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Surgical management of hip dysplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of “joint” is the pelvic symphysis?

A

A synchondrosis which transforms over time to become a synostosis

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2
Q

Which end of the symphysis is larger?

A

Ischial portion is slightly larger

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3
Q

What kind of cartilage makes up the pelvic synthesis?

A
  • Hyaline cartilage - acts as the growth plate
  • Fibrocartilage - gradually replaced by bone
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4
Q

When does the pelvis symphysis start to ossify?
When is it complete?

A
  • Starts to ossify in a caudal to cranial direction beginning at 9-21 months
  • Completely ossified within 2-6yr
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5
Q

List the peripheral ligaments of the pelvic symphysis

A
  • Transverse or oblique fibrous fascia - along the dorsal surface, strengthens
  • Prepubic tendon
  • Arcuate pubic ligament - crosses ischial arch, often becomes ossifies
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6
Q

What is a JPS?

A

Application of electrocautery to the hyaline cartilage of the pubic symphysis resulting in head-induced necrosisof the germinal chondrocytes

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7
Q

How does a JPS effect acetabular growth?

A

Results in external rotation of the acetabulum in a ventrolateral axial direction

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8
Q

What is the ideal age for JPS?

A

12 - 20 weeks

25% treated dogs developed OA vs 83% of sham operated dogs

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9
Q

What muscles are partially elevated from the symphysis for JPS?

A

Gracilis and adductor muscles

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10
Q

What are the recommended electrosurgical settings for JPS?

A
  • 500kHz current frequency
  • 40W
  • current applied via monopolar probe for 10-30 seconds, every 2-3mm along cranial 1/3 - 1/2 of the symphysis
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11
Q

What are the aims of TPO/DPO?

A
  • Reducing joint laxity
  • Normalising joint stresses
  • Improving joint congruence
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12
Q

What vessels need to be avoided during pubic osteotomy?
Nerve?

A
  • Deeper medial circumflex femoral artery and vein
  • Obturator nerve
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13
Q

What muscles need to be elevated from the ischium for ischial osteotomy of TPO? What structures need to be avoided?

A

Dorsal
- Internal obturator muscle
- Pudendal nerve

Ventral
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus
- External obtruator muscle

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14
Q

What range of angles are typically available for TPO/DPO plates?

A

20 - 45 degrees

The desired degree of rotation is generally 5 degrees greater than the measured angle of subluxation

Coverage by the DAR does not signifcantly increase over that achieve by a 20 degree plate

Rotation beyong 40 degrees is not advised

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15
Q

What is the reported complication rate after a TPO? What are the main complications?

A

35 - 70%
Screw loosening and pelvic canal narrowing

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16
Q

How have the use of locking plate and DPO effected the rates of screw loosening?

A
  • DPO reduced screw loosening to 3.2% (from 6-36%)
  • Locking plates reduced the rate of screw loosening to 0.4%
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17
Q

How do metallic grains effect THR implant strength?
List manufacturing methods of increasing implant strength

A
  • The smaller the metallic grain, the stronger the implant

Manufacturing methods to srengthen implants:
- Forging
- Investment casting
- Hot isostatic pressing
- Cold working
- Heat working

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18
Q

What is the elastic modulus of stainless steel, cobalt chromium and titanium?

A
  • Stainless steel and cobalt chromium = approx 200GPa
  • Titanium = approx 100GPa
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19
Q

What is stress shielding?

A

Occurs when implant is stiffer than bone, preventing adequate load transfer to the bone, resulting in bone resorption due to relative disuse atrophy leading to implant loosening

20
Q

What metals are in 316L stainless steel?

A
  • Iron
  • Chromium
  • Nickel
  • Molybdenum
21
Q

What metals are in cobalt alloys?
What THR implants use this?

A
  • Chromium
  • Molybdenum
  • Nickel

Implants:
- BioMedtrix BFX anf CFX
- Very hard with excellent wear and corrosion resistance

22
Q

What is the most common titanium alloy?
Which THR implant uses this?

A
  • Ti6A14V
  • Stronger, good fatigue resistance
  • More prone to wear debris than cobalt alloys

Implants
- Zurich Cementless
- Recently switched to Ti6A14Nb

23
Q

What is tantalum?

A

A metal that can be fabricated with a porosity and elastic modulus similar to those of cancellous bone

24
Q

What is tribology?

A

The study of bearing surfaces

The ideal bearing surface is low friction, low wear debris generation, biocompatible, and damage resistant

25
What is the acceptable linear wear rate in people?
0.1mm/year *Dogs showed a significatnyl lower volumetric wear that is seen in humans however dogs had a more severe bony reaction (osteolysis) to the debris*
26
List the 5 main ways in which wear debris can be generated
- Adhesive wear (cold welding) - Abrasive wear (irregularity on surface of harder material or thrid-body wear) - Fatique wear ( Cyclic loading causing cracks/microcracks) - Erosive wear (Solid particle erosion, impingement wear) - Corrosive wear ( galvanic corrosion - oxidation that generally results from interactions of disimilar metals)
27
Under what circumstances is the greatest amount of wear debris created?
Titanium bearing surface with a cemented prosthesis
28
List options for coating of metallic heads
- Titanium nitride - Diamond-like carbon ("amorphous carbon film")
29
What are two forms of cermic used in THR in humans? What are the benefits?
- Alumina and Zirconia - Wear products are locally inert - Hydrophilic crating a virtaully frictionless fluid-film lubrication
30
What is the reported loosening rate of a Helica implant?
37.5%
31
What strategies can be imployed to enhance the strength of the cement mantle?
- Centrifugation and application of a vacuum (Decreases porosity) - Pressurisation (injector and intramedullary cement restrictor - Minimum 2mm mantle - Femoral stem centralisers - COllared prostheses - Minimising blood and fat interposition
32
What environment is necessary for bone ingrowth?
- Pore size 50 - 400mcm - Micromotion less than 20mcm - Porosity of 30-40% is ideal
33
What is the angle of inclincation?
Angle between the anatomic axis of the femoral neck and femoral shaft
34
What is femoral offset?
DIstance between center of rotation of femoral head and anatomical axis of the femur
35
What is femoral neck anteversion?
The cranial angulation of the femoral neck in relative to the anatomical axis of the frontal plant of the femur Increased anteversion can predispose to craniodorsal luxation
36
What is the goal version angle of the acetabulum? Goal angle of lateral opening?
- 15 - 20 degrees acetabular retroversion - 45 degrees lateral opening
37
What is the recommened version angle of the femoral neck?
- 15 - 25 degrees anteversion
38
What is the overall success rate and complication rate for THR?
- 95% success - 5 - 22% complication rate
39
List some forms of mechanical and biological failure of a THR
Mechanical - Luxation (2 - 17%) - Femoral fracture - Acetabular fracture - Acetabular cup avulsion - Femoral stem avulsion - Subsidence (less than 4-5mm likely insignificant) - Implant failure - Cement failure Biologic - Aseptic loosening - Septic loosening (1 - 2%) - Stress protection
40
How are THR-related femoral fractures classified?
The Vancouver classification: - Fracture at level of greater trochanter Ag - Fracture of lesser trochanter Al - Fracture with stable prosthesis B1 (screw fixation) - Fracture with unstable prosthesis B2 (press-fit stem) - Fracture with unstable prosthesis, worse prognosis B3 - C describes fractures distal to prosthesis (cemented stems)
41
What is the "coffin-lid" approach for removing cement?
- Creation of a bone flap starting at base of greater trochanter and extending the length of the cement mantle. Edges should be beveled and corners should be rounded
42
What is the primary cause of aseptic loosening?
Wear-debris mediated osteolysis
43
Why is the removal of periprosthetic fibrous tissue a crucial part of revision?
Contains mediators of bone lysis - Activated macrophages - TNF-a - Oxygen-derived free radicals
44
What are the reported outcomes of an FHO?
- 38% good (no lameness) - 20% satisfactory (some lameness) - 42% poor (persistent mild to severe lameness)
45
What are the anatomical landmarks for a FHO?
From medial aspect of greater trochanter proximolaterally to lesser trochanter distomedially
46
What are two palliative options for hip OA?
- Hip denervation - Pectineus myectomy
47
What muscles need to be elevated from the ischium for ischial osteotomy of TPO? What structures need to be avoided?
Dorsal - Internal obturator muscle - Pudendal nerve Ventral - Semimembranosus - Semitendinosus - External obtruator muscle

Tobias Everything (110 decks)

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