SYNTHETIC ANTIBAC PART 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  • best used as treatment for UTI caused by Eschericia coli.
  • should be polar
A

Quinolones

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2
Q

basis of quinolones

A

Nalidixic Acid

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3
Q
A
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4
Q

Highly polar quinolones enter through _____(these are the pores found in g(-) bacteria) into the cell

A

Porins

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5
Q

may also antagonize GABA receptors in the brain (effect: CNS effects like tremor, sleep disorders, anxiety, convulsion)

A

Quinolones

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6
Q

Designed mainly for g(-) bacteria

A

Quinolones

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7
Q

a subgroup of quinolones because of the presence of 6-fluoro

A

Fluoroquinolones

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8
Q

Quinolones

SAR
_____ (smaller the better) and ____ substitution at ______- better potency

A

Alkyl; Aryl; position 1

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9
Q

_____ often times associated to crystalluria when urine is too BASIC also) and the ____ (C-6) constituent extends its activity

A

fluorine

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10
Q

patients taking quinoles cannot be given __,___,___ or any divalent ions due to ___

A

Ca, Mg, antacids, chelation

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11
Q

have moderate gram- negative activity and minimal systemic distribution

A

First generation

Cinoxacin (Cinoxacin)
nalidixic acid (NegGam,
Wintomylon)
oxolinic acid

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12
Q

have expanded gram- negative activity and atypical pathogen coverage, but limited gram-positive activity

A

Second generation

Class I
Lomefloxacin (Maxaquin)
Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
Enoxacin (Penetrex)
Class II
Ofloxacin (Floxin)
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) - FIRST LINE FOR UTI

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13
Q

retain expanded gram-negative and atypical intracellular activity but have improved gram- positive coverage

A

3rd generation

Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
Sparfloxacin (Zagam)*
Moxifloxacin (Avelox)

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14
Q

improve gram-positive coverage, maintain gram-negative coverage, and gain anaerobic coverage

A

Fourth generation

clinafloxacin
gemifloxacin (Factive)
moxifloxacin (Avelox, Vigamox)
Gatifloxacin (Tequin)
sitafloxacin
trovafloxacin (Trovan)
(withdrawn due to its toxicity)

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15
Q

It interferes with DNA gyrase and inhibits DNA synthesis during bacterial replication

A

Nalidixic acid

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16
Q

Active against gram (-) bacteria but not effective against pseudomonas organisms

A

Nalidixic acid

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17
Q

Nalidixic acid active metabolite

A

7-hydroxymethyl metabolites

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18
Q

It is a close congener of oxolinic acid, an antibacterial agent no longer in the market.

A

Cinoxacin

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19
Q

It is more completely absorbed and less protein-bound than nalidixic acid

A

Cinoxacin

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20
Q

Fluoride atoms provide an increase in potency against gram (+). Activity generally is not effective against obligate anaerobic bacteria. It is used for uncomplicated gonorrhea in 800 mg single oral dose

A

Norfloxacin

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21
Q

The primary use is for the treatment of UTI and STD, for uncomplicated gonococcal urethritis and chancroid.

A

Enoxacin

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22
Q

The bioavailability is reduced by divalent metal ions present in antacids and hematinics

A

Enoxacin

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23
Q

Enoxacin is an enzyme inhibitor of

A

CYP 1A2

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24
Q

has piperazine; can cause crystalluria

A

Enoxacin

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25
Best distribution among quinolones (CSF)
Ciprofloxacin
26
The drug is active against many anaerobes including Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is used for treatment of UTI, lower respiratory infections, sinusitis, diarrhea, bone, joint & skin structure infection. It is used for gonococcal urethritis.
Ciprofloxacin
27
Agent of choice for bacterial gastroenteritis
Ciprofloxacin
28
It is incompatible with drugs that are alkaline
Ciprofloxacin
29
Food delays but does not prevent absorption.
Ciprofloxacin
30
For postexposure treatment of inhalational anthrax
Ciprofloxacin
31
Combination for gonococcal urethritis
Ciprofloxacin+ Doxycycline
32
Combination for disseminated gonorrhea
Ciprofloxacin + Ceftriaxone
33
Better than ciprofloxacin Not effective in syphilis
Ofloxacin
34
Although food can slow the oral absorptions of the lower respiratory tract, including chronic bronchitis and pneumonia, caused by Gram-negative bacilli
Ofloxacin
35
Supplied as a racemate
Ofloxacin
36
It is indicated for acute bacterial exacerbations of chronic bronchitis caused by Haemophilus influenza or Moraxella catarrhalis.
Lomefloxacin
37
The only quinolone for which once-daily oral dosing suffices
Lomefloxacin
38
C-8 with halogen causes Phototoxicity - most phototoxic
Lomefloxacin
39
With long elimination half-life, used for the treatment of bacterial gastroenteritis and cholecystitis. It shows the lowest incidence of phototoxicity.
Sparfloxacin
40
Sparfloxacin C-5: ____ portion decreases phototoxicity
Amino
41
Nitrofurans are derivatives of
5-nitro-2-furaldehyde
42
Nitrofurans SAR antimicrobial activity is present only when the ___ is in the _-position
nitro group; 5
43
Has a broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria but not Fungi
Nitrofurazone
44
0.2% usual concentration in solution, ointments and suppositories
Nitrofurazone
45
Full name of furazolidone
3'[(5-nitrofurylidene)amino]-2-oxazolidinone
46
It has bactericidal activity and also antiprotozoal activity, specifically against Giardia lamblia
Furazolidone
47
It can inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase.
Furazolidone
48
It disrupts the bacterial enzyme system, active against gram (+) gram (-). It prevents and treats UTI. It colors the urine brown
Nitrofurantoin
49
To improve GI tolerance, the drug is designed using large crystalline form without interfering oral absorption
Nitrofurantoin
50
Methenamine's active agent
Formaldehyde
51
Methenamine requires acidifying agent like?
ammonium chloride, sodium biphosphate
52
It is employed internally as urinary antiseptic
Methenamine
53
It has the ability to furnish its own acidity. It is effective with smaller amounts of ___ acid and thus avoids the gastric disturbances
Methenamine mandelate; mandelic
54
Methenamine that does not need acidifying agent
Methenamine mandelate
55
Readily absorbed after oral administration and concentrated in the urinary bladder
Methenamine hippurate
56
local analgesic effect. It is given in combination with urinary antiseptics.
Phenazopyridine HCl
57
Phenazopyridine HCl + sulfisoxazole
Azo-Gantrisin
58
It gives an orange-red color stain.
Phenazopyridine HCl
59
is an acid-fast, aerobic bacteria with an unusual cell wall, containing a large percentage of lipid content.
M. Tuberculosis
60
is a synthetic antibacterial agent which is bactericidal against replicating organisms, but bacteriostatic against nonreplicating organisms.
Isonicotinic hydrazide/Isoniazid
61
Following exposure to INH, acid-fast bacilli lose their acid-fast characteristics, indicating that the agent interferes with?
Cell wall synthesis
62
The major metabolite of INH is
N-acetylisoniazid
63
prevents peripheral neuritis
Pyridoxine Vit B6
64
It is used in the treatment of isoniazid resistant tuberculosis or when the patient is intolerant to isoniazid and other drugs.
Ethionamide
65
Ethionamide blocks?
Mycolic acid synthesis
66
Pyrazinamide full name
Pyrazinecarboxamide (PZA)
67
Bioactivation of pyrazinamide to pyrazinoic acid by an ____ present in mycobacteria
amidase
68
PZA and its metabolites are reported to interfere with _____ excretion.
uric acid
69
is active only against dividing mycobacteria. (thus cannot be given alone)
Ethambutol
70
Ethambutol The ____ isomer is 16 times as active as the meso compound
dextro
71
Not recommended for use alone inhibits _________
Ethambutol; arabinosyl transferase
72
Diseases caused by ethambutol
Retrobulbar neuritis Green red color blindness
73
This agent was once quite popular, until significant resistance to the drug developed. It interferes with the incorporation of p. aminobenzoic acid into folic acid
P-AMINOSALICYLIC ACID
74
P-AMINOSALICYLIC ACID It interferes with the incorporation of
p. aminobenzoic acid into folic acid.
75
P-AMINOSALICYLIC ACID inhibits?
Folic acid synthesis
76
a basic red dye ("AZA") that exerts a slow, bactericidal effect on M. leprae. This is used in the treatment of leprosy, including the dapsone-resistant forms.
Clofazimine
77
This was also used for treating skin lesions cause by Mycobacterium ulcerans
Clofazimine
78
Source of rifampin
Streptomyces mediterranei
79
Rifampin binds to
bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerases
80
Most active agent in clinical use for the treatment of tuberculosis
Rifampin
81
The incidence of hepatotoxicity was significantly higher when rifampin was combined with ______
Isoniazid
82
Antitubercular Enzyme inducer
Rifampin
83
Orange to reddish brown crystalline powder
Rifampin
84
It is orally active against many Gram positive and Gram negative organisms, and is clinically effective against M. tuberculosis
Rifampin
85
greater potency against M. tuberculosis in vitro
Rifabutin
86
Despite its greater potency against M. tuberculosis in vitro, rifabutin is considered inferior to rifampin for the short-term therapy of tuberculosis because of its significantly ?
Lower plasma concentrations
87
This natural product cycloserine was isolated from _______ as the D __-isomer.
Streptomyces orchidaceus; D
88
Interestingly, the L-isomer is also active, and the racemic mixture is more potent than either isomer.
Cycloserine
89
In ____ form, cycloserine is sterically and stereochemically analogous to D alanine.
enolic
90
This antibiotic is a mixture of four cyclic polypeptides, where ______ 1a and 1b makes up 90% of the mixture.
capreomycin
91
thought to inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 70s ribosomal unit. inhibits protein synthesis aminoglycosides
Capreomycin
92
intramuscular administration Resistance to sensitization dermatitis-wear gloves
Streptomycin
93
Binds to 12s and inhibits protein synthesis
Streptomycin