Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

RobsCCNA > Sybex CCNA Flashcards > Flashcards

Sybex CCNA Flashcards

1
Q

Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?

A

Administrative distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?

A

Electing designated ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True/False. Intelligent DNS can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of traffic policing?

A

It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?

A

RIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A transmitting host MAC address is not in the MAC table of a switch. What will the switch will do when it receives the frame from the host?

A

The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to the destination host if known; if not, it
will flood the frame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How can you disable DTP on a switch port?

A

(DynamicTunking protocol)
Change the operational mode to static access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?

A

A hub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?

A

An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What configuration must you apply to enable encapsulation on a sub-interface?

A

Answer Example (can use any numbers from 1-4094):
interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
encapsulation dotIQ 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0 (confirm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?

A

Dialer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?

A

SPAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?

A

A multicast address. Range is 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the default lease title for a DHCP binding?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Index Load Port EC state No of bits
0 36 Gil/1 Active 3
1 84 Gil/2 Active 3
2 16 Gil/3 Active 2
You executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command. What information is provided by the Load value?

A

The preference of the link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?

A

1600 bytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?

A

Access point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?

A

Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True/False. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?

A

Cisco APIC (Application Policy Infrastructure Controller)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the
show cdp neighbors command operate?

A

Data Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. Which protocol will the workstation now use to determine the MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?

A

ARP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which switch states are valid for 802.1w?

A

Discarding, learning, forwarding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
26
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
Ping the default gateway.
27
What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?
Configure the server group.
28
True/False. TCP provides synchronized communication
True
29
Which routing protocol has the default administrative distance of 90?
EIGRP
30
MPLS operates at what layer?
It operates between layer 2 and layer 3.
31
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
1918
32
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
33
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
A voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
34
Which part of the PPPoE server configurator contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
Virtual Template Interface
35
True/False. WLC's Gold queue is also known as the video queue.
True
36
When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and destined to another, which portion of the packet is replaced?
Layer 2 frame header and trailer
37
Which type of switch ports drop packets with 802.1Q tags?
Access ports
38
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
Prefix
39
True/False. Named ACLs support only extended ACLs.
False
40
True/False. This is a valid hostname for a switch following Cisco's guidelines: 5witch-Cisco.
False
41
When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?
Passive-interface Or you can shutdown the port
42
Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?
CSMA/CD
43
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
ntp master
44
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?
CDP
45
True/False. When a switch in rapid PVST+ mode has a topology change, the switch immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
False. It deletes all MAC addresses in that one VLAN instance.
46
What protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more switches?
VTP
47
Which option must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
48
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. How many broadcasts are there?
One
49
True/False. Routers perform this on a packet: Update the layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations.
False. They update the layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hop.
50
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6
Autoconfiguration
51
Describe slow inter-VLAN forwarding.
The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded more slowly than expected.
52
Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?
Hub and spoke
53
Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
Star
54
True/False. RIP is a link-state routing protocol.
False
55
True/False. DTP uses the native VLAN to send data
True
56
By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled?
1
57
True/False. Routers perform this on a packet: Examine the layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets.
True
58
True/False. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets
True
59
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
Router on a stick
60
What is a benefit of switch stacking?
It provides higher port density with better resource usage.
61
Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?
Static NAT
62
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2?
It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link, and it routes over links rather than over networks.
63
True/False. Tracert uses ICMP packets.
True
64
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
802.1x
65
True/False. When configuring static routes, an exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.
True
66
Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?
When the network has few public IP addresses, and many private IP addresses require outside Internet access
67
What can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain?
Congestion on the switch inband path, BS duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
68
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
IEEE 802.1Q
69
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
802.1q
70
Which identification numbers are valid for an extended ACL?
100-199
71
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
Cisco APIC-EM
72
True/False. IP SLAs are used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
True
73
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
Look for the 07.AC in the address, such as: 0000.0C07.AC15
74
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged?
Discarding, forwarding
75
Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?
SNMPv1
76
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
Destination MAC address
77
True/False. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
True
78
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol?
The requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality, and high demand on router resources to run the link- state routing algorithm
79
What is the subnet and broadcast address of this host: 10.16.3.65/23?
10.16.2.0 255.255.254.0, 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0
80
True/False. EIGRPV6 needs a RID under the routing process.
True
81
Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding state?
PortFast
82
WLANS default to the ________queue, which effectively means no QoS is being utilized
Silver
83
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
VLAN 1
84
You enter the show ipv6 route command on a router and the device displays a route. What routing protocol is used?
OSPFV3
85
True/False. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is in the same VLAN, except the port it was received on.
True
86
True/False. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
True

RobsCCNA (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions