Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

mike Mike > Sys 3 > Flashcards

Sys 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Does APU have self-sealing fuel lines?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

APU system provides what two powers/purpose?

A

Pneumatic (main engine starting and cabin heating) and electrical (ground operations and in flight emergency electrical power).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You can operate the aircraft without the APU but you risk:

A

Not being able to do certain inflight EPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

APU accumulator minimum pressure:

A

2800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which fuel cell does the APU use?

A

1 fuel cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

APU oil reservoir contains how much oil?

A

3 qts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the APU generator cooled?

A

Air cooled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Limitation of APU Generator?

A

Cant power backup hydraulic pump and windshield anti ice at the same time. Backup hydraulic pump takes priority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If the APU Generator Control Unit (GCU) detects an overload, the APU generator will:

A

Be taken off line and the APU GEN ON advisory light will extinguish.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What action is taken when APU OIL HOT caution appears?

A

APU shutdown immediately. After a 30 minute cooling period and oil level is okay, the APU may be restarted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Electronic Sequencing Unit (ESU) will shut down the APU and provide a BIT code for any problems detected except:

A

APU OIL HOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If APU fails, you must do what before attempting another start?

A

Check APU BIT codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The accumulator provides hydraulic pressure for driving the:


A

APU hydraulic starter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When AC power is applied to the aircraft, the backup pump will recharge the accumulator in:

A

90 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If AC electrical power is not available, only the reserve fire bottle can be discharged and fire extinguishing capability will be lost to which engine?

A

2 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What 3 things occur when the APU Fire T Handle is pulled?

A

Fuel to the APU is shut off, a stop signal is sent to the ESU, the fire extinguishing system arms and the directional control valve is set to the APU compartment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The Mixture Temperature Sensor shuts off at what temperature?

A

90-96C and turns back on once cools off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 possible heated air sources for the aircraft on the ground?

A

Bleed air from engines, APU, and external power/source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What would you do to get outside air into the cockpit with heat applied?

A

Turn on the vent blower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The flame detectors are solid state photoconductive cells providing continuous volume optical survelliance of the monitored areas. There are 5 total with _ wall mounted on engines and APU and _ mounted on the engine deck.

A

3 & 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Photoconductive cells sense what type of source to be triggered?

A

IR source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The thermal discharge safety port missing plug indicates that:

A

One or both containers have discharged due to over pressurization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If there is a fire with no AC electrical power applied to the helicopter, which fire extinguisher must be discharged?

A

Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fire extinguish agent cannot be discharged into engine #2 if:

A

AC electrical power is not applied to helicopter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Always attempt what during a fire before executing emergency procedure?

A

Visually confirming fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is there a caution or advisory for electrical fire?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Upon impact of a crash of 10g or more, the omni directional inertia switch automatically fires both cartridges attached to the containers releasing fire extinguishing agent into where?

A

Both engine compartments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where must the windshield wiper switch be turned to in order to return them inboard?

A

PARK and then will spring release to OFF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Windshield wipers should not be operated:

A

On a dry windshield.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is authorized to improve windshield visibility?

A

Rain reppelant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The temperature of each panel is controlled to heat to about:

A

43C (a circuit will prevent burnout when windshield surface heat is above 43C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When the APU generator is the sole source of AC generated power, can anti-ice be used with the backup pump?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many windshield anti-ice switches are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If ice accumulates on windshield, what could happen?

A

Ice shedding could cause engine FOD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How much can the cargo hook hold?

A

9000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the maximum cone angle to prevent damage to the cargo hook?

A

30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 3 modes of release?

A

Normal, manual, and emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

To prevent unintentional discharge of the cargo hook explosive cartridge, the pilot shall call off each procedural step of which test?

A

Emergency release circuit test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pitot static and anti-ice shall be on during operations of visible moisture with ambient air temperatures of:

A

4C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pitot static pressure is sent to what aircraft components?

A

ADCs

41
Q

Provides a visual display of:

A

Pitch and roll attitude, airspeed, altitiude, vertical speed (8-12 seconds lag), heading, and validity indications as a backup to the helicopters PFD.

42
Q

Components

A

Display unit, magnetometer (location in tail cone on right side), air data computer (location in the right hand control rod closet above the #2 ADC), and battery (in nose compartment).

43
Q

How long does it take for the ESIS to self test?

A

Approximately 15 seconds.

44
Q

The 2 external components that provide display information to the ESIS are?

A

ADC and Magnetometer.

45
Q

The BAT STBY ISNT sw is located where?

A

Upper console

46
Q

A beeping tone can be heard when the aircraft is on the ground with AC power removed if the BAT STBY INST sw is in which position?

A

Arm

47
Q

ESIS battery should supply power to the instrument for at least:

A

30 minutes

48
Q

IVHMS is compromised of:

A

An on board system, integrated vehicle health and management unit, ground station and software for displaying, viewing, and extracting helicopter health and safety information.

49
Q

Functions of the on board system:

A

Power checks, main rotor track and balance, tail rotor track and balance, engine output shaft testing and balance, oil cooler testing and balance, maintenance card recording, isolating irregular/unusual vibrations, mechanical diagnostics, etc.

50
Q

MFDs provide over how many pages of IVHMS data?

A

15

51
Q

The IVHMU on board memory contains data spanning multiple flights (approx. 25 hours). It will ____ old files in a logical fashion to prevent memory overflow.

A

Delete

52
Q

What is the only way to transfer data to the ground station?

A

PCMCIA card (must be in before power applied).

53
Q

How many accelerometers are there and what do they do?

A

29+ mounted to the airframe and they track and monitor temperature, vibration, pulse input interfaces, timing references, and general frequency input interfaces.

54
Q

Cockpit Voice and Flight Data Recording has sufficient crash protected memory to record:

A

Four channels of voice for a minimum of two hours per channel.

55
Q

Are HUMS and CVR/FDR data downloading independent of each other?

A

Yes

56
Q

The inertia sw is used to control primary power to the CVR/FDR in the event of:

A

An incapacitating incident.

57
Q

CVR/FDR starts recording when any of the following exist:

A

1 EG ON (NG1 greater than 55%), #2 ENG ON (NG2 greater than 55%), Main XSM OP greater than 20 PSI, or WOW switch equals false (in flight).

58
Q

CVR/FDR stops recording when all of the following exist:

A

1 EG OFF (NG1 less than 55%), #2 ENG OFF (NG2 less than 55%), Main XSM OP less than 20 PSI, or WOW switch equals true (on ground).

59
Q

What is the minimum operating life of the underwater locator beacon? What is its useful life?

A

30 days and 6 years.

60
Q

Mechanical Diagnostics can be acquired in one of the three modes:

A

Automatic, prompted, or forced.

61
Q

How many events can be captured per HUMS-E-REC I-Event start/stop cycle?

A

Around 5

62
Q

How many events can be captured per HUMS-E-REC I-Event start/stop cycle?

A

Around 5

63
Q

IVHMU captures intermittent events including:

A

Cockpit noise, vibration data, and flight parameter data.

64
Q

How many seconds of data is captured?

A

15 seconds before and after the event button is pressed. It takes up to 5.5 mins to complete the processing of the event.

65
Q

The purpose of the I-Event sw is to record data for troubleshotting.

A

Yes

66
Q

The right pitot tube is connect to the:

A

Pilots air data system.

67
Q

Where is the I-Event data viewable?

A

On the IVHMS Ground Station.

68
Q

What starts/stops recording of the CVR/FDR?

A

DCUs

69
Q

Which IVHMS main menu would a pilot need to access to perform a HIT check?

A

Power checks

70
Q

The AVCS maintains a consistent vibration performance with varying rotor speeds between:

A

90-105% NR.

71
Q

Does AVCS eliminate vibrations?

A

No, it just reduces them.

72
Q

How much force can the main cabin overhead vibration absorber (FG #1) produce?

A

1000lbs

73
Q

How much force can the legacy nose vibration absorber produce (FG #2)?

A

450lbs

74
Q

How much force can the right hand step vibration absorber produce (FG #3)?

A

450lbs

75
Q

Reducing airspeed may:

A

Reduce Vibrations.

Abnormal vibrations not affected by the VIB CONT sw position or associated with an AVC system failure may require more immediate action.

76
Q

What are the components of the AVCS?

A

Active vibration control computer, electronic unit, 3 force generators, 10 accelerometers, and NR speed sensor.

77
Q

The FMS can be accessed to check the ___ or initiate a ___ of the AVCS.

A

Status and BIT

78
Q

The AVCS INOP advisory illuminates in flight to indicate:

A

Total failure of AVCS.

79
Q

Where is the IDM located?

A

Transition avionics bay.

80
Q

IDM transmits and receives data at a rate of:

A

16kbs

81
Q

How many password attempts are allowed before a message is sent to a security officer?

A

3

82
Q

How do you know if you have a message when not on JVMF?

A

JVMF will turn inverse.

83
Q

How many TAC IDs per card?

A

50

84
Q

The FMS will not pop up pages for the MFD if it is on the ___ of FMS.

A

STS page

85
Q

What does receiver message filter allow operator to do?

A

Select type of message that will be received

86
Q

What does operator need to do it he wants to acknowledge a message when opened?

A

Set OPERATOR ACK on setup page to AUTO.

87
Q

How do you reset to a blank template?

A

REST MESG

88
Q

Header specifies:

A

Net, Destination URNs, Precedence level, security classification, and operator acknowledgement settings for message.

89
Q

What is the max number of recipients per group?

A

16

90
Q

How many times can you acknowledge a message?

A

Once

91
Q

How many characters can be typed into a freetext message?

A

271

92
Q

If a message is greater than 1MB in size, what notification will be displayed?

A

MSG TOO LARGE

93
Q

What format must an OPORD be in order to receive it?

A

5 paragraph

94
Q

How are messages displayed?

A

In order of highest precedence

95
Q

What does > mean?

A

Unread

96
Q

What does ? mean?

A

Acknowledgement requested

97
Q

What color does a secret message appear?

A

RED

98
Q

What does MAYDAY template default to?

A

Downed aircraft

99
Q

JVMF Annunciations are displayed at bottom center of each MFD page except?

A

PFD

mike Mike (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions