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Boards and Wards Complete > Surgery Part 3 and ObGyn Part 1 (202-233) > Flashcards

Surgery Part 3 and ObGyn Part 1 (202-233) Flashcards

1
Q

Bleeding of middle meningial artery. Dx? CT?

A

Epidural - biconcave disk not crossing suture lines

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2
Q

Bleeding of cortical bridging veins. Dx? CT?

A

Subdural - crescenteric pattern extends across suture lines

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3
Q

Bleeding from Circle of Willis often at middle cerebral artery branch. Dx? Biggest cause and Sx?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage - Caused by berry aneurysm –> severe HA and CN III palsy

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4
Q

What does the CSF fluid of a pt with subarachnoid hemorrhage look like? Color? content?

A

Xanthochromia – CSF protein >150

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5
Q

What pharmacologic agent do you give pts with subarachnoid hemorrhage? WHy?

A

Nimodipine to prevent vasospasm that could result in secondary infarct.

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6
Q

Bleeding from basal ganglia, internal capsule and thalamus. Dx? CT/MRI shows?

A

Parenchymal hemorrhage - CT shows focal edema and hypodensity

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7
Q

What could be some causes of parenchymal bleed?

A

hypertension, trauama, AV malformation and coagulopathy

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8
Q

What is the most common temporal bone fracture?

A

Longitudinal fracture (80%)

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9
Q

After temporal bone fracture, if a CSF leak is noted, what should you do?

A

IV antibiotics and ear drops

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10
Q

If a temporal fracture affects the facial nerve, what should you do?

A

Facial nerve decompression

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11
Q

What are the 4 ( or 5) classic signs of a basilar skull fracture?

A

raccoon eyes, Battle’s sign, hemotypmpanum, CSF rhinorrhea and otorrhea

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12
Q

Dark circles (bruising) under the eyes is what?

A

Raccoon eyes

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13
Q

What is Battle’s sign?

A

ecchymosis over the mastoid process indicating fracture.

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14
Q

What is the treatment for a basilar skull fracture?

A

Supportive- HOB elevated, monitor ICP

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15
Q

Pt with increased ICP, bradycardia with hypotension, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and papilledema. What general dx?

A

Tumors

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16
Q

Small circular lesion, often multiple at gray-white junction

A

metastatic

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17
Q

Large irregular ring enhancing lesion due to central infarction (outgrows blood supply) – most common primary CNS neoplasm

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

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18
Q

Second mC neoplasm, slow growing and bengin

A

Meningioma

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19
Q

Occurs in children (often bilateral) 60:40 sporadic:familial

A

Retinoblastoma

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20
Q

Found in cerebellum in the floor of the 4th ventricle, common in children

A

medullablastoma

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21
Q

compresses optic chiasm and hypothalamus

A

craniopharyngeoma

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22
Q

Sx: bilateral gynecomastia, amenorrhea, galactorhhea and bitemporal hemianopsia

A

prolactinoma

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23
Q

MC tumor in AIDS pt (100x incidence) – what does CT look like?

A

lymphoma - ring enhancing lesion

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24
Q

Usually affects CN VIII (acoustic neuroma)

A

Schwannoma

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25
Q

You excise all brain tumors except which two?

A

prolactinoma and lymphoma

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26
Q

Whats the tx for a prolactinoma?

A

Bromocriptine (D2 agonist)

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27
Q

Whats the tx for a lymphoma?

A

Radiation therapy

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28
Q

Dilated ventricles on CT/MRI with normal ICP. Dx?

A

Communicating hydrocephalus (either ex vacuo or normal pressure)

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29
Q

Why does hydrocephaleus ex vacuo happen? Tx?

A

Occurs after neuron loss - stroke, CNS dz.

No treatment

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30
Q

Why does normal pressure hydrocephaleus happen? Sx? Tx?

A

Causes: idiopathic, meningitis, cerebral hemorrhage,trauma, arthrosclerosis.

Sx: wet whacky wobbly

Tx: diuretic, repeated spinal taps and consider shunt placement.

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31
Q

What kind of hydrocephalus is associated with increased ICP?

A

Communicating or non communicating

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32
Q

Communicating spontaneous increased ICP commonly seen in obese young females, but can be idiopathic. Also can be caused by massive quntaties of Vitamin A. Dx? CT?

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

CT –> no ventricle dilation (may even be shrunken)

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33
Q

How to Tx pseudotumor cerebri?

A

acetazolamide or surgical lumboperitoneal shunt

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34
Q

Where is a non communicating hydrocephalus obstructed?

A

CSF outflow is at the 4th ventricle at the foramina

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35
Q

What could be the causes of noncommunicating hydrocephalus?

A
  • Congenital (Arnold Chiari syndrome)
  • tumor
  • Scarring secondary to meningitis
  • secondary to subarachnoid hemorrhage
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36
Q

Define aneurysm

A

Abnormal dilation of an artery to more than twice it’s normal diameter

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37
Q

What is the Most common cause of an aneurysm?

A

arthrosclerosis

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38
Q

What’s the difference between a true and false aneurysm?

A

True involves with all 3 layers of the vessel wall

False aneurysms are pulsatile hematomas covered only by a thickened fiberous capsule (adventitia)

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39
Q

Pt with classic abdominal pain, pulsatile abdominal mass, hypotension. Dx?

A

Rupture of AAA

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40
Q

What is the rate of rupture for a 5cm AAA rupture?

A

6% per year

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41
Q

What is the rate of rupture for a 6cm AAA rupture?

A

10% per year

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42
Q

What is the most difinitive diagnosis of a AAA?

A

Aortogram

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43
Q

Why are CTs done for AAA?

A

to determine the size of the aneurysm in a stable pt

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44
Q

When is surgical intervention for a stable AAA recommended?

A

infrarenal and juxtrarenal aneurysms >5.5

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45
Q

What complication can be seen in patients who have had synthetic grafts placed for AAA disease who have GI bleeding?

A

formation of a aortoduodenal fistula

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46
Q

Where is the most common peripheral aneurysm?

A

popliteal artery

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47
Q

What percent of the peripheral aneurysms are bilateral?

A

50%

with 33% of pts with popliteal aneurysms have a AAA

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48
Q

Where is a type A dissection located?

A

ascending aorta

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49
Q

Where is a type B dissection located?

A

both ascending and descending aorta

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50
Q

Pt presents with classic severe tearing (ripping) chest pain in hypertensive pts that radiates toward the back

A

Aortic dissection

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51
Q

Why does peripheral vascular dz happen?

A

arthrosclerosis dz in the lower extremeties

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52
Q

What are the factors associated with peripheral vascular disease?

A

smoking
increased homocystiene
elevated levels of C-reactive protein

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53
Q

What happens when cellulitis superimposes active infection to necrotic tissue?

A

wet gangrene

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54
Q

What is Leriche Syndrome?

A

Aortoiliac disease that causes claudication in hip and gluteal muscles, impotence

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55
Q

What is the ankle brachial index?

A

Ratio of BP in the ankle to the BP in the arm.

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56
Q

What is a normal ABI?

A

Greater than 1

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57
Q

What is an ABI with severe occlusive disease?

A
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58
Q

What is an ABI in a pt with claudication?

A
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59
Q

What is a normal waveform in an artery?

A

triphasic

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60
Q

Moderate occlusive disease waveform?

A

biphasic

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61
Q

severe disease waveform?

A

monophasic

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62
Q

What kind of lifestyle modifications can be suggested to pt with PVD?

A

smoking cessation and increase exercise

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63
Q

What is the pharmacologic intervention for PVD? (first and second line)

A

Cilostazol (vasodilator and platelet inhibitory properties)- first
Pentoxifyllin - second

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64
Q

What is minimally invasive therapy for PVD?

A

percutaneous balloon angioplasty and/or arthrectomy + endoluminal stents

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65
Q

What are indications for PVD surgery?

A

rest pain, tissue necrosis, non healing infection and intractable claudication

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66
Q

Dilated prominent tortuous superficial veins in the lower limbs

A

varicose veins

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67
Q

What kinds of people get varicose veins? (2) Why?

A
  • pregnancy (progesterone causes dilation of veins)
  • prolonged standing professions
  • possible inheritance
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68
Q

Why do venous ulcers occur?

A

Seconday to venous hypertension, DVT, varicose veins –> usually located on the medial calf or ankle

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69
Q

Are venous ulcers painful or painless?

A

painless?

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70
Q

What is phelgmasia alba dolens?Tx?

A

milk leg –> venous thrombosis usually occuring in post partum women

Tx: heparin and elevation

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71
Q

What is phlegmasia cerula dolens? Tx?

A

venous gangrene –> venous thrombosis with complete obstruction of arterial inflow

Tx: heparin, elevation and venous thrombectomy if unresolved

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72
Q

What are unna’s boots?

A

zinc oxide paste impregnated bandage used to reduce swelling

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73
Q

Why do arterial ulcers occur?

A

secondary to occlusive arterial disease

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74
Q

Are arterial ulcers painful or painless

A

painful in contrast to venous ulcers

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75
Q

Where are arthrosclerotic plaques most often seen in carotids?

A

most commonly the carotid bifurcation

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76
Q

What is the indication for carotid endarterectomy in symptomatic patients?

A

stenosis > 70%
multiple TIAs
Pts with Hx of CVA, amenable to surgery

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77
Q

What is the indication for carotid endarterectomy in asymptomatic patients?

A

carotid steonosis >75%

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78
Q

What dz is caused by an occlusive lesion in subclavian arteria or innominate artery that causes decreased blood flow distal to the obstruction?

A

Subclavian steal syndrome

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79
Q

Where does subclavian artery “steal” blood from?

A

vertebral artery via retrograde flow

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80
Q

What is the tx for subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Carotid-subclavian bypass

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81
Q

What causes renovascular hypertension?

A

Renal artery stenosis and subsequent activation of the renin-angiotensin pathway

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82
Q

What causes renal artery stenosis to begin with?

A

Arthrosclerotic lesions… but can be secondary to fibromuscular dysplasia, subintimal dissections and hypoplasia of the renal artery

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83
Q

What’s the initial test you would do to test for renal artery stenosis? Gold standard?

A

renal duplex ultrasound and gold standard is angiography

Can also do renin:vein renin ratio (captopril test)

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84
Q

Define chronic intestinal ischemia

A

secondary to arthrosclerotic lesions of atleast 2 of the 3 major vessels supplying the bowel.

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85
Q

Pt with weight loss, post prandial pain and abdominal bruit. dx?

A

chronic intestinal ischemia

86
Q

Define Acute intestinal ischemia

A

acute thrombosis of a mesenteric vessel secondary to arthrosclerotic changes or emboli from the heart

87
Q

How do you confirm or rule out diagnosis of acute intestinal ischemia?

A

Angiogram

88
Q

At how many weeks is a term delivery?

A

37 weeks

89
Q

How many weeks is a premature delivery

A

between 20-37 weeks

90
Q

What is Chadwick’s sign?

A

blue-ish discoloration of the vagina due to vascular congestion

91
Q

What is Hegar’s sign?

A

softening of the cervix

92
Q

What hormone do pregnancy tests detect?

A

hCG or it’s Beta subunit

93
Q

At what age is a gestational sac identified?

A

5wks

94
Q

At what age is a fetal image detected?

A

6-7weeks

95
Q

At what age is cardiac activity first noted?

A

8 weeks

96
Q

What is Nagele’s rule?

A

LMP+7 days - 3 months +1 year = estimated due date

97
Q

During first visit, what tests do you do on mom?

A 
CPE
Pap smear
cultures for GC
CBC
Blood type with Rh
RPR
Rubella
TB
Skin testing
Offer HIV antibody test
98
Q

Teratogen effect of lithium

A

Ebstein’s anomoly

99
Q

Teratogen effect of Carbamazepine or valproate

A

Neural tube defects

100
Q

Teratogen effect of Retinoic acid

A

CNS defects, craniofacial defects, cardiovascular defects

101
Q

Teratogen effect of ACEi

A

Renal failure in neonates, renal tubule agenesis, decreased skull ossification

102
Q

Teratogen effect of Oral hypoglycemic

A

neonatal hypoglycemia

103
Q

Teratogen effect of warfarin

A

skeletal and CNS defects

104
Q

Teratogen effect of NSAIDs

A

Constriction of ductus arteriosus, necrotizing enterocolitis

105
Q

Teratogen effect of thalidomide

A

phocomelia (underdevelopment of limbs and face)

106
Q

Medication has not shown increased risk for birth defects in human studies. Category?

A

A

107
Q

Medications are associated with birth defects in humans; however potential benefits in rare cases may outweigh their known risks. Category?

A

D

108
Q

Animal studies show adverse effects, but no studies available in humans. Category?

A

C

109
Q

Medications are contraindicated in human pregnancy bc of known fetal abnormalities that have been demonstrated in both human and animal studies. Category?

A

X

110
Q

Animal studies have not demonstrated a risk and no adequate studies in humans OR animal studies = risk, but human studies = no risk

A

B

111
Q

If a pregnant pt is not immune to rubella, what should you do?

A

DO NOT VACCINATE. – Rubella vaccine is a live virus

112
Q

How much weight gain is recommended during pregnancy?

A

25-35 lbs

113
Q

In the first trimester, how often should a woman visit the obgyn?

A

every 4 weeks

114
Q

Why is trace glucosuria seen in normal pregnancy?

A

increase in GFR.. but anything more than trace protein should be evaluated

115
Q

At what weeks are the following uterine landmarks?

  • Pubic symphysis
  • midway from symphysis to umbilicus
  • at umbilicus
  • Correlates with wk of gestation
A
  • Pubic symphysis 12 weeks
  • midway from symphysis to umbilicus 16 weeks
  • at umbilicus 20 weeks
  • Correlates with wk of gestation 20-36 weeks
116
Q

All pregnant women should undergo what testing in first trimester?

A

Down’s syndrome

117
Q

What is the ultrasound test to look for down’s syndrome?

A

Nuchal translucency

118
Q

What are the blood work results (AFP, Estriol, HcG, Inhibin A) for Down’s syndrome?

A

AFP and Estriol down

HcG and Inhibin A is HIgh (in down’s ironically)

119
Q

What are the blood work results (AFP, Estriol, HcG, Inhibin A) for Turner’s syndrome

A

AFP and Estrio is down

HcG and Inhibin A are VERY HIgh

120
Q

What are the blood work results (AFP, Estriol, HcG, Inhibin A) for Edward’s syndrome?

A

Estriol and HcG is low. (HE is low)

121
Q

What are the blood work results (AFP, Estriol, HcG, Inhibin A) for Pateu syndrome?

A

AFP is high

122
Q

Adding what test to the quad screen increased the detection to >85%?

A

PAPP-A

123
Q

When is quickening seen in the fetus?

A

17-19 weeks

124
Q

At what week should glucose screening be done?

A

24 weeks (1 hr glucola)

125
Q

At how many weeks should you start going to the obgyn more frequently?

A

Every 4 weeks til 32 weeks, Every 2 weeks from 32-36 weeks and every week til delivery

126
Q

What should you ask when concerned about preterm labor?

A

Are you having any vaginal bleeding, contractions or rupture of membranes

127
Q

At how many weeks do you screen for GBS?

A

35-37 weeks

128
Q

If mother is Rh - , at how many weeks is Rhogam administered?

A

28-30 weeks

129
Q

Why is pregnancy a hypercoagulable state?

A

increased clotting factors

venous stasis due to uterine pressure on lower extremity great veins

130
Q

Why is there a relative anemia seen in pregnancy?

A

Plasma volume increases by about 50% and red cell mass increases later on so relative anemia of 15% seen

131
Q

What happens to cardiac output in pregnancy?

A

increases by 50%

132
Q

What kind of murmurs are normal in pregnancy?

A

systolic ejection murmur

133
Q

What murmurs are not normal in pregnancy?

A

Diastolic murmur

134
Q

Why is there decreased peripheral vascular resistance?

A

Progesterone mediated smooth muscle relaxation

135
Q

Why is there increased nasal stuffiness and increased nasal secretions in pregnancy?

A

Increased hyperemia (more vessels growing) = increased congestion

136
Q

What happens to GI motility, esophageal sphincter tone in pregnancy?

A

decreased –> constipation results in hemorrhoids

137
Q

What happens to bladder tone? Why might this be a problem?

A

decreased tone, predisposed to UTIs

138
Q

What happens to serum creatinine and BUN?

A

decreases because increased GFR by 50% which means more gets filtered out

139
Q

What happens to fasting blood glucose? Why?

A

decreases because of fetal utilization

140
Q

What week does the fetus start making it’s own insulin?

A

9-11 weeks

141
Q

why does hyperpigmentation occur?

A

Increased estrogen and melanocyte stimulating hormone affects umbilicus, perineum, face (cholasma) and linea nigra

142
Q

What is the #1 medical complication of pregnancy occuring in 2% of pregnancies?

A

gestational diabetes mellitus

143
Q

What are some risk factors of GDM risk factors

A
  • hx of previous GDM
  • maternal age >30
  • obesity
  • FHx of DM
  • previous infant weighing more than 4000 g at birth
  • unexplained still births
  • repeated spontaneous abortions
144
Q

Why is GDM caused in pregnancy?

A

Human placental lactogen antagonizes insulin which causes hyperglycemia so fetus can get more.

145
Q

What fetal weight is considered macrosomia?

A

greater than 4500 g

146
Q

What are 2 complications to mom during pregnancy because of GDM? Why?

A

Abruption and pre-term labor bc of increased uterine size and post partum uterine atony

147
Q

What is the screening test and diagnostic test for GDM?

A

1 hour glucola test screens at 24-28 weeks

3hr GTT confims

148
Q

Why are oral hypoglycemics contraindicated in GDM?

A

they can cross the placenta and result in retal and neonatal hypoglycemia

149
Q

What is White’s classification?

A

Class A1 = GDM diet controlled

Class A2 = GDM insulin controlled

150
Q

When is thromboembolic disease in pregnancy most likely to happen?

A

During pregnancy 1-2%, post partum 80 %

151
Q

What is the first line for diagnosing thromboembolic disease?

A

dopplar ultrasound

152
Q

What is the gold standard for thromboembolic disease/?

A

venography

153
Q

Tx for superficial thrombophlebitis

A

leg elevation, rest, heat and NSAIDs

154
Q

What do you treat DVT with?

A

heparin to maintain PTT at 1.5-2.5 times the baseline

155
Q

Why is warfarin contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

It crosses the placenta – > teratogenic (bone deformities, abortion, opthomalogic abnormalities) early and causes bleeding later

156
Q

What percentage of DVTs untreated progress to PE?

A

25%

157
Q

What are some risk factors of pregnancy induced hypertension?

A 
nulliparity
age >40
FHx of PIH
chronic HTN
chronic renal dz
diabetes
twin gestation
158
Q

What happens to reflexes in pts with pre-eclampsia?

A

hyperreflexia and clonus

159
Q

Cure for PIH?

A

delivery of baby

160
Q

What are the 3 criteria for pre-eclampsia?

A

> 140/90 of increased SBP >30 or DBP>15 compared to previous

new onset proteinuria/edema
Generally occuring at >20wks

161
Q

What additional symptoms must be seen to classify as severe pre-eclampsia?

A

SBP >160 OR DBP > 110
Marked proteinuria (>1g/24h or >11 dip)/ increased creatinine
CNS disturbances
pulmonary edema/cyanosis
epigastric/RUQ pain or hepatic dysfunction

162
Q

What is the hallmark sx of Eclampsia?

A

convulsions

163
Q

When should you start MgSO4?

A

in severe pre-eclampsia

164
Q

When should you treat the blood pressure of eclampsia?

A

to maintain

165
Q

What is a complication of severe PIH?

A

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Llow Platelets

166
Q

What is the treatment for HELLP?

A

delivery, transfuse bloos, platelets and fresh frozen plasma as needed, IV fluids, pressors as needed to maintain BP

167
Q

What is peripartum cardiomyopathy?

A

A type of dilated cardiomyopathy that decreases ejection fraction

168
Q

When does peripartum cardiomyopathy occur?

A

Last month of preg or first 6 months post partum

169
Q

What are some risk factors to peripartum cardiomyopathy?

A 
African american
multiparious
age >30
twin gestation
Pre-eclampsia
170
Q

What is the treatment for peripartum cardiomyopathy?

A

bed rest, digoxin and diuretics along with possible anticoagulation

171
Q

When is intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS indicated?

A
  1. PTL or prolonged ROM or fever in labor
  2. GBS + at 36 wks
  3. GBS bacteruria or previous baby with GBS
172
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat GBS if pt is allergic to penicillin?

A

Clindamycin or erythromycin

173
Q

What antibiotics should be used if pt is dx with chorioamnionitis?

A

broad spectrum *Look up later

174
Q

What is the definition of hyperemesis gravidum?

A

N/V past 16 weeks of pregnancy

175
Q

What are the causes of hyperemesis gravidum?

A

increased HcG levels, thyroid or other GI hormones

176
Q

If there is more than a 2cm deviation from expected fundal height during 18-36 weeks, what should you do?

A

repeat measurement or do ultrasound

177
Q

What is the most reliable tool for assessing fetal growth?

A

ultrasound

178
Q

What is measured in early pregnancy to obtain gestational age?

A

crown rump length

179
Q

To get gestational age later in pregnancy, what 4 measurements are done?

A

biparietal diameter of skull
abdominal circumference
femur length
cerebellar diameter

180
Q

How many fetal movements per hour indicate fetal well being?

A

4 per hour

181
Q

How many accelerations in a NST are considered normal?

A

2 within 20 minutes

182
Q

What are the 5 components of a biophysical profile? Scoring?

A 
Fetal breathing
Gross body movements
Fetal tone
Qualitative amniotic fluid volume 
Reactive FHR

Each rated on scale of 0-2. 8-10 is normal, 6 equivocal and

183
Q

What do you test for fetal lung maturity?

A

Lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio >2

and phosphatidylglycerol

184
Q

What is lecithin?

A

a phospholipid found in surfactant and increases as lungs mature

185
Q

What is sphingomyelin?

A

An agent that remains constant throughout pregnancy

186
Q

What is phosphotidylglycerol?

A

Marker that appears late in pregnancy, indicates lung maturity

187
Q

After how many weeks are fetal lungs generally mature?

A

after 34 weeks, but highly variable

188
Q

How are the phospholipids for lung maturity measured?

A

by amniocentesis because they enter the amniotic fluid from fetal breathing

189
Q

What is normal fetal heart rate?

A

120-160bpm

190
Q

What’s VEAL CHOP

A

Variable - Cord compression
Early deceleration - Head compression
Accelerations - OK
Late decelerations - Placental insufficiency

191
Q

What is the MCC for fetal tachycardia?

A

maternal fever

192
Q

Why does head compression cause early decelerations?

A

Because the vagus nerve stimulated reflex response to release acetylcholine at the fetal SA node

193
Q

Development of maternal immunoglobulin antibodies following RBC exposure is called..

A

Isoimmunization

194
Q

Why is isoimmunization dangerous to subsequent pregnancies?

A

cross the placenta, attach to fetal RBCs and hemolyze them causing fetal anemia

195
Q

What is the worst case scenario to isoimmunization and why does it occur?

A

Hydrops fetalis – occurs bc significant Abs across placenta causes fetal anemia.. The liver attempts to make new RBCs (fetal hematopoiesis occurs in liver and bone) at the expense of other proteins –> decreased oncotic pressure –> fetal ascities and edema

196
Q

What 2 times during pregnancy is Rhogam given to mother to prevent isoimmunization if she is Rh negative and father is Rh + or unknown

A

28 weeks and 72 hours after pregnancy

197
Q

Define braxton hicks contractions

A

False labor = uterine contractions without effacement and dilation of the cervix

198
Q

All lactating women have approximately ____ greater energy requirement than the average pregnant woman.

A

2/3

199
Q

At what point in gestation does an Rh- mother with Anti-Rh IgG titers greater than 1:16 whos pregnant with Rh+ fetus begin amniocentesis?

A

16-20 weeks to track amniotic fluid bilirubin levels (which depicts level of fetal hemolysis level)

200
Q

What are the cardinal movements?

A 
Engagement
Descent 
Flexion
Internal rotation
Extension
External rotation (restitution)
Delivery.
201
Q

Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism is classic of what genetic condition?

A

Turner’s syndrome. nonfunctional gonads so negative feedback doesn’t work so increased levels of FSH and LH

202
Q

What are the top 3 DDx to abnormal mid cycle bleeding?

A

Pregnancy
Hypothyroid
OCP mis-use

203
Q

What is the definition of pre-term labor?

A

regular contractions at intervals of 10 minutes or less lasting > or = to 30 seconds, occuring between weeks 20-36. Eventual cervical dilation and effacement will occur

204
Q

What time period does missed abortion occur?

A
205
Q

What are 3 tests done to test for rupture of membranes?

A
  • Pool (speculum exam shoes a pool of fluid in vagina)
  • Nitrazine test (fluid is placed onto nitrazine paper, positive if blue-alkaline-aka amniotic fluid)
  • Fern = slide shows ferning pattern
206
Q

Untreated hydatidiiform moles become what?

A

choriocarcinoma

207
Q

What is the most common cause of 1st trimester abortion?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities?

208
Q

What is the MCC for 2nd trimester abortion?

A

Cervical incompetence is #1 but other causes include: fetotoxic agents such as warfarin, enalapril, isotretinoin, cocaine

209
Q

What is LGA?

A

Large for gestational age >90th percentile

210
Q

What is SGA?

A

small for gestational age

211
Q

What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A

Pancreatic cell hyperplasia –> risk for LGA

Boards and Wards Complete (13 decks)

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