P - Professional Aspect Flashcards

1
Q

A patient claims to suffer an injury due to an anesthetic and is out of work for six weeks due to the injury. He files a lawsuit to recover his lost wages. In this instance, he is suing for

A

special damages

Three types of damages may be sought for in a civil lawsuit: general damages, special damages, and punitive damages. General damages result directly from the injury and include reimbursement for pain and suffering. Special damages occur as a result of the injury, such as lost wages, medical expenses, and funeral expenses. Punitive damages are rare in medical malpractice cases, but are intended to punish the wrongdoer for the negligence that led to the damage to the plaintiff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If an anesthetic complication occurs that is likely to produce a prolonged hospitalization or permanent injury, you should notify

A

the liability carrier

If an anesthetic complication occurs that is likely to produce a prolonged hospitalization or permanent injury, you should notify the liability carrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A CRNA sends a text message on his personal cell phone to another CRNA asking if Mr. Jones in operating room 6 is doing well during his prostatectomy. This text message

A

could lead to civil liability

Protected health information is defined as any information relating to the past, present, or future mental or physical health of a person, or gives enough information that could reveal an individual’s identity, such as name, birth date, address, or demographic data. Furthermore, this information should only be transmitted through devices approved by a facility or digital environments with secure connections, HIPAA-compliant messaging services, or network encryption. All healthcare providers should be cognizant that confidentiality breeches can result in civil liability, criminal investigations and sanctions, job loss, and disciplinary action by state licensing boards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An attempt to touch a person without their consent, even if no harm is caused, is referred to as

A

assault

assault = attempt
Battery = Beating 

Assault is the attempt to touch another person. Battery is the actual touching of a person without their consent. Harm does not have to be caused in cases of assault or battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient undergoing a high-risk, cosmetic surgery refuses to suspend their advance directive. The CRNA assigned to the case refuses to participate on the moral statement that they believe the significant risk of life is not worth the benefits of the elective surgery. The facility ethics committee deemed the procedure appropriate if the patient understands and accepts the risks. The appropriate step to take is to

A

locate another CRNA to perform the case

A CRNA has the right to conscientious objection, which means that they can refuse to participate in a case if the patient’s advance directive violates their moral, ethical, or other beliefs so long as it doesn’t place the patient at risk for harm or constitute a breach of duty. If another qualified practitioner is available, then they should perform the case. If no one else is available and the procedure has not been deemed medically unnecessary or inappropriate, then the CRNA should honor the wishes of the patient and perform the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The key difference between expert witnesses and other witnesses called to appear before the court in a malpractice trial is that

A

expert witnesses may express their opinion rather than fact

Although many expert witnesses are recognized in their field for their publications, research, and specialized experience or training and may be paid for their services, these are not necessary elements. Any licensed practitioner can appear before the court, and it is the sole discretion of the judge, not the jury or any other member of the court as to whether they are qualified as an expert in the matter. The key difference between expert witnesses and factual witnesses is that expert witnesses can give their opinion on a matter and can therefore testify speculation rather than fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a continuous quality improvement program, a partial disconnect of the anesthesia circuit that was detected by the practitioner before the patient suffered any harm would be referred to as a

A

critical incident

In continuous quality improvement programs, events are identified and analyzed as opportunities to improve processes. An event that could potentially produce in harm in a patient, such as a circuit disconnection, whether the event was detected before harm was committed or not, is referred to as a critical incident. A sentinel event is a single, isolated event such as a patient death or su

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which is NOT a document that gives one person the right to make medical decisions on behalf of a person who is incapable of making the decisions for themself?

A

Sustainable attorney-in-fact

A durable power of attorney, medical power of attorney, and healthcare power of attorney are all terms that refer to the legal representative that can make medical decisions on behalf of another who is not able to make those decisions for themself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which person would be most qualified to testify as an expert witness for a CRNA in a neuroanesthesia case?

A

An active CRNA with 8 years of neuroanesthesia experience

Qualified nurse anesthetists’ expert testimonies are used in many situations such as medical malpractice suits, institutional peer review, and in state board disciplinary hearings. Only nurse anesthetists can testify on the nurse anesthesia standard of care. Expert witnesses should be currently certified, have expertise in the area that they are testifying, and be well-versed about the nurse anesthesia standard of care. In this case, the retired, former CRNA does not qualify because he no longer has an active certification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In quality of care models, the sequence and coordination of patient care would be part of which component?

A

process

The three building blocks of quality of care are structure, process, and outcome. Structure refers to the setting in which the care is delivered. It includes the facilities, organizational structure within which the care is delivered, and personnel that deliver care. It also includes the qualifications and licensing of the personnel, the equipment they use, the standards of the facility, and even factors such as the ratio of staff to patients. The process of care refers to the sequence and coordination of operations in the care of patients. For example, when in the sequence of care is the preanesthetic evaluation performed? How is monitoring performed during an anesthetic? Outcome refers to the changes in a patient’s health status following the delivery of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following terms describes a civil wrongdoing?

A

TORT

A tort is a civil wrongdoing. It is not necessarily a criminal act, but an act that involves damages inflicted by one person on another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

You have an objection to a patient’s advance directive (AD). According to federal law, you should clearly explain your objection to the patient and

A

identify the state law on which your objection is based

According to federal law (applies to facilities that participate in Medicare and Medicaid), if there is an objection to a patient’s advance directive, you should clearly explain the objection, identify the state law on which it is based, distinguish between objections of the facility and objections of the particular clinician, and describe the range of healthcare conditions and/or procedures that could be affected by the objection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The concept of vicarious liability arises under the common law doctrine of

A

respondeat superior

Vicarious liability is a form of liability that arises from the concept of respondeat superior. This means that an employer has a duty for reasonable oversight of their employees and can be held liable for their actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of the quality improvement model?

A

analysis

Donabedian, a leader in the creation of the quality improvement model, identifies three components to quality: structure, process, and outcomes. Structure is the facilities and environment in which care is administered and includes policies and procedures, governance, noise levels, ease of access, privacy, etc. Process is how the care is actually delivered and includes concepts such as compassion, communication, development of trust, etc. Outcomes involve the measurements of results of the care provided and includes elements such as mortality, morbidity, and speed of recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You are served a legal complaint indicating that you are being sued for injury to a patient. The first thing you should do is

A

notify your liability carrier

If you are served notice that you are being sued, you should notify your liability insurance carrier immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient has no advance directive. During an emergency situation, the patient becomes confused and agitated. He states he wants to be left alone to die immediately prior to collapsing in cardiac arrest. You should

A

perform CPR immediately and call for assistance

An advance directive can be given orally in many states, but often requires special confirmation such as two witnesses who document it. In order for any advance directive to be valid, though, the patient must be in an appropriate, decision-making state at the time it is made. This patient was confused and not in a state to issue an advance directive, so CPR should be instituted immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A CRNA will be adding a new procedure to their scope of practice at their facility. They have secured privileges, demonstrated competence, and ensured they are within state and federal guidelines. What should they do before performing the procedure?

A

Contact their liability carrier

The AANA Scope of Practice encompasses all activities in which a CRNA may be engaged. It is not a laundry list of specific activities that a CRNA may and may not perform. Instead, the CRNA must demonstrate competence to perform the new activity, be licensed within the state to perform it, comply with federal and state regulations regarding the activity, have the necessary equipment and resources to perform it, and be credentialed and have privileges to perform the procedure at the specific facility. Once that is completed, they should contact their professional liability carrier before performing the procedure to ensure that it would be covered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to JCAHO guidelines, which of the following occurrences are required to undergo a root causal analysis?

A

As part of the patient safety goals of the JCAHO guidelines, any sentinel event such as wrongful patient death, surgery on the wrong patient or wrong body part, or injury from medication errors should undergo root causal analysis to determine the point of error so that it can be corrected in the future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In quality improvement terminology, an event that has the potential to cause patient injury if not noticed and corrected quickly is a

A

critical incident

Critical incidents are events that have the potential to cause patient injury if not noticed and corrected quickly. Critical incidents are much more common than adverse outcomes, making their measurement more reliable. An example would be a disconnection in an anesthesia circuit. If corrected quickly, it does not produce a problem but could have devastating consequences if it went unnoticed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which injury carries the highest incidence of occurrence for a patient in lithotomy position?

A

lower extremity neuropathy

The incidence of lower-extremity neuropathy from the lithotomy position is 151 in 10,000 patients. The incidence of permanent neurologic injury from a spinal is 4.2 per 10,000 and from an epidural, it is almost double that, at 7.6 per 10,000. Corneal abrasion has a rate of about 15 per 10,000 and ischemic optic neuropathy (ION) has an incidence of about 2.8 per 10,000 spinal surgeries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which component of the quality of care model does the location in which anesthesia care is provided represent?

A

structure

Quality of care is typically referred to as being comprised of three components: structure, process, and outcome. Structure refers to the setting in which the care is provided including the location, personnel, and facilities used. Process incorporates the sequence of activities and what was actually done. Outcome refers to the change in health status after care was delivered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

During a procedure, a CRNA objects to performing it because they realize the patient’s advance directive (AD) violates their personal, ethical values. No other anesthesia provider is available to perform the case. The CRNA should

A

complete the case

A CRNA has the right to conscientious objection, which means that they can refuse to participate in a case if the patient’s advance directive violates their moral, ethical, or other beliefs so long as it doesn’t place the patient at risk for harm or constitute a breach of duty. If another qualified practitioner is available, then they should perform the case. If no one else is available and the procedure has not been deemed medically unnecessary or inappropriate, then the CRNA should honor the wishes of the patient and perform the case. In this instance, the CRNA must complete the case to avoid a breach of duty and possible harm to the patient. The CRNA should also have been fully aware of the patient’s advance directive before the case began.

23
Q

The clinical and administrative activities that are implemented in order to identify, evaluate, and reduce the risk of injury to patients, visitors, and caregivers to reduce the chance of injury and reduce the cost to the organization is referred to asv

A

risk management

Risk Management consists of the clinical and administrative activities that are implemented in order to identify, evaluate, and reduce the risk of injury to patients, visitors, and caregivers to reduce the chance of injury and reduce the cost to the organization. Quality Assurance is the systematic evaluation and review of the delivery of healthcare and it’s outcomes with the intent to identify and overcome deficiencies in the delivery and design. Root causal analysis is the determination of the point at which an error occurred so that it can be corrected in the future.

24
Q

The nine year-old child of a Jehovah’s Witness has presented for surgery for repair of a tear in the abdominal aorta following an automobile collision. The patient is hypotensive and the hematocrit is 21%. The patient’s parents state that the child is not to receive blood products under any circumstances. Which of the following actions would represent an understanding of the current legal standards on this matter?

A

Administering blood products as needed to the patient

Although the legal system allows an adult to martyr themselves for their religious beliefs, no court has upheld the decision of a parent to martyr their child. In an emergency situation, blood should be administered as needed to the patient to ensure their safety.

25
Q

A CRNA wishes to perform pain blocks at his facility. Which of the following is NOT true when considering adding a new activity to the scope of practice?

A

The activity must be specifically listed within the AANA Scope of Practice

The AANA Scope of Practice encompasses all activities in which a CRNA may be engaged. It is not a laundry list of specific activities that a CRNA may and may not perform. Instead, the CRNA must demonstrate competence to perform the new activity, be licensed within the state to perform it, comply with federal and state regulations regarding the activity, have the necessary equipment and resources to perform it, and be credentialed and have privileges to perform the procedure at the specific facility.

26
Q

In most states, a 17 year-old would be considered an emancipated minor if they

A

are economically independent

Although the particulars vary slightly from state-to-state, a patient who is at least 14 years old may be considered an emancipated minor (meaning that they can make their own healthcare decisions without interference by a parent or guardian) if they are: married, are a parent, are in the military, or are economically independent. In some situations, it also includes patients who are pregnant.

27
Q

The legal concept that describes a situation where an outcome was foreseeable before the event took place is

A

proximate cause

As part of a negligence case, the plaintiff must not only prove that the actions of the defendant caused the damages suffered, but also that there was proximate cause, which means that the outcome should have been foreseeable before it took place. This means that a plaintiff may not be found guilty of negligence if the outcome was due to an extraordinary event that no one could have reasonably predicted.

28
Q

Which would be the most important facet of preventing confusion and miscommunication when discussing an incapacitated patient’s advance directive status during the perioperative interview?

A

identify the legal decision maker early

Identifying the legal decision maker for a patient undergoing anesthesia is one of the most important facets of clear communication when addressing advance directive concerns during the preoperative interview.

29
Q

What law established regulations protecting patient privacy by defining how protected health information is used and who can use it?

A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 established regulations protecting patient privacy by defining how protected health information is used, the circumstances in which it can be used, and who can use it.

30
Q

You are asked to give expert testimony in a malpractice case on behalf of a nurse anesthetist. The fees you charge should be based upon

A

the time spent preparing and delivering testimony

Compensation for expert testimonies are based on the time spent preparing and delivering testimony. They are not based on the outcome of the legal action or settlement.

31
Q

According to the AANA, institutional policies regarding advance directives (ADs) for patients undergoing anesthesia should be oriented towards

A

suspending the AD until a specified time postop

The AANA recommends that institutions form patient-centered policies and create documentation to help educate patients and their families with the goal of suspending advance directives during anesthesia and for a specified time postoperatively.

32
Q

A written document delivered to a party in person or by certified mail that notifies them that a legal complaint has been filed against them is a

A

Summons and complaint

A summons and complaint is a written document delivered to a party in person or by certified mail that notifies them that a legal complaint has been filed against them.

33
Q

The amount of time that a plaintiff has to file an action is called the

A

statute of limitation

The amount of time that a plaintiff has to file an action is known as the statute of limitation. It is determined by state law and usually begins at the time the plaintiff discovers the negligent act, not necessarily at the time the negligent act occurred.

34
Q

Failure to monitor the oxygen saturation of a patient during a general anesthetic for a patient who suffered anoxic brain injury during the surgery would be an example of

A

Breach of Duty

Because monitoring oxygen saturation is one of the standards of care for anesthesia practice, failure to monitor it during an anesthetic would constitute breach of duty, which is one of the elements that must be proven in a malpractice case.

35
Q

The substantial factor test is a component of which of the four elements of assignment of malpractice?

A

causation

In malpractice cases, there are two common tests performed to determine whether the breach of duty was the cause of the patient’s injury. The first test is the ‘but for’ test which states that if the injury would not have occurred ‘but for the action of the anesthetist’ then the anesthetist is liable for the damages. The second test states that if the action (or inaction) of the anesthetist was a ‘substantial factor in the injury’ then the anesthetist is liable for the damages. These two test are components of the determination of causation.

36
Q

A nurse anesthetist refuses to acknowledge the advance directive of a patient, performs CPR, and successfully resuscitates the patient. According to most state laws, the CRNA

A

could be guilty of battery

Under most state laws, a healthcare provider who willfully disregards a patient’s advance directive could be guilty of battery (touching a patient without their consent) and be subject to civil and/or criminal liability.

37
Q

The advance directive term for a patient for whom all appropriate resuscitative measures should be employed in the event of an emergency is

A

Full code

A Full Code or Code Blue advanced directive status indicates that all appropriate resuscitative measures should be employed for a patient in the event of an emergency situation.

38
Q

Failure to obtain informed consent prior to anesthesia would be an example of

A

breach of duty

Except in cases where consent is implied (such as emergency situations where it is assumed the patient would consent to life-saving treatment) informed consent must be obtained prior to administering anesthesia. Failure to do so is considered a breach of duty.

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT necessary to document regarding a patient’s advance directive decisions prior to initiating an anesthetic?

A

the specific anesthesia drugs to be administered

When discussing the reconsideration of an advance directive prior to anesthesia, it is important to document the date and time of the conversation, the people present during the conversation, a summary of the anesthesia plan, the interventions to be withheld or applied, the duration of time the advanced directive is to be suspended, and the conditions under which the directive will be reinstated.

40
Q

According to the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof is referred to as

A

A sentinel event

According to JCAHO, a sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof. A near miss is a process variation that didn’t affect patient outcomes, but carries a high risk for serious injury. Morbidity indicator and error of execution are not JCAHO terms.

41
Q

A CRNA is involved in a lawsuit. The plaintiff’s attorney will call expert witnesses to testify against the CRNA. Who can testify on the standard of care for nurse anesthetists?

A

Only nurse anesthetists

Qualified nurse anesthetist’s expert testimonies are use in many situations such as medical malpractice suits, institutional peer review, and in state board disciplinary hearings. Only nurse anesthetists can testify on the nurse anesthesia standard of care. Expert witnesses should be currently certified, have expertise in the area that they are testifying, and be well-versed about the nurse anesthesia standard of care.

42
Q

What legal doctrine is established when an anesthesia provider signs onto an anesthesia record to give a co-worker a break?

A

Duty

The assumption of the care of the patient establishes that the anesthesia provider has a duty to the patient. Duty is one of the four elements that must be proved in a malpractice case along with breach of duty, causation, and damages. Res ipsa loquitor (the thing speaks for itself) refers to an event that would not have occurred ‘but for the actions of the defendant’. Replevin is a lawsuit to recover goods improperly taken by another. Intent to uphold care is not a legal term.

43
Q

An adverse event occurs during a patient’s anesthetic. Which apology carries the least risk for liability exposure?

A

I am sorry that this event occurred.

An apology is an expression of regret or sorrow. To help encourage disclosure or errors, some states do not allow information provided in a disclosure conversation or an apology to be used as evidence in malpractice litigation. Although these apology laws permit sympathetic statements, they do not provide protection from admissions of guilt. For example, the statement, ‘I am sorry this happened’ may be protected, but the statement, ‘I am sorry that my mistake caused this’ would not be protected.

44
Q

A written document that notifies a party that a lawsuit has been filed against them is a(n)

A

summons and complaint

A summons and complaint is a written document delivered to a party in person or by certified mail that notifies them that a legal complaint has been filed against them. An indictment is a formal written accusation by a grand jury. Replevin is a lawsuit to recover goods improperly taken by another. A writ of mandamus is an order by a court to force a party to commence some required action.

45
Q

Which of the following would be classified as part of the structural component of the quality of care model in the analysis of an event where a patient was injured? (select two)

A

Policies and procedures
The facility where the event occurred

Quality of care is typically referred to as being comprised of three components: structure, process, and outcome. Structure refers to the setting in which the care is provided including the location, personnel, policies, and facilities used. Process incorporates the sequence of activities and what was actually done. Outcome refers to the change in health status after care was delivered.

46
Q

Which advance directive measure refers to the use of medications to decrease awareness to alleviate pain or discomfort at the end of life?

A

palliative sedation

Palliative sedation refers to the administration of medications to decrease or prevent awareness of pain or discomfort at the end of life.

47
Q

An anesthetist knowingly deviates from the standard of care and his actions produce injury to a patient. This is known as

A

criminal recklessness

Negligence can be considered criminal negligence if the practitioner deviates from the standard of care significantly. If the practitioner does so knowingly, it is referred to as criminal recklessness. If they do so unknowingly, it is referred to as criminal negligence.

48
Q

A healthcare provider refuses to participate in a case because the advance directive of a patient violates their personal moral code. This is referred to as

A

conscientious objection

A CRNA has the right to conscientious objection, which means that they can refuse to participate in a case if the patient’s advance directive violates their moral, ethical, or other beliefs so long as it doesn’t place the patient at risk for harm or constitute a breach of duty. If another qualified practitioner is available, then they should perform the case. If no one else is available and the procedure has not been deemed medically unnecessary or inappropriate, then the CRNA should honor the wishes of the patient and perform the case.

49
Q

In quality improvement models, policies and procedures would represent an example of

A

Structure

Donabedian, a leader in the creation of the quality improvement model, identifies three components to quality: structure, process, and outcomes. Structure is the facilities and environment in which care is administered and includes policies and procedures, governance, noise levels, ease of access, privacy, etc. Process is how the care is actually delivered and includes concepts such as compassion, communication, development of trust, etc. Outcomes involve the measurements of results of the care provided and includes elements such as mortality, morbidity, speed of recovery.

50
Q

Which of the following must be proven by the plaintiff in a malpractice case for the plaintiff to be successful?

A

causation, duty, damages

The four elements of a malpractice lawsuit that must be proven by the plaintiff in order that the plaintiff’s case is successful are: Duty: the plaintiff must prove that the defendant had a duty to the plaintiff. Breach of duty: the plaintiff must prove that the defendant failed to fulfill the duty owed to the defendant. Causation: A reasonably close relationship must be proven to exist between the breach of duty by the defendant and the injury that resulted. Damages: the plaintiff must also prove that some injury occurred due to the breach in duty.

51
Q

The requirement for healthcare providers to use electronic medical records was dictated by the

A

American Recovery and Reinvestment Act

As a part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act, all healthcare providers are required to use electronic medical records in order to maintain their level of Medicare and Medicaid reimbursement.

52
Q

The body of law created by a legislature to achieve a specific purpose is known as

A

statutory law

Statutory law is the body of law created by a legislature to achieve a specific purpose. When a law requires interpretation or when two laws are in disagreement, a judge must make a ruling on the specific case. This is known as case law or common law. Regulations are rules that are created by agencies that are given the task of applying a law. For example, congress passed the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, but the Department of Health and Human Services was given the task of creating the regulations to implement the act.

53
Q

Advance directives for patients undergoing anesthesia are typically

A

suspended temporarily and resumed after the postoperative period

Because anesthesia frequently requires the use of measures that are otherwise considered life-sustaining, advance directives are often suspended temporarily and resumed at a specified time after the postoperative period. The healthcare providers, patient, and any others involved should discuss exactly what measures should be withheld or applied, in what situations, and when the advance directive should be resumed.