Surgical Procedures/Special Populations 100 Q Flashcards

1
Q

At what age is the MAC for sevoflurane the highest?

A

3 months

MAC is higher in pediatric patients. For sevoflurane, it is approximately 3.3% in neonates and 3.2% in infants 1-6 months of age. For children 6-12 months of age it is constant at 2.4%. The MAC for isoflurane in both infants and children is 1.6%.

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2
Q

What is the most common postoperative complication in the pediatric patient who has undergone tonsillectomy?

A

Bleeding

Although aspiration and tooth damage can occur due to tonsillectomy, the most common complication following tonsillectomy is bleeding which occurs in 0.5-7.5 percent of patients. Of those that experience bleeding, 75 percent of them occur within 6 hours postop.

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3
Q

Combined spinal anesthesia/general anesthesia in premature infants decreases all of the following except

A

the overall risk of postoperative apnea
Spinal anesthesia has been used as both the sole anesthetic for surgery, or as an adjunct to general anesthesia. Although spinal anesthesia is associated with a decreased risk for apnea in premature infants in the early phase following surgery, it does not decrease the overall risk for apnea across the entire postoperative period. Compared to general anesthesia, however, a combination of spinal anesthesia and general anesthesia provides for faster extubation because of a decreased need for narcotics, reduced need for muscle relaxants, and a reduction in the amount of volatile anesthetic needed.

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4
Q

Which location would be least appropriate for placement of an arterial line in a patient undergoing surgery on the distal aortic arch?

A

Left wrist
Because the left subclavian artery may be manipulated during the operation, which would disrupt monitoring in the left radial artery, monitoring pressures via another site would be preferred. The right radial is often used.

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5
Q

The most common surgical emergency in the neonate is

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis
Necrotizing enterocolitis is the most common surgical emergency in the neonate. Premature infants are at the greatest risk for developing it. Conditions associated with necrotizing enterocolitis include umbilical artery catheterization, systemic infections, perinatal asphyxia, hypotension, exchange blood transfusions, patent ductus arteriosus, cyanotic heart disease, respiratory distress syndrome, and hyperosmolar feedings.

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6
Q

In obese patients, the systolic blood pressure typically increases on average by about _____ mmHg for each 10 kg of excess adipose tissue.

A

3-4
Many obese patients exhibit systemic hypertension. The systolic pressure may increase 3-4 mmHg for each 10 kg of excess adipose tissue, while the diastolic pressure increases about half that amount.

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7
Q

Which statement represents an accurate understanding of anesthesia for middle ear surgery?

A

Local anesthesia is appropriate for middle ear surgery

Middle ear surgery can be performed under local or general anesthesia. The surgery requires a bloodless field, which is facilitated by local anesthesia. It also requires that the patient remain still, however, and that is best accomplished by general anesthesia. Postoperative nausea and vomiting is very common these patients. To help control bleeding, a head-up tilt of 15-20 degrees, normocapnia, and controlled hypotension may be used.

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8
Q

What is the most frequent cause of hospitalization in patients older than 65?

A

heart failure

The most frequent cause of hospitalization in patients older than 65 is heart failure.

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9
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be decreased in the micro-preemie?

A

serum sodium levels
Creatinine concentrations are increased for the first three weeks after delivery. The increase in creatinine clearance normally seen in full-term infants occurs more slowly in the micro-preemie. Micro-preemies exhibit reduced reabsorption of sodium and water in the proximal tubule, making them more susceptible to hyponatremia. Plasma potassium levels are increased in preterm infants for the first few days of life. Decreased cardiac output can increase potassium levels further, placing them at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. The immature hepatic function associated with prematurity results in decreased synthesis of proteins required for drug metabolism. Decreased albumin levels result in an increase in the unbound, active form of many drugs.

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10
Q
Which of the following events would not be attributed to the effects of using methylmethacrylate to cement artificial components during a total hip arthroplasty?
	A. Pulmonary hypertension
	B. Systemic hypotension
	C. Impaired platelet aggregation
	D. Cardiovascular collapse
A

Impaired platelet aggregation
Methylmethacrylate use is associated with a decrease in blood pressure and possibly cardiovascular collapse due to vasodilation as well as pulmonary hypertension and a possible decrease in PaO2 due to embolization. Impaired platelet aggregation is not a finding associated with methylmethacrylate use.

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11
Q

What is the lower limit of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow in children of all ages?

A

60 mmHg is the lower limit of autoregulation of CBF in children of all ages.

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12
Q
Which of the following is not a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?
	A. Nulliparity
	B. Obesity
	C. Smoking during pregnancy
	D. Advanced maternal age
A

Which of the following is not a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

Tobacco (smoking) is the most frequently abused substance among pregnant patients. Studies show that smoking is protective against the development of preeclampsia.

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13
Q

You have extubated a pediatric patient following tonsillectomy and the patient exhibits inspiratory stridor. You know that inspiratory stridor most commonly represents

A

upper airway obstruction

Inspiratory stridor results from upper airway obstruction. Lower airway obstruction results in expiratory stridor.

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14
Q

Preoperatively, all pediatric patients with mild asthma should receive

A

administration of a bronchodilator
Even if they are not exhibiting any symptoms, children with a history of mild to moderate asthma should be administered a bronchodilator preoperatively.

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15
Q

What is the advantage of combining opioids with local anesthetics in combined spinal/epidural analgesia?

A

it improves anesthesia without significant motor block
The combination of small doses of opioids and local anesthetics (fentanyl 10-15 mcg and bupivacaine 1.25-2.5 mg) can provide excellent analgesia without producing significant motor block.

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16
Q

An obstetric patient has a mechanical heart valve. Which of the following statements is most consistent with recommended anticoagulation objectives for this patient?

A

warfarin should not be used past 36 weeks gestation
Anticoagulation is a concern for parturients presenting with mechanical prosthetic valves. Current anticoagulation options for pregnancy per the American College of Cardiology are as follows: 1. Warfarin should be continued until week 36; Convert to unfractionated heparin or low molecular-weight heparin at that point 2. Use low molecular-weight heparin for entire pregnancy 3. Use low molecular weight heparin or unfractionated heparin from 6 to 12 weeks and also after week 36; use warfarin from 12 to 36 weeks.

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17
Q

Which of the following precautions should be taken when anesthetizing a patient undergoing CO2 laser vaporization of condylomatous lesions? (select two)

A

goggles and smoke evacuation system
When viral tumors such as condylomatous lesions are vaporized by laser, intact viral particles can be recovered from the plume which warrants the use of gloves, a smoke evacuation system, high-efficiency filter masks, and protective goggles.

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18
Q

Which of the following would speed the rate of rise in the FA/FI in an infant?

A

An increase in cardiac output
The pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of inhalation anesthetics in the pediatric population differs some from that of adults. The rate of rise of FA/FI (the ratio of the alveolar concentration of the anesthetic to the inspired concentration), also known as the washin, depends upon six parameters: the inspired concentration of the gas, alveolar ventilation, the functional residual capacity, cardiac output, the solubility of the gas, and the alveolar to venous partial pressure gradient of the anesthetic. In adults, an increased cardiac output slows the rate of rise of FA/FI. However, in neonates and infants, an increase in cardiac output speeds up the rate of rise of FA/FI. It is believed that this is due to differences in blood distribution. The vessel-rich group comprises a greater proportion of the body mass (18% compared to only 8% in adults). As a result, more of their cardiac output is distributed to the vessel-rich group.

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19
Q

Administration of a large dose of which of the following drugs would be most likely to produce seizures in a pediatric patient?

A

flumazenil
Flumazenil can be used to antagonize benzodiazepines in pediatric patients. It should be noted that the short half-life of flumazenil has been associated with re-sedation in children ages one to five. Larger doses of flumazenil have been associated with seizures in pediatric patients.

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20
Q

You need to perform a rapid sequence induction for a pediatric patient with a full stomach. What neuromuscular relaxant would have the fastest onset?

A

succs
Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent with the fastest onset and shortest duration of action. The intravenous dose is 3-4 mg/kg in neonates, 2 mg/kg in infants, and 1 mg/kg in teenagers. The increased intravenous dose requirements in younger children is presumed to be due to a higher volume of distribution. Paralysis typically occurs in less than one minute and lasts for about 5 minutes. An intramuscular dose of 4 mg/kg will produce paralysis within 1-2 minutes but can last as long as twenty minutes.

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21
Q

When referring to a premature infant, the term very low birth weight (VLBW) indicates a birth weight less than

A

1500 g
Prematurity is defined as a birth that occurs before 37 weeks gestation. Premature infants that weigh less than 2500 grams are classified as low birth weight. Premature infants that weigh less than 1500 grams are classified as very low birth weight. Premature infants that weigh less than 1000 grams are classified as extremely low birth weight (ELBW). Some practitioners use the term ‘micro-preemie’ to refer to very low and extremely low birth weight infants.

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22
Q

A patient with a blunt aortic injury from a motor vehicle accident exhibits increased pulmonary vascularity and a normal heart size on chest x-ray. What injury-induced pathologies would most likely produce this?

A

ventricular septal defect
Increased pulmonary vascularity and a normal heart size on chest x-ray in a patient with blunt chest trauma could be indicative of a ventral septal defect caused by trauma.

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23
Q

What is the most common complication of central neuraxial blockade in the obstetric patient?

A

hypotension
Due to the sympathectomy it produces, hypotension is the most common complication of central neuraxial blockade in the obstetric patient.

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24
Q

What is the primary advantage of using an Andrews frame for lumbar spine surgery?

A

decreased bleeding
The Andrews frame secures the patient in knee-chest position with the abdomen hanging freely which reduces intra-abdominal pressure and contributes to decreased blood loss. Because the legs are below the level of the heart, venous return is decreased and severe hypotension can result.

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25
Q

Micro-preemies are especially prone to exhibiting

A

thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 150,000) occurs in approximately 70% of micro-preemies. As a result, preoperative evaluation of the micro-preemies should include a platelet count and verification that platelets are available for administration. Micro-preemies often exhibit insulin resistance. Most micro-preemies are administered blood transfusions in the first few weeks of life due to an anemia of prematurity. The decreased sodium reabsorption in premature infants is associated with hyponatremia.

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26
Q

Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include all of the following except

A

factor 8 deficiency
A BMI of 60 or more, evidence of venous stasis, central obesity, and obesity hypoventilation syndrome or obstructive sleep apnea are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis.

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27
Q

Intentional collapse of the lung on the operative side and one-lung ventilation during thoracic surgery results in

A

widening of the PA-a (alveolar to arterial) gradient
Intentional lung collapse on the operative side is commonly used to enhanced visualization of the operative field. Side effects are primarily due to the large intrapulmonary shunt that develops because the upper lung is still being perfused but not ventilated. The PA-a gradient widens and hypoxemia typically ensues. One-lung ventilation does not appreciably change the arterial CO2 tension.

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28
Q

Bradycardia is associated with repeat doses of _____ in pediatric patients.

A

succinylcholine
Bradycardia and potentially asystole are potential side effects of succinylcholine re-administration, particular in children.

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29
Q

A patient with a pacemaker with a program code of VVI has a heart rate of 104 and you see pacer spikes on the ECG. You would most accurately assume that

A

the pacemaker ventricular sensing is faulty
This programming code indicates that this pacemaker is designed to pace and sense in the ventricle and inhibits its own activity if it senses a spontaneous depolarization. Because the spontaneous heart rate is higher than is normal for a pacemaker and pacemaker spikes are still visible, the pacemaker is obviously failing to sense the spontaneous beats.

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30
Q

Which is true of pain associated with the second stage of labor?

A

It is somatic
Pain from the first stage of labor is visceral, involves spinal cord segments T10-L1, and is caused by traction on the round ligament, cervical dilation, and uterine contractions. Pain from the second stage of labor is somatic, includes the S2-S4 spinal cord segments, and is caused by stretching of the perineum, fascia, skin, and subcutaneous tissue.

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty?

A

Kyphoplasty is more likely to result in cement extravasation than vertebroplasty
Radiculopathy, spinal claudication, and paraplegia are potential neurologic complications of vertebroplasty. Vertebroplasty is more likely to result in extravasation of the cement because the cement used in vertebroplasty is less viscous than that used for kyphoplasty. The patient is positioned prone for the actual procedure and should remain supine for 3-5 hours after the procedure for evaluation of neurologic status and careful observation for bleeding. General anesthesia and IV sedation are both acceptable techniques for these procedures.

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32
Q

You have administered an epidural test dose. Which findings are consistent with inadvertent intrathecal injection?

A

Warmth and tinging in the legs
The intravenous injection of 15 mcg of epinephrine will increase the heart rate by about 10 beats per minute and the systolic blood pressure by at least 15 mmHg. The intrathecal injection of the lidocaine will produce warmth and tingling in the patient’s legs and feet within 2-3 minutes.

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33
Q

What are the components of the triple-H therapy used in the treatment of patients with symptomatic cerebral vasospasm? (select three)

A

Triple H therapy refers to Hypervolemia, Hypertension, and Hemodilution. This term is in reference to the treatment of patients with symptomatic vasospasms.

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34
Q

Pediatric obesity is associated with an increased incidence of all of the following except

A

insulin sensitivity
Pediatric obesity results in an increase in blood volume and cardiac output and can lead to systemic hypertension, left ventricular hypertrophy, and atherosclerosis at an early age. Half of severely obese pediatric patients will exhibit insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome. Twenty percent will exhibit gastroesophageal reflux. Infiltration of the liver by fatty tissue can lead to nonalcoholic fatty liver disease and elevated liver enzymes.

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35
Q

When referring to a premature infant, the term low birth weight indicates a birth weight less than

A

2500g
Prematurity is defined as a birth that occurs before 37 weeks gestation. Premature infants that weigh less than 2500 grams are classified as low birth weight. Premature infants that weigh less than 1500 grams are classified as very low birth weight. Premature infants that weigh less than 1000 grams are classified as extremely low birth weight (ELBW). Some practitioners use the term ‘micro-preemie’ to refer to very low and extremely low birth weight infants.

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36
Q

What is the body mass index (BMI) of a patient who is 1.8 meters tall and weighs 320 pounds? (calculate to the nearest whole number)

A

45
The BMI is calculated by dividing the patient’s weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared. The first step is to divided 320/2.2 to convert pounds into kilograms (145.5 kg). Next, fill it into the BMI formula along with the height in meters: (145.5)/(1.8)(1.8) = 44.9 or 45.

37
Q

When performing a pediatric inhalation induction, it is important to ensure that

A

APL valve is open
A traditional mask induction begins by placing a mask gently over the child’s nose and mouth, and a combination of nitrous oxide in oxygen (70% nitrous oxide and 30% oxygen) is administered for 1-2 minutes. The provider should make sure that the APL is completely open to prevent resistance to exhalation. Once the effects of nitrous oxide have taken place, sevoflurane (only non-pungent volatile agents may be used) is introduced, and the inspired concentration is rapidly increased to 8% in one step. Increasing the sevoflurane concentration in small increments can result in a prolonged excitement phase. To decrease the risk of awareness, the sevoflurane concentration should be maintained at a high level until successful intravenous access is obtained. At this point, propofol 1-2 mg/kg can be administered, nitrous oxide discontinued, and an LMA or endotracheal tube is inserted. There are many variations to the above technique, and the provider needs to be able to adapt their approach according to the situation that presents.

38
Q

What is the most reliable technique for verifying the proper position of a double-lumen endotracheal tube?

A

Visualization with the use of a fiber-optic bronchoscope is the most reliable method for verifying proper position of a double-lumen endotracheal tube.

39
Q

Which airway device would be least appropriate for a patient undergoing anesthesia for magnetic resonance imaging?

A

anode endotracheal tube
Anode endotracheal tubes and some flexible LMAs have metal spirals in their structure that can heat up and potentially burn the patient. Most endotracheal tubes and LMAs have a metal spring inside the pilot balloon that can heat up as well. It is prudent to secure the pilot balloon away from the patient’s face to prevent burns.

40
Q

A patient undergoing a total knee replacement asks why he is required to wear a sequential compression device. You explain that without prophylaxis, the risk of deep vein thrombosis associated with his surgery is

A

40-80 percent
Without prophylaxis such as sequential compression devices, anti-embolism stockings, or low molecular weight heparin, the risk of deep vein thrombosis associated with lower extremity total joint replacement is 40-80 percent.

41
Q

The most common airway problem in pediatric patients is upper airway obstruction due to

A

largynomalacia

Upper airway obstruction due to laryngomalacia is the most common airway problem in pediatric patients.

42
Q

Which of the following changes would you expect to occur normally in elderly patients?

A

Decreased serum albumin
In elderly patients, serum albumin levels decrease resulting in increased free serum levels of acidic drugs. MAC decreases approximately 6% per decade after 40 years of age, and total body water also decreases.

43
Q

Which of the following drugs will increase intraocular pressure?

A

succs
Succinylcholine can increase intraocular pressure (IOP) modestly (8-10 mm Hg). Nondepolarizing agents either decrease the IOP or have no effect on it. Volatile anesthetics, nitrous oxide, opioids, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates all decrease the IOP.

44
Q

Shoulder arthroscopies are usually performed in which position?

A

beach chair position
Shoulder arthroscopy may be performed in semi-sitting position (also known as beach chair, barber chair, or modified Fowler’s position) or lateral decubitus position. Semi-sitting position is often preferred as it facilitates maintaining the MAP < 80 mmHg to reduce subacromial bleeding.

45
Q

The use of an overhead lamp during surgery on a micro-preemie would help decrease _____ heat loss.

A

radiant
Because of the increased risk for hypothermia, measures should be employed to decrease heat loss in the micro-preemie. The operating room should be heated to between 78 and 80 degrees Fahrenheit, thermoneutral incubators should be used for transport, warming pads can be placed on the operating room table, and overhead lamps can be used to decrease radiant heat loss.

46
Q

A newborn exhibits meconium staining. After suctioning the airway, bradycardia develops. What intervention should be done next?

A

administer positive pressure ventilation
Approximately 10% of newborns will exhibit some degree of meconium aspiration or meconium stain. Oropharyngeal suctioning of meconium should be performed immediately upon delivery. If the newborn is crying and appears vigorous and healthy, then no more suctioning is needed. If meconium is present and the infant appears impaired, then the trachea should be intubated and the airway below the glottis suctioned. If meconium is obtained and the patient does not exhibit bradycardia, then suctioning should be repeated. If bradycardia develops, then positive pressure ventilation should be instituted and additional suctioning may be considered at a later time.

47
Q

Which of the following parameters decrease with the institution of a pneumoperitoneum? (select two)

A

Vital capacity & Pulmonary compliance
Upon establishing a pneumoperitoneum for laparoscopic surgery, the vital capacity, functional residual capacity, and pulmonary compliance both decrease while intrathoracic pressure and peak inspiratory pressure increase.

48
Q

You are performing a general anesthetic on a patient undergoing a parathyroidectomy. Which of the following signs and symptoms would be most closely associated with hyperparathyroidism?

A

Shortened QT interval
The principal pathologic feature of hyperparathyroidism resulting in symptoms is hypercalcemia. The elevated serum calcium concentrations can result in a shortened QT interval, prolonged PR interval, hypotonia, and skeletal muscle weakness (as opposed to hyperreflexia). Hyperparathyroidism is often associated with hypertension and the influence of parathyroid hormone on the renal excretion of bicarbonate results in increased serum chloride concentrations which results in a mild metabolic acidosis.

49
Q

Which of the following events would occur during the anhepatic phase of a liver transplant?

A

Clamping of the hepatic blood supply
There are three phases involved in a liver transplant: the preanhepatic, anhepatic, and neohepatic phases. Clamping of the hepatic blood supply would occur during the anhepatic phase. Induction of anesthesia, isolation of the infrahepatic and suprahepatic vena cava, and exposure of the hilar structures of the liver would all occur during the preanhepatic phase. The neohepatic phase would include reperfusion of the new liver.

50
Q

You are preparing to administer ketamine orally to a 33 pound three year-old. Which of the following doses would be appropriate?

A

75mg/kg
5-6 mg/kg is the appropriate dose for orally administered ketamine in patients from 1 to 6 years of age. This patient is 15 kilograms which makes the appropriate dose 75 to 90 milligrams.

51
Q

In former premature infants, the administration of intravenous _____ can reduce the risk of apnea

A

caffeine
The incidence of apnea increases with decreased postconceptual age and anemia. Opioids should be avoided if at all possible. The administration of intravenous caffeine 10 mg/kg can reduce the risk of apnea.

52
Q

You are preparing to anesthetize an elderly patient for a dental procedure. The patient will be positioned in a dental chair. What is your primary concern with this patient?

A

hypotension
The combination of vasodilation afrom the anesthetics and pooling of blood in the extremities due to the chair position can produce profound hypotension.

53
Q

A patient is undergoing labor with an extremely preterm infant. Vaginal delivery is planned. What anesthetic/analgesic technique would be most advantageous in this instance?

A

Neuraxial anesthetic
When vaginal delivery of a preterm infant is planned, neuraxial anesthesia is advantageous because it produces relaxation of the pelvic musculature and helps reduce the risk of intracranial trauma in the fetus as it is being delivered.

54
Q

Which of the following relative differences would you expect to see in an infant compared to an adult?

A

more cephalad larynx
For the first few months of life, infants are obligate nose breathers. The tongue also occupies a relatively larger volume within the mouth. To ensure adequate mask ventilation with the mouth closed, a jaw thrust maneuver is often required. The larger tongue also leaves less room available for instrumentation of the airway. The epiglottis is also relatively longer. The trachea is shorter and the larynx is more cephalad (at about the level of C3-C4).

55
Q

A morbidly obese patient is undergoing general anesthesia with mechanical ventilation and has an oxygen saturation of 80%. Which ventilatory change would improve oxygenation the most?

A

Administer PEEP of 10 cmH2O
Out of all of the ventilatory parameters, PEEP is the only one to consistently improve the respiratory function of morbidly obese individuals.

56
Q

Obese patients have an increased risk of postoperative morbidity. You know that this risk is most closely related to

A

preexisting disease
The risk of postoperative morbidity is higher in obese patients. However, the risk is more closely linked to the presence of pre-existing diseases rather than the BMI alone.

57
Q

The Triple-H therapy used in the treatment of cerebral vasospasm includes all of the following except

A

Hyperventilation
Cerebral vasospasm is a potential risk following surgery for the treatment of a subarachnoid hemorrhage and is a leading cause of postoperative death in these patients. It most commonly occurs between 3 days and two weeks postoperatively. If it should occur, it should be treated with the triple-H therapy, which is hypertension, hypervolemia, and hemodilution.

58
Q

You are preparing to induce general anesthesia on a neonate. Which agent is most associated with the development of chest wall rigidity?

A

fentanyl
Doses of fentanyl between 1-2 mcg/kg have been associated with chest wall rigidity, resulting in the need for mechanical ventilation to treat hypoventilation.

59
Q

Why is it important not to overhydrate a patient during a lobectomy or pneumonectomy?

A

It places them at increased risk for right ventricular failure
Following surgery, the pulmonary vascular resistance increases relative to the portion of removed lung tissue. Overhydration places these patients at risk for pulmonary edema, right ventricular failure, and acute lung injury.

60
Q

Which aortic cross clamp location is associated with the most significant alterations in hemodynamics?

A

supra celiac
Compared to suprarenal and infrarenal clamping, a supraceliac aortic cross clamp is associated with the most significant changes in hemodynamics including alterations in mean arterial pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, and ejection fraction. 92% of patients undergoing supraceliac clamping will exhibit abnormal cardiac wall motion.

61
Q

Which of the following explains why pregnant patients are at a greater risk of gastroesophageal reflux?

A

Lower esophageal sphincter tone is reduced
In pregnant patients, the gastric emptying time is not increased, but the gastric secretions are more acidic. The lower esophageal sphincter pressure can decrease due to the effects of progesterone. The gravid uterus can also increase intragastric pressure, making reflux more likely.

62
Q

Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate for both hypnosis and pain relief in pediatric patients?

A

ketamine
Of the drugs listed above, only ketamine provides both hypnosis and pain relief. It is available in oral, rectal, IM and IV routes.

63
Q

What is the leading cause of anesthesia-related mortality associated with cesarean delivery?

A

Intubation failure
Intubation failure or induction problems are the two leading causes of anesthesia-related deaths in the obstetric population. Inadvertent intrathecal injection of an epidural anesthetic dose is the most common cause of anesthesia-related morbidity and mortality in laboring women as a whole.

64
Q

Which drugs cause vasodilation in the fetus when administered to the mother? (select two)

A

Magnesium & Nifedipine
Magnesium and nifidipine both produce fetal vasodilation, but clonidine does not. ACE inhibitors also cross the placenta. Enalaprilat has been shown to reduce fetal arterial pressure by 20%.

65
Q

A patient presenting for liver transplant is taking telaprevir for the treatment of hepatitis C. What side effects would you expect to see as a result of the patient taking this medication?

A

Decreased clearance of oral midazolam
Telaprevir is used in the treatment of hepatitis C. It inhibits the CYP3A pathway and significantly reduces the oral clearance of midazolam.

66
Q

Studies have demonstrated that obese individuals exhibit a lower

A

cerebrospinal fluid volume
Magnetic resonance imaging studies have demonstrated that obese individuals have a decreased cerebral spinal fluid volume because of increased abdominal pressure that displaces soft tissue into the intervertebral foramen.

67
Q

Select two physiologic characteristics that you would expect to be decreased in the obstetric patient at term.

A

Systemic blood pressure and hemoglobin
By term, oxygen demand increases by about 33%, and minute ventilation increases by about 50%, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume. The PaCO2 is usually decreased to between 30 and 32 mmHg, and the PaO2 is higher than 100 mmHg at term. The hemoglobin decreases to about 10-11 gm.dL.

68
Q

What is the preferred position for a noninvasive blood pressure cuff in an infant with a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

right arm
The preferred placement of a noninvasive blood pressure cuff in pediatric patients is the upper extremity because it most closely mirrors cerebral perfusion. This becomes even more significant in neonates under 1000 grams. If a patent ductus arteriosus is present, the pressure should be taken in the right arm to provide the most accurate representation of cerebral perfusion.

69
Q

Elderly patients have

A

a diminished cardiac response to beta-receptor stimulation
Elderly patients have a diminished cardiac response to beta-receptor stimulation and increased sympathetic activity at rest. The number of sinus node cells decreases with age.

70
Q

A patient exhibits persistent postoperative hoarseness following an anterior cervical disk fusion. A possible cause is damage to the _____ nerve from the retractors.

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve
An anterior surgical approach to the cervical spine requires retraction that can potentially damage the recurrent laryngeal nerve. This may present as hoarseness, stridor, or (rarely) airway compromise.

71
Q

Following delivery, a healthy, full-term neonate will establish a normal ventilatory pattern within approximately

A

twenty minutes
The alveoli and pulmonary vasculature are not mature enough to produce acceptable gas exchange until about 24 to 26 weeks gestation. With the first breaths after delivery, the alveoli rapidly convert from being filled with fluid to being filled with air. The infant will generate negative intrathoracic pressures between 40 and 60 cm H2O in order to expand the alveoli and clear them of fluid. Within about 20 minutes of delivery, the infant will have established a normal ventilatory pattern, stable blood gases, and a near normal functional residual capacity.

72
Q

What is the minimum seizure duration recommended to ensure adequate antidepressant efficacy when performing electroconvulsive therapy?

A

25 seconds
Seizures often last several minutes, and a minimum seizure duration of 25 seconds is recommended to ensure adequate antidepressant efficacy.

73
Q

You have administered corticosteroids intraoperatively during an intracranial surgery for tumor resection. A potential adverse effect is

A

hyperglycemia
Corticosteroids such as dexamethasone or methylprednisolone can help reduce increased ICP caused by vasogenic edema. Steroids are particularly effective in reducing the ICP in patients with brain tumors. Corticosteroids can increase serum glucose levels, which is associated with poor outcomes in patients with cerebral ischemia.

74
Q

You administer midazolam rapidly via the IV route to a pediatric patient. The patient begins to exhibit seizure-like activity. What is the most likely cause of this?

A

Myoclonic reaction
Rapid IV or nasal administration of midazolam can produce myoclonus that may have the appearance of seizure-like activity.

75
Q

Following carotid endarterectomy, it is important to maintain the systolic blood pressure below what value to prevent an increased incidence of stroke, TIA, and myocardial infarction?

A

180 mmHg
Patients who exhibit a systolic blood pressure greater than 180 mmHg exhibit an increased incidence of stroke, TIA, and myocardial infarction.

76
Q

Micro-preemies are especially prone to exhibiting

A

thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 150,000) occurs in approximately 70% of micro-preemies. As a result, preoperative evaluation of the micro-preemies should include a platelet count and verification that platelets are available for administration. Micro-preemies often exhibit insulin resistance. Most micro-preemies are administered blood transfusions in the first few weeks of life due to an anemia of prematurity. The decreased sodium reabsorption in premature infants is associated with hyponatremia.

77
Q

A trauma patient exhibits distended neck veins, hypotension despite vigorous fluid resuscitation, and subcutaneous emphysema over the neck and chest. These symptoms are consistent with

A

Tension pneumothorax
Distended neck veins, unilateral decreased breath sounds, hypotension despite vigorous fluid resuscitation, subcutaneous emphysema of the chest, diminished chest-wall motion, and hyperresonance to percussion of one hemithorax are consistent with a diagnosis of tension pneumothorax.

78
Q

A patient with end-stage liver disease is presenting for liver transplant surgery. Which of the following would be consistent with a diagnosis of end-stage liver disease?

A

Increased cardiac index
End stage liver disease is generally associated with a very low SVR, increased cardiac index, and increased mixed venous oxygen saturation.

79
Q

Which sign or symptom is least consistent with end-stage liver disease?

A

bradycardia at rest
End stage liver disease is generally associated with a very low SVR, increased cardiac index, increased resting heart rate, and increased mixed venous oxygen saturation. The INR is typically increased. Along with the creatinine and serum bilirubin level, the INR is used to calculate the MELD score, a tool for assessing the severity of liver disease.

80
Q

After birth, the placental circulation is eliminated and the alveolar PCO2 of the newborn begins to decrease while the PO2 increases. These changes produce a(n) _____ in pulmonary vascular resistance and a(n) _____ in pulmonary blood flow.

A

decrease, increase
During and immediately after birth, a wide range of physiological changes take place. As the lungs expand, the placental circulation is eliminated, the pulmonary vasculature begins to optimize, and the alveolar PCO2 begins to decrease while the PO2 increases. These changes produce a significant decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance and a marked increase in pulmonary blood flow.

81
Q

What are your primary anesthetic concerns for a patient undergoing resection of a hepatic tumor near the portal vessels? (select two)

A

Air embolism and severe hemorrhage
Resection of a large part of the liver (such as a right lobectomy) or resection of a tumor near the vena cava or portal vessels increases the risk for air embolism. With any hepatic resection, hemorrhage is a serious concern and is a significant contributor to the risk of morbidity and mortality in these patients. Although new surgical techniques have improved outcomes, the risk of mortality in patients with normal, noncirrhotic livers undergoing a partial hepatectomy is still 1-2%.

82
Q

During the third trimester of pregnancy, the cardiac output

A

increases primarily due to an increase in stroke volume
By the end of the first trimester, the cardiac output is about 40% higher than nonpregnant values. Although the heart rate increases, the increase in cardiac output is primarily due to an increase in stroke volume.

83
Q

What is the most common symptom of placenta previa?

A

Painless vaginal bleeding is the most common symptom of placenta previa.

84
Q

Patients with a double aortic arch often prefer to lie with the neck extended because neck flexion can cause

A

tracheal compression
Patients with a double aortic arch often prefer to lie with the neck extended because neck flexion can cause tracheal compression.

85
Q

You are caring for a patient about to undergo anesthesia for a cesarean section. You assist her into the supine position on the surgical table. She soon experiences hypotension, tachycardia, dizziness, and nausea. What first action should you take?

A

place her in left lateral tilt position
As a pregnant patient lies supine, the uterus compresses the aorta and vena cava, resulting in a decrease in venous return. It often appears as hypotension and may be accompanied by diaphoresis, nausea, and dizziness. Placing the patient in the left lateral tilt position helps prevent this from occurring.

86
Q

A patient undergoing a TURP begins to exhibit widening of the QRS complex and ST segment elevation on the electrocardiogram. Based on this evidence, you would estimate the serum sodium to be

A

115 mEq/L
Central nervous system symptoms of hyponatremia such as confusion, restlessness, nausea, and vomiting begin to appear at about 120 mEq/L, with ECG changes occurring at 115 mEq/L, and ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation occurring below 100 mEq/L.

87
Q

Pain that persists more than three months after resolution of the rash associated with herpes zoster is referred to as

A

Postherpetic neuralgia is pain that persists more than three months after resolution of the rash associated with herpes zoster.

88
Q

The recovery position used for transporting pediatric patients to the post-anesthesia recovery room is better known as the

A

The optimal position for the transfer of a pediatric patient is in the lateral decubitus position, also known as the recovery position. In this position, the upper leg is flexed at the hip and positioned in front of the lower leg on the bed. The upper hand is placed under the patient’s lower cheek. This position allows for easier monitoring and management of the upper airway and facilitates the drainage of secretions out of the mouth. It also allows for the practitioner to place a hand over the mouth and chin to feel for adequate inspiration and exhalation.