:
grows through the wall of the lobule and spreads via lymphatics or circulatory system (15%)

101
Q

(Invasive lobular carcinoma)

A

grows through the wall of the lobule and spreads via lymphatics or circulatory system (15%)

102
Q

Medullary, tubular and mucinous carcinoma

A

uncommon ductal carcinomas; invasive but better outcome than other types (<10%)

103
Q

(other classification)

Inflammatory breast cancer (IBC)

A

rare, aggressive, invasive ductal cancer; presents similar to an infection with warmth, redness, lymphatic blockage

104
Q

Paget’s disease of
the nipple

A

rare ductal
cancer arising near ducts
of nipple; symptoms
include itching, flaking,
bleeding nipple

105
Q

breast cancer – clinical manifestations

A

Asymmetry
Lump
Puckering
Pain
Tender lymph nodes
Bruising

106
Q

breast cancer, metastasis

A

Local extension may involve the chest wall, ribs, pleura, lungs, bronchi, vertebrae

Can spread via lymph nodes to lungs, liver, bone, adrenals, skin, brain

107
Q

where does breast cancer commonly metastasize to?

A

Most commonly mets to bone – vertebrae, pelvis, hip, ribs, femur, humerus

108
Q

breast cancer – early detection via

A

Self breast examinations (SBE)

Clinical breast exam (CBE)

Mammography

Genetic testing

109
Q

breast cancer – Dx

A

Palpation
Mammography
Biopsy
X-ray

110
Q

Breast cancer – Tx

A

Radiation
Chemotherapy
Medications
Surgery

111
Q

breast cancer – prevention

A

Physical activity
Weight control
Alcohol restriction
Meds
Diet and supplements
Risk reduction mastectomy

112
Q

CLASS 3

A

Female Reproductive and Perinatal Pathologies

113
Q

Ovarian Cysts aka

A

functional cysts

aka unruptured follicles

114
Q

ovarian cysts, benign or malignant ?

A

benign

115
Q

ovarian cysts – etiology?

A

idiopathic

116
Q

ovarian cysts, more commonly symptomatic or asymptomatic?

A

generally asymptomatic

117
Q

under what circumstances do ovarian cysts resolve?

A

resolve spontaneously

118
Q

when symptomatic, ovarian cyst SSx & clinical manifestations include …

A

pain

twisting of ovary

vomiting

bleeding

119
Q

note

A

Ovarian follicles enlarge during the proliferative stage of the menstrual cycle and transform into graafian follicles.

Only one graafian follicle ruptures at ovulation

120
Q

follicular cysts

A

Follicles that have not ruptured may remain filled with follicular fluid and may further enlarge into fluid-filled FOLLICULAR CYSTS

121
Q

corpus luteum cysts

A

If the ovulated follicle transforms into a corpus luteum but does not involute and transform into a fibrotic corpus albicans, its cavity could fill with fluid forming a CORPUS LUTEUM CYST

122
Q

polycystic ovarian syndrome – aka

A

Stein-Leventhal syndrome

123
Q

polycystic ovarian syndrome =

A

Systemic metabolic endocrine disorder affecting pre-menopausal women

124
Q

PCOS SSx/pathogenesis d/t …

A

Symptoms are due to excessive androgen levels

125
Q

PCOS is the MOST COMMON ____ of ____ women

A

Most common endocrine ENDOCRINE DISORDER of young to middle-aged women

126
Q

PCOS etiology

A

Unclear etiology

genetic and environmental factors seem to play a large role

127
Q

PCOS occurs in ___% of women in ___

A

Common, occurring in 20% of women (US)

128
Q

PCOS is one of the most common causes of ____

A

INFERTILITY

One of the most common causes of infertility

129
Q

PCOS – clinical manifestations

A

Variable

Abdominal pressure
Pain
Abdominal bloating

Discomfort during urination, BM, or intercourse

130
Q

PCOS, more clinical manifestations

A

Irregular menstruation
Infertility

Metabolic syndrome

Hirsutism
Acne
Male pattern baldness

cysts (not necessarily common)

131
Q

PCOS – cysts??

A

often no cysts @ ovaries

despite its name – not commonly occurring with cysts

132
Q

PCOS – Dx

A

History
Pelvic exam
Imaging
Lab tests

133
Q

PCOS – what kind of lab tests?

A

Blood, endocrine

134
Q

PCOS – Tx

A

Hormones
—>
Oral contraceptives

Surgery

Manage weight and/or diabetes

135
Q

Ovarian cancers/neoplasms – classificaiton

A

Complex group of benign and malignant lesions

136
Q

ovarian cancers – benign vs malignant – which is more common?

A

Benign tumours are more common than malignant

137
Q

ovarian cancers – how does size of neoplasm correlate with whether malignant vs benign

A

Larger tumours tend to be benign

138
Q

most common and second most common gynecologic cancer?

A

uterine cancer = most common

ovarian cancer = 2nd most common

139
Q

gynecology – etymology

A

Etymology. The word gynaecology comes from the oblique stem (γυναικ-) of the Greek word γυνή (gyne) meaning ‘woman’, and -logia meaning ‘study’.

140
Q

uterine cancer vs ovarian cancer (malignant)

—> Which has higher mortality?

A

ovarian cancer

Ranked 1st for death caused by gynecologic cancer

141
Q

ovarian cancers – other method for classification

A

Classified according to…
HISTOLOGY and TYPE OF SECRETION

142
Q

ovarian cancer – is diagnosis considered simple or challenging?

A

Diagnosis is difficult and often delayed

143
Q

ovarian cancers – etiology and risk factors

A

Poorly understood

Hormonal, genetic, environmental factors

144
Q

family history and ovarian cancer

which cancers in the family increase risk for ovarian cancer?

A

breast or ovarian cancer

Family history of breast or ovarian cancer

Even breast cancer in family hx can increase risk for ovarian cancer

145
Q

ovulation vs ovarian cancer (risk factor)

A

The more times a woman ovulates, the higher the risk for ovarian cancer

146
Q

ovarian neoplasms – clinical manifestations

A

Abdominal bloating
Abdominal discomfort/pain
Diarrhea
Bleeding

Ovarian torsion
Umbilical lump

Hirsutism

147
Q

can ovarian cancer be asymptomatic – when is it typically asymptomatic?

A

Asymptomatic especially early

148
Q

Mucinous Cystadenoma – benign or malignant?

A

benign, cystic tumor

149
Q

are mucinous cystadenomas specific to ovaries?

A

No.

can occur in other locations:
ovaries, pancreas, appendix, fallopian tubes, lungs, urinary bladder, and liver

150
Q

mucinous cystadenoma at ovaries – is it usually UNILATERAL or BILATERAL?

A

Usually unilateral

151
Q

what is in the cavity of these tumors

A

filled with thick yellowish or white jellylike material

152
Q

what happens if mucinous cystadenoma ruptures?

A

If these tumours rupture
the entire belly is filled
with mucus - colloquially referred to as “JELLY BELLY”

–> “belly” of ovary?

153
Q

Serous Cystadenoma

A

They often consist of SEVERAL CYSTS lumped together within a COMMON OUTER CAPSULE

154
Q

cavity of serous cystadenomas contain ____

A

serous fluid-like substance

—>
The cavity of these tumours is filled with clear fluid resembling serous fluid

155
Q

serous cystadenoma – benign or malignant?

A

benign

156
Q

serous cystadenoma – description

A

“Ovarian serous cystadenomas are a type of benign ovarian epithelial tumor at the benign end of the spectrum of ovarian serous tumors.”

157
Q

benign teratoma

A

Germ cell tumour

158
Q

recall “TERATOMA”

A

“a tumor composed of tissues not normally present at the site (the site being typically in the gonads).”

“A teratoma is a type of germ cell tumor — a tumor that starts in your reproductive cells like eggs and sperm.”

“Most teratomas are benign (noncancerous)”

159
Q

benign teratoma – AKA

A

Often called DERMOID CYSTS

160
Q

(benign) teratoma presents as…

A

Teratoma presents as a cyst lined on the inside with HAIRY SKIN

161
Q

wall of benign teratoma tumour often contains ___

A

The wall of the tumour
contains other tissues,
most often TEETH AND CARTILAGE

Also
—> The skin appendages,
such as sebaceous and
sweat glands, secret
sebum and sweat into
the cavity

162
Q

Benign Teratoma – what happens to these other types of tissues?

A

This remains there and decomposes into malodorous, mushy material

(When the tumour is resected and the cavity is opened , the contents stink, the same way our skin would stink if it were not washed for a few years)

163
Q

are (benign) teratomas resected?

A

yes

164
Q

why are teratomas resected?

A

can potentially in rare circumstances become malignant

—>
If they are left in place, the skin and other tissues on its wall may gradually undergo malignant transformation

165
Q

under what circumstances can benign teratomas become malignant?

A

This usually occurs at an older age; although it is rare, and should not occur at all if the woman is under appropriate gynecologic supervision

166
Q

Primary (malignant) tumours of ovaries

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

(Serous) papillary cystadenocarcinoma

167
Q

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

A

filled with clear fluid

168
Q

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

A

filled with mucous

169
Q

Serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma

A

tumour elements are arranged as finger-like processes

170
Q

most common malignant ovarian cancer?

A

Serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma accounts for 40% of all ovarian cancer

and most common malignant tumor

171
Q

secondary tumours originating from ovaries

A

Metastasize from other malignancies

172
Q

which cancers commonly metastasize to ovaries?

A

Metastases involving the ovaries originate most often from carcinomas of the ENDOMETRIUM and BREAST

breast cancer
uterine cancer

173
Q

why do secondary ovarian cancers commonly originate from breasts/uterus?

A

These tumours often have estrogen receptors, which could explain their predilection for metastasizing to the ovaries

174
Q

what other structure does ovarian cancer commonly metastasize from?

A

GI TRACT

Tumours of the GI tract also metastasize to ovaries

175
Q

carcinoma of stomach vs ovaries

A

E.g. carcinoma of the stomach, which tends to produce bilateral enlargement of the ovaries

(Krukenberg tumours)

176
Q

malignant ovarian tumours – Dx

A

Difficult and often delayed due to lack of symptoms or lack of specific symptoms

177
Q

malignant tumours of ovaries – Tx

A

Surgery
Chemotherapy

178
Q

HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM

A

hyper vomiting + pregnant woman

“The word gravidarum is a Latin word that means ‘pregnant woman’”

179
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum =

A

Severe nausea and uncontrollable vomiting during pregnancy

180
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum results in ___

A

dehydration, starvation and ketosis

181
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum – Dx

A

Diagnosis is clinical and by measurement of:

urine ketones,
serum electrolytes,
and renal function.

182
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum – Tx

A

Treatment is with …
IV fluids,
antiemetics,
and temporary suspension of oral intake

183
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum VS. morning sickness

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum is distinguished from morning sickness by weight loss

—> Morning sickness does not last as long

184
Q

HG vs morning sickness

A

“Unlike regular pregnancy sickness, HG may not get better by 16 to 20 weeks. It may not clear up completely until the baby is born, although some symptoms may improve at around 20 weeks. See your GP or midwife if you have severe nausea and vomiting. Getting help early can help you avoid dehydration and weight loss.”

185
Q

HG – etiology

A

Etiology - unknown

186
Q

HG – what can dehydration lead to?

A

Dehydration can cause dangerous shifts in the electrolyte levels in the blood

187
Q

what can happen to blood pH during HG

A

blood becomes too ACIDIC

188
Q

HG and liver, brain, esophagus – (complications)

A

may cause serious
—> liver damage,
—> encephalopathy,
—> esophageal rupture

189
Q

under what conditions does HG affect liver, brain, esophagus?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum that persists past 18 wks

is uncommon

190
Q

HG and eye – (complication)

A

Another serious complication is bleeding in the retina of the eye (HEMORRHAGIC RETINITIS)

191
Q

what is a potential cause for HG —> hemorrhagic rinitis ?

A

can be caused by increased blood pressure
during vomiting

192
Q

HG, Tx

A

IV rehydration and vitamin therapy

Termination of pregnancy if the mother’s life is in danger

193
Q

TOXEMIA – two types

A

preeclampsia and eclampsia,

the latter is more severe
(LIGHTNING)

194
Q

toxemia – etiology?

A

Etiology unknown

195
Q

toxemia (preeclampsia / eclampsia) occurs as a result of …

A

Occurs as a result of an abnormally functioning PLACENTA

or abnormal maternoplacental interaction

196
Q

pre-eclampsia =

A

pregnancy-induced HYPERTENSION and PROTEINURIA

197
Q

ECLAMPSIA

A

unexplained generalized seizures in patients with preeclampsia

198
Q

when can pre-eclampsia & eclampsia occur during pregnancy?

A

typically develop between 20 wk gestation and the end of the 1st wk postpartum

—> However, can occur as late as 4 weeks postpartum

199
Q

what percentage of pregnant women does pre-eclampsia affect?

A

affects 3 to 7% of pregnant women

200
Q

which groups are more commonly affected by pre-eclampsia?

A

usually primigravidas

and women with pre-existing hypertension or vascular disorders

(e.g., renal disorders, diabetic vasculopathy).

201
Q

primigravida define

A

a woman who is pregnant for the first time.

202
Q

other risk factors for pre-eclampsia / toxemia

A

maternal age < 20,

a family history of preeclampsia, eclampsia (?)

or poor outcome in previous pregnancies,

multifetal pregnancy,
obesity,

and thrombotic disorders (DIC)

203
Q

toxemia – clinical manifestations

A

Edema
Weight gain

Petechiae

204
Q

severe pre-eclampsia – clinical manifestations

A

may cause organ damage;

headache,
visual disturbances,
confusion,
abdominal pain,
nausea,
vomiting,
shortness of breath

205
Q

pre-eclampsia / pregnancy toxemia — vs neuromuscular activity

A

Increased reflex reactivity, indicating neuromuscular irritability, can progress to seizures (ECLAMPSIA)

206
Q

pregnancy toxemia – Dx

A

Clinical picture
Hypertension
Proteinuria

207
Q

pregnancy toxemia – Tx

A

Delivery
Bed rest

Increased fluid intake
Decreased salt intake

208
Q

what happens if eclampsia is not treated?

A

Untreated eclampsia can be fatal

209
Q

EP

A

AKA “tubal pregnancy” (usually)

The fetus develops outside the uterus - in the fallopian tubes (m/c), the cervical canal, or the pelvic or abdominal wall

210
Q

one of the most common primary causes of maternal death in the world

A

EP

211
Q

EP – risk factors

A

Increasing maternal age
PID
Cigarette smoking
Endometriosis

STI (chlamydia trachomatis)

IUD

212
Q

EP – incidence

A

Increasing incidence

—> perhaps due to higher average age of having children for women

213
Q

EP – clinical manifestations

A

Variable

Pelvic pain
Cramps
Irregular bleeding (possibly leading to hypotension)

Amenorrhea

Fainting (if blood loss d/t fallopian tube rupture)

214
Q

EP – clinical manifestations (continued)

A

Death (tubal rupture)

Fatigue
Nausea

Breast tenderness

Increased urinary frequency

215
Q

EP – Dx

A

Pelvic mass
Clinical picture (physical exam)
Blood tests
US

216
Q

EP – Tx

A

Surgery

(or methotrexate?)

217
Q

MISCARRIAGE

A

Noninduced embryonic or fetal death

or passage of products of conception before the 20th week of pregnancy.

218
Q

miscarriage – incidence?

A

10-15%

Incidence of spontaneous abortion is about 10 to 15% in confirmed pregnancies.

219
Q

MISCARRIAGE – is incidence accurate?

Why?

A

Incidence is probably higher than accounted for,

because some very early abortions are mistaken for a late menstrual period

220
Q

which viruses may be responsible for spontaneous abortion ?

A

CMV,
herpes,
rubella

221
Q

what other pathologies may be responsible for spontaneous abortion?

A

autoimmune disease,
diabetes,
hypertension,
chromosomal abnormalities,
hormone deficiencies/excess,
etc

222
Q

miscarriage – SSx

A

crampy pelvic pain,

bleeding,

expulsion of tissue

223
Q

how can infection occur with miscarriage?

A

If products of conception remain in the uterus after spontaneous abortion infection may also develop, causing fever, pain, and sometimes sepsis.

224
Q

stillbirth vs miscarriage

A

miscarriage = before 20th week

stillbirth = after 20th week

225
Q
A