Heme Onc + Surgery Part 1 (111-156) Flashcards
Endometriosis within uterine wall
Adenomyosis
Endometriosis within ovary
Endometrioma
What is the MCV of a microcytic anemia?
What 2 general reasons can there be for a decreased MCV
- decreased HB production
2. Impaired Hb function
If you’ve determined that pt has Iron deficiency anemia, whats the NEXT STEP
figure out why iron deficient
Whats the number 1 anemia in the world?
Iron deficiency
What’s the number one cause of iron deficiency in the world?
Hookworms
What population often has increased incidence of Iron deficiency?
Women of childbearing age secondary to menses
Dx in elderly with iron deficiency
Colon cancer until proven otherwise
What population has dietary iron deficiency?
Children, basically impossible in adults.
Reason out why pt with iron deficiency would have following sx:
- tachycardia
- fatigue
- pallor
- smooth tongue
- brittle nails
- esophagel webs
- pica
not sure about smooth tongue
In Iron deficiency anemia ___ serum iron ___TIBC
decreased serum iron
increased TIBC
What is on peripheral smear for iron deficiency anemia?
Target cells
Tx for iron deficiency? Tx goal?
iron sulfate - should reach baseline hematocrit within 2 months
Ineffective erythropoiesis because of disorder of porphyrin pathway. Dx?
Sideroblastic anemia
What are 3 causes for sideroblastic anemia?
Chronic alcoholism
Drugs (INH)
Genetic
What do the labs for sideroblastic anemia look like?
___ iron
___TIBC
___ ferritin
Increased Iron
N/Increased TIBC
increased ferritin
What cells are seen with sideroblastic anemia
Ringed sideroblasts
Tx for sideroblastic anemia
Pyridoxine (B6)
Pt with anemia, encephalopathy (worse in children), seizures, ataxic gait, WRIST/FOOT DROPS, Dx?
Lead poisoning
What are Bruton’s lines?
Blue gray discoloration seen at gumlines in lead poisoning.
What is the classic finding of cells in lead poisoning?
basophilic stippling of RBC
What is the xray finding of lead posisoning?
Lead lines and increased density at the metaphyses of long bones
Tx of lead poisoning
chelation therapy with dimercaprol (BAL) and or ethylene diaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
Hereditary disease of decreased production of globin chains causing decreased Hb
Thalassemias
How do we differentiate the various thalassemias?
Gel electrophoresis of globin proteins
Whats the mechanism of alpha thalassemia?
decreased production of alpha globin chains (4 alleles)
What are the 3 most common (in decreasing order) of populations that get thalassemia?
.1 Asian
- African
- Mediterranean
If 4 alpha alleles are affected, what dz occurs?Blood smear?
hydrops fetalis
fetal demise/total body edema
smear Barts gamma4 Hb
If 3 alpha alleles are affected, what dz occurs?Blood smear?
HbH disease
Precipitation of B chain tetramers
Intraerythrocyte inclusions
If 2 alpha alleles are affected, what dz occurs?Blood smear?
Alpha thalassemia minor
Clinically silent
Mild microcytic anemic
If 1 alpha allele is affected, what dz occurs?Blood smear?
Carrier state
No anemia - asymptomatic
Blood smear not abnormal
In beta thalassemia, what 2 populations are most affected?
- Mediterranean
2. African
Pt starts developing anemia at age 6mo and has splenomegaly, frontal bossing, iron overload
Thalassemia major
How do you dx thalassemia?
Elecrophoresis
Why does frontal bossing occur in Beta thalassemia?
secondary to extramedullary hematopoiesis
Why does iron overload occur in beta thalessemia?
secondary to transfusions.
What are the lab findings for beta thalassemia?
HbA? HbA2? HbF?
Very decreased HbA
increased HbA2
Increased HbF
What is the treatment for thalassemia major?
- Folate
- splenectomy if splenomegaly
- transfuse if severe anemia
How does B-thalassemia minor present? Lab findings, Tx?
Asymptomatic
Electrophoresis (same findings as major)
Tx by avoiding oxitative stress
What happens to HbS in sickle cell anemia?
HbS tertramer polymerizes causing sickling deoxygenated RBCs
Why does vaso-occlusion occur in Sickle cell pts?
Bc blood isn’t carrying enough O2, vasoconstriction occurs causing sickled cells to get trapped –> pain crisis.
What signs/sx occur because of vaso-oclusion
pain crisis, myocardiopathy
infarcts of bone/CNS/lungs/kidneys and auto-splenectomy
What are sickle cell patients more succeptible to because of autosplenectomy?
Encapsulated bacteria
Failure of all types of blood cell growth (aplastic anemia) occurs in sickle cell pts because of what virus?
Parvo virus B19
When intravascular hemolysis occurs in sickle cell patients, what is one complication they can develop esp children and teens
Gall stones
What is the treatment for sickle cell?
O2 – transfusion as needed
Hydroxyurea to decrease the incidence and severity of pain crisis
Pneumococcal vaccine bc of increased risk of infection.
What is the MCV for megaloblastic anemia?
> 100
Why do megaloblastic anemias occur?
decreased DNA synthesis with normal RNA/protein synthesis
What does the blood smear for megaloblastic anemia look like?
hypersegmented neutrophils
What is the most common cause of B12 deficiency?
pernicious anemia
What is the mechanism of pernicious anemia?
Antibodies to gastric parietral cells which decreases intrinsic factor (needed for B12 uptake in the terminal ileum)
Why does atrophic gastritis occur with pernicious anemia?
Anti-parietal Abs attack parietal cells –> inflammation to stomach mucosa –> grandular tissue is replaced by fibrous tissue –> achlorydia (decreased HCl production)
Name 2 other causes of B12 deficiency?
Resection of terminal ileum or diphyllobothrium latum infection.
B12 deficiency causes what signs/sx in blood? neuro?
megaloblastic anemia
neuro signs = peripheral neuropathy, parasthesias, WORSE IN LEGS
What are the diagnostic lab findings of B12 deficiency? \_\_\_ Mehtylmalonic acid \_\_\_ Homocystiene \_\_\_ B12 \_\_\_ MCV
increased MMA
Increased Homocysteine (more sensitive than b12 level)
Decreased B12
>100 MCV.
Tx for B12 deficiency?
High dose b12 (oral proven to be equivalent to parenteral)
Where is folic acid derived from?
green, leafy vegetables (foliage)
What is the most common reason for folate deficiency?
dietary
What two states of the human body increase folate requirement?
Pregnancy or hemolytic anemia
What two drugs inhibit folate reduction into tetrahydrofolate?
Methotrexate and prolonged TMP-SMX
What symptoms does folic acid deficiency manifest?
Megaloblastic anemia, no neuro signs (unlike B12)
Labs for folic acid deficiency?
___ Methylmalonic acid
___ Homocysteine
___ Folate
Normal MMA
Increased homocysteine (more sensitive than folate levels)
May or may not be decreased folate
Treatment for folic acid deficiency?
Folic acid oral supplementation
What is a normocytic anemia MCV?
between 80 and 100
What two categories of normocytic anemia divided into?
hypoproliferative and hemolytic
What are the 3 normocytic hypoproliferative anemias?
Anemia of renal failure
Anemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anemia
What is the mechanism behind anemia of renal failure?
EPO production is decreased by kidney in chronic renal failure
How do you treat anemia of renal failure?
EPO
What is the mechanism behind anemia of chronic disease?
Chronic inflammation states like (cancer, TB, fungal, infxn or collagen vascular disease) cause release of hepcidin from the liver as an acute phase reactant so iron is inhibited from gut absorption.
What labs can help diagnose anemia of chronic disease?
___Serum iron
___ferritin
___ TIBC
decreased serum iron
normal/increased territin
decreased TIBC
What is the mechanism behind aplastic anemia?
Bone marrow failure, usually idiopathic, parvovirus B19, hepatitis virus, radiation, drugs like chloramphenicol
How do you dx aplastic anemia? What will bone marrow biopsy show?
Bone marrow biopsy will show hypocellular marrow
What are the 4 ways to get hemolytic anemia?
Spherocytosis
Auto immune hemolysis (IgG mediated)
Cold agglutinin disease (IgM mediated)
Mechanical destruction
What is the mechanism of spherocytosis?
Autosomal dominant defect in spectrin causes stiff RBCs to be trapped in the spleen
What does spherocytosis present with in childhood?
Childhood jaundice and gall stones
Which type of bilirubin is elevated in spherocytosis?
Indirect hyperbilirubinemia
Is spherocytosis Coombs + or -
negative Coombs
What does the peripheral smear for spherocytosis show?
Spherocytes
What is the treatment of spherocytosis?
Folic acid and splenectomy for severe disease
What is the most common and other causes for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Idiopathic (MC)
lupus, drugs, leukemia, lymphotma (others)
Signs and sx of autoimmune helomlytic anemia?
Rapid onset, spherocytes on blood smear
Labs seen for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
____ indirect bilirunin
____ haptoglobin
____urine hemosierin
increased indierct bilirubin
decreased haptoglobin
increased urine hemosiderin.
What is the definitive diagnosis for hemolytic anemias?
direct coombs test positive
What is the 1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment for hemolytic anemia?
1st give prednisone
- Rituximab (anti-CD20 B cell Mab)
- splenectomy.
What is the most commonly idiopathic anemia that could also result from Mycoplasma pneumoniae or Mono (CMV or EBV)
Cold-agglutinin disease (IgM mediated. )
Pt gets anemia s/p cold or uri. Dx?
Cold agglutinin disease
Dx test for cold agglutinin disease
cold agglutinin test or direct coombs test
Tx for cold agglutinin disease
Prednisone, supportive
What are the causes of mechanical destruction of RBCs? (4)
DIC, TTp, HUS and artificial heart valve
What would be seen on peripheral smear for mechanical destruction?
Schistocytes
At what platelet amount does bleeding time increase?
less than 50,000
At what platelet amount does clinically significant bleeding start?
less than 20,000
At what platelet amount do CNS bleeds start to occur?
less than 10,000
What are some causes of thrombocytopenia? (5)
ITP, TTP, HUS, DIC, Drug induced.
How does ITP differ in children and adults?
ITP is auto-antibody mediates platelet destruction. In children it occurs after URI and is self-limiting. In adults, its chronic.
Whats the treatment for ITP
Steroids, IVIG –> splenectomy –> rituximab (anti CD20) for refractory disease.
Hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia Renal failure Fever Neurologic disease is the pentad for what disease?
Throbotic thrombocytopenic purpupa (TTP) - often idiopathic and seen in HIV, fatal.
What is the Tx for TTP
Tx: Plasma exchange
Kid presents with ARF, bloody diarrhea, abd pain, seizures, FULMINANT THROMBOCYTOPENIA w HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) often bc Ecoli 0157:H7
What is the tx for HUS?
Dialysis
What are some drugs that can induce thrombocytopenia?
Heparin, sulfonamides, valproic acid –> reversible if agent is stopped
What is the most common inherited hypercoagulable disorder?
vWF deficiency (although some places say Factor V)
vWF deficiency shows what labs? PT/PTT? BT?
Episodic increased BT
Normal PT/PTT
How do you diagnose vWF?
vWF levels and ristocetin-cofactor test
What is the Tx for VWF deficiency? Tx for active bleed?
DDAVP which increased vWF secretion
OR
Cryoprecipitate for active bleed
X-linked deficiency of factor VIII
Hemophilia A
X- linked deficiency of factor IX
Hemophilia B (aka Christmas disease)
What is the major sign/sx for hemophilia?
Labs? PT/PTT/BT?
bleeding into a joint (hemarthroses)
Increased PTT
normal PT
Normal BT
What is the Tx for hemophilia?
Give recombinant Factor VIII or IX concentrate
What are 3 myeloproliferative disorders?
Polycythemia vera
Essential thrombocythemia
Idiopathic myelofibrosis
What causes myeloproliferative diseases?
Clonal proliferation of myeloid stem cell –> leads to excessive production of mature differentiated myeloid cell lines
What is the danger of myelopriliferative diseases?
They can all transform into acute leukemias
Pt is a 50-60 yr old MALE with HA, diplopia, retinal hemorrhages, claudication, early satiety, splenomegaly, gout, PRURITIS AFTER SHOWERING, BASOPHILIA
Polycythemia vera
Tx for polycythemia vevra
phlebotomy and hydroxyurea
Pt with platelet count >1x10^6, splenomegaly and ecchymosis. All other causes like iron deficiency and malignancy were r/o. Dx?
Essential thrombocythemia
Tx for essential thrombocythemia?
anagrelide and plateletpharesis
Pt >50 yrs old with MASSIVE hepatosplenomemgaly and TEARDROP cells on peripheral smear. Dx?
Idiopathic myelofibrosis
What is the prognosis for idiopathic myelofibrosis? What does it progress to?
Poor,
What situations can secondary thrombocytosis be seen? Counts often >1 million
Any chronic inflammatory disorder like infxn, bleed, iron deficiency anemia or following splenectomy.
What is the most common neoplasm in children (peak age 3-4)
ALL
What peripheral blood blasts are seen positive in ALL?
PAS+
CALLA +
TdT +
What is the prognosis for cure of ALL in children?
Good, 80%. Much worse in adults.
What is the most common leukemia in adults?
AML
What blasts are + in blood for AML?
MPO+
Sudan Black +
Auer Rods +
What is the Tx for the M3 subtype of AML?
All-trans retinoic acid
What complication must we be especially careful about in AML?
DIC
Which leukemia presents most commonly in >50yrs old and can result in BLAST crisis within 3-6 mos… though the onset is about 3-4 years?
CML
What chromosome is + in serum for CML?
Philadelphia chromosome
What is different about the cells in the peripheral blood and what interesting marker does it have?
Peripheral blood has cells of all maturational stages.
Also, decrease in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase.
What translocation is the PHL chromosome?
abl gene on chromosome 9 to bcr on chromosome 22
Tx for CML
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor like imatinib seylate. If fails, BMT can be curative
Pt had this asymptomatic cancer for many years and only recently started to present with organomegaly, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia. Morphology of blood and marrow smear are normal.Tx?
CLL
Tx: palliative, early tx doesnt prolong life.
Which leukemia has a characteristic hairy cell morphology and pancytopenia? Tx?
B cell subtype of hairy cell leukemia
Tx: INFalpha and splenectomy
What type of leukemias generally involve skin and present with erythematous rashes?
T cell leukemias
MC leukemias by age 15 15-39 40-59 >60
15 ALL
15-39 AML
40-59 AMLand CML
>60 CLL
Teenage presents with a cancer in head and neck
Non hodgkins lymphoma
Which lymphoma is closely related to EBV?
Burkitt’s lymphoma
African Burkitt’s involves which body parts?
US Burkitts?
African - starry sky
US- abdomen
What’s seen on pathology for Burkitts?
Starry sky - spaces scattered within densely packed lymph tissue
What is typical therapy for Non Hodgekins?
R-CHOP Rituximab Cyclophosphamide Hydroxydaunarrubacine (Adrimycin) Oncovin (vincristine) Prednisone
Elderly pt comes in with diffuse scaly rash or erythroderma (total body erythema). Path report shows stained cells with ceribriform nuclei (cerebral gyri)
Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (CTCL)
Leukemic phase called Sezary syndrome
Treatment of CTCL?
UV light
Pt with nasal T cell lymphoma (lethal midline granuloma) and pulmonary angiocentric lymphoma . Large mass, biopsy just shows diffuse necrosis. Tx?
Angiocentric T cell lymphoma
Tx: palliative radiation, prognosis poor
What population does Hodgkins lymphma affect?
Bimodal age distribution, young men and elderly
What concurrent infection is present in 50% of cases of Hodgkins?
EBV
What type of fevers are present in Hodgkins?
Pel-Ebstein (fevers wax and wane)
Pt has Pel-ebstein fevers, chills, night sweats, weight loss, pruritis. What makes these symptoms worse?
Alcohol intake worsens Hodgkins lymphoma sx.
What cells are visible on path for Hodgkins
Reed-Stern berg Owl eyes. Binucleated Giant Cells or Mononucleated Giant Cell.
What defines each stage of cancer?
Stage 1 = 1 lymph node involvement –> radiation
Stage 2 = >2 lymph nodes involved on same side of diaphragm –> radiation
Stage 3 = Involvement on both sides of diaphragm –> chemo
Stage 4 = disseminated to organs or extranodal tissue–> chemo
What are 2 chemotherapy regimens?
MOPP = mechlorethamine, Oncovin, Procarbazine, prednisone ABVD = adriamycin, belomycin, vincristine, dicarbazine.
For urgent K+ repletion, what to give at what rates?
Give IV 10 mEq/h through peripheral line of 20 mEq/hr through central line
Give oral K simultaneously at upto 40 mEq/hr
If you replete K+ too quickly, what is the side effect?
vessel necrosis
By how much does each 10 mEq oral or IV increase the total serum K in the body?
Increases serum K by 0.1 mmol/L
Peri-MI, K level should be kept above ___ to suppress arrhythmia- be aggressive
> 4.0
What is the sequence of EKG changes for hyperkalemia?
- Peaked T waves
- Diminished R waves
- Widening of QRS
- Prolonged PR interval
- Loss of P wave
- Sine wave.
look on page 135 for reference.
To treat emergent hyperkalemia, why do we give IV calcium gluconate? What do we follow this with?
IV calcium gluconate given to stabilize myocardial cell membranes –> this does not lower potassium.
We then give Glucose + Insulin which will lower the plasma potassium for several hours.
This can be given +/- Kayexalate oral or per rectum to drop K levels for 24 hrs.
How much of our lean body weight is water? Where in body is it?
50-70% mostly located in skeletal muscle
What fraction of total body water is intracellular and extracecllular?
Intracellular (2/3)
Extracecllular (1/3)
What is the 3 for 1 rule of Fluid management?
Since only 300mL of a 1L lactate ringer solution stays intravascularly, you should replete 3 to 4 times the vascular defecit.
In what patients are colloid solutions most useful?
edematous patients because colloid solutions have high molecular weight and stay intravascular for longer
What complication could starch solutions have?
Increased tissue accumulation leading to coagulopathy and renal failure.
How much fluid does an uncomplicated patient NPO lose per day?
> 1 L of fluid from sweat, urine, feces and respiration.
How do you know if you are adequately rehydrating a patient?
Urine output > 0.5 cc/kg/hr (for typical patient 30 cc/hr)
What is the number 1 cause in inpatients for hypercalcemia?
Malignancy involving bone, parathyroid or kidney
What physical exam sign would you see in patients with hypocaclcemia?
Chvostek’sand Trousseau signs
What electrolyte disorder would Cushing’s often cause?
Hypokalemia
What electrolyte disturbance would refeeding syndrome cause?
Hypophosphatemia
Explain cascade of thrombus formation starting from endothelial damage?
Endothelial damage –> platelets bind to subendothelium through interaction of von Willebrand factor –> platelets release ADP, 5HT, and platelet derived growth factor –> platelets bind to eachother via GP2b-3a forming thrombus
Review Coagulation cascade
Review coagulation cascade
Where is vitamin K derived from?
leafy vegetables and colonic flora
Which cofactors need vitamin K for gamma-carboxylation
2 7 9 10 factors C and S
When is pre-operative lab screening warrented?
Only if there are signs and sx suggestive of underlying bleeding disorder
1 unit of packed RBC should raise Hb and hematocrit by how much?
1 g/dL Hb and 3% Hct
What is the most common cause of acute rejection of blood products?
clerical error
What should be done in case of acute rejection of blood?
stop transfusion and administer IV fluids to maintain urine output.
Which hepatitis are you most likely to be at risk for with prior hx of blood transfusion?
Hepatits C
What level should platelets be transfused to?
maintain at 50,000 because significant bleeding does not occur unless lower than that
What is the most common complication of platelet transfusion?
alloimmunization –> platelet counts continue to fall despite continued transfusion.
Why might platelet alloimmunization occur?
Antibodies to donor’s MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
How to treat pt if platelet alloimmunization is occuring?
Single donor HLA matched platelets
Which blood product contains all coagulation factors?
Fresh frozen plasma
What is cryoprecipitate rich in?
Factor VIII, fibrinogen and fibronectin.
If a uremic patient is having severe bleeding secondary to platelet dysfunction, what to treat with?
DDAVP or cryoprecipitate…. NEVER TRANSFUSE MORE PLATELETS –> they’ll just become dysfunctional too
How long prior to surgery should asprin be discontinued?
2 weeks
What is the most common post operative cardiac event?
Atrial fibrillation
What is the most important factor to consider to see if pt is at risk for pulmonary complications post op?
If pt has hx of COPD
Azotemia, sepsis, intraoperative hypotension, nephrotoxic drugs and radiocontrast agents all put patient at risk for what?
post operative renal failure
What measures can be taken to avoid contrast associated nephropathy (CAN)?
Expand intravascular volume with IV fluids and using N acetyl cysteine or sodium bicarbonate prior to administering radiocontrast dye.
What preventative measure must you take pre-op for all pts with prosthetic heart valves?
Give antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent bacterial endocarditis
What should always be on the differential of post op dyspnea?
Pulmonary embolus
What precaution must be taken for patients on corticosteroids >1 wk preoperatively and with any pt with primary adrenal insufficiency?
Give steroid replacement via hydrocortison before, during and after surgery to approximate response of normal adrenal gland ..
Normal surgical response is to secrete corticosteroids but this response is diminished in pts taking steroids or if they have adrenal insuff.
Pt s/p operation has unexplained hypotension and tachycardia despite fluid and vasopressor administration. Tx?
Pt is in adrenal crisis. Give corticosteroids which will dramatically improve BP
What is the differential for post op fever in order of post op days?
Wind (lungs) Water (urinary tract) Wound Walking (DVT) Wonder drug (drug reaction)
What anesthetics trigger malignant hyperthermia? Tx?
halothane, isoflurane, succinylcholine
Treat with dantrolene, cooling measures and ICU monitoring
What is the MCC of death in pts
Trauma
When surveying the airway, if it cannot be established, what should you do? What do unconscious patients need?
- Use large bore 14 gauge needle insert it into the cricothyroid membrane
- Unconscious pts need endotracheal intubation
What does the cxray look like for a tension pneumothorax? Sx? Tx?
contralateral mediastinal shift along with distended neck veins due to increased CVP. Also will have hypotension, absent breath sounds and hyperresonance to percussion on affected side.
Tx: Immediate chest tube or 14 gauge needle puncture of affected side.
What is a flail chest a result of? Tx?
Multiple rib fractures, tx: intubation with mechanical ventillation
Injury to the great vessels causes what?
massive hemothorax requires chest tube
Neck trauma can occur in 3 zones. What imaging is used to assess neck trauma?
look at pic on 150. Use 4 vessel angiography
What kind of needles are put in to maintain circulation?
Two large-bore IV placed in upper extremities. For severe shock, place central venous line
What is the indication for a FAST exam?
intraperitoneal hemorrhage or pericardial tamponade
History of abdominal trauma, hypotensive or unable to provide a reliable history because of impaired consciousness due to head injury or drugs.
What are the 4 areas assessed with a FAST exam?
- Periherpatic (hepatorenal space)
- Perisplenic
- Pelvis
- Pericardium
What is the DDx for loss of consciousness?
Alcohol Epilepsy Insulin Overdose Uremia
Trauma
Infection
Psychogenic
Stroke
What is the Tx for LOC in an emergent situation where cause is unknown
Tx: coma cocktail –> dextrose, thiamine naloxone and O2
What is Cushing’s triad?
HTN, bradycardia and bradypnea seen when there is increased ICP
Tx for Pt with “Disability” including Cushings triad and increased ICP?
Ventillation to keep PaCO2 at 30-40 mm Hg, control fever, administer mannitol, corticosteroids and even bony decompression if needed
What does ABCDE stand for in trauma situations?
Airway Breathing Circulation Disability Exposure
What do racoon eyes and Battle’s sign indicate?
Periorbital and mastoid hematomas
If blood is noted at the urethra, what must be done before placing a bladder catheter?
retrograde urethrogram
What is hematuria s/p trauma suggest?
significant retroperitoneal injury
What happens to the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in cardiogenic shock?
increased PCWP
What is the treatment for compartment syndrome?
Fasciotomy
What is the defect and tx for hypovolemic shock?
decreased preload – 2 large bore IVs with crystalloid infusions 3 for 1 rule
What is the defect and tx for cardiogenic shock?
Myocradial failure – Pressors dobutamine is first line
What is the defect and tx for septic shock?
Decreased peripheral vascular resistance – Give norepinephrine to vasoconstrict peripheral arterioles to prevent multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Which layer of dermis do the following burns affect? 1st deg 2nd deg 3rd deg 4th deg
1st deg superficial dermis
2nd deg epidermis
3rd deg skin and subQ tissue
4th deg affects muscle and bone
How do you calculate the percentage of Body surface affected? (BSA)
See image on p 155
How do you calculate and administer fluid resuscitation to a burn victim? How is it given?
Parkland fomula = %BSA * weight (kg) * 4
Used to calculate amount of crystalloid needed
Give half of fluid in the first 8 hours and give the remainder over the next 16 hours
Why is it important to make burn patient NPO?
must have return of bowel function
What are the nutritional requirements of a burn pt?
High protein and caloric requirements with vitamin supplementation.
What is a Marjolin’s ulcer?
squamous cell carcinoma arisng from an ulcer or burn
What is a Curling’s ulcer?
acute duodenal ulcer seen in burn patients