Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is the temperature of liquid nitrogen?

A

–196°C​

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2
Q

What is the temperature required for cell death for each of the following:

  1. Melanocytes,
  2. Benign lesions, and
  3. Malignant lesions?
A
  1. Melanocytes: –5°C​
  2. Benign: –25°C​
  3. Malignant: –50°C​
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3
Q

What is the definition of electrosurgery?

  • What kind of current is used?
  • What does it rely upon to convert electrical energy into thermal energy?
  • Which has a lower resistance - a thinner or wider electrode tip?
A
  • High-frequency alternating current (AC) to conduct energy via a cold-tipped electrode
  • High-frequency AC current prevents depolarization of muscles and nerves
  • Relies on the high resistance of human tissue, a poor electrical conductor, to halt the flow of current and convert electrical energy into thermal energy, resulting in heat-induced tissue destruction
  • A wider electrode tip has lower resistance than a thinner electrode tip
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4
Q

Define electrocautery.

  • Is it direct or alternating current?
A
  • Direct current supplies energy to generate heat
  • Direct application of heat to tissue via hot-tipped electrode
  • There is no current flowing through the patient
  • Hemostasis is through direct application of heat
  • Safe for patients with implantable devices
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5
Q

True or False:

Monopolar and bipolar CAN be used to describe electrosurgery.

A

False

  • These two (frequently misused) terms should NOT be used when describing electrosurgery!
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6
Q

What does monoterminal mean?

  • How does this affect the voltage needed?
  • What (2) modalities does are monoterminal?
A
  • No grounding pad
  • Because there is no electrode to dissipate the accumulated current, higher voltages are needed to reach desired level of tissue distruction
  • Includes electrodesiccation and electrofulguration
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7
Q

What is the difference between electrodessication and electrofulguration in terms of tissue contact?

A
  • Electrodessication requires tissue contact
  • Electrofulguration does NOT require tissue contact
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8
Q

What does biterminal mean?

  • How does this affect the voltage needed?
  • What (2) modalities does are biterminal?
A
  • Always has a dispersive electrode to recycle current
  • Current travels through body and exits via grounding pad
  • Provides outlet of return of current to the device, which permits increased amperage and reduced voltage
  • Includes electrocoagulation and electrosection
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9
Q

What is the difference between monoterminal and biterminal circuits used in electrical hemostasis?

A
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10
Q

Are electrodessication and electrofulguration monoterminal or biterminal?

  • Which requires direct contact?
A

Electrodessication and electrofulguration are BOTH monoterminal

  • The difference between the two is that electodessication REQUIRES direct contact with the tissue, whereas in electrofulguration there is NO direct contact (i.e., the probe is held at a distance and there is a “spark gap”).
  • Electrofulguration results in more limited, superficial tissue destruction
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11
Q

Are electrocoagulation and electrosection monoterminal or biterminal?

A

Biterminal

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12
Q

What is the difference between electrocoagulation and electrosection?

  • Are they monoterminal or biterminal?
  • Which is undamped? Damped?
A
  • Both biterminal and high amperage (can penetrate tissue deeper)
  • Electrocoagulation is a damped waveform causing some cell destruction but mainly hemostasis
  • Electrosection is an undamped waveform which results in pure cutting with minimal collateral tissue destruction, and NO hemostasis
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13
Q

What should be used for electrical hemostasis in patients with pacemakers and defibrillators? (2)

A
  • Biterminal electrocoagulation
  • Electrocautery
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14
Q

What are indications for incision and drainage of hematomas?

  • Expanding hematomas in what areas are considered medical emergencies?
A
  • Large expanding hematomas (often with acute throbbing pain) can present 1-2 days after surgery
  • Expanding hematomas of the periorbital region (can lead to blindness) and neck (can lead to airway compromise) are medical emergencies
  • Early hematomas can also be aspirated with a 16 or 18 gauge needle
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15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?

A
  • Reversible inhibition of sodium ion influx –> blocks nerve conduction
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16
Q

What is the pulse rate (low/high) and blood pressure (low/high) of the following:

  • Vasovagal reaction,
  • Epinephrine reaction, and
  • Anaphylactic reaction?
A
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17
Q

What is the treatment for the following:

  • Vasovagal reaction,
  • Epinephrine reaction, and
  • Anaphylactic reaction?
A
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18
Q

What are classically the first signs of lidocaine overdose?

A
  • Circumoral and digital parethesias
  • Metallic taste
  • Talkativeness
  • Euphoria
  • Lightheadedness
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19
Q

What are indications for antibiotic prophylaxis for dermatologic surgery?

  • What things or surgical sites would increase the risk of infection?
A
  • High risk for prosthetic joint infection
  • High risk for infective endocarditis
  • High risk surgical sites, including below the knee, groin, skin graft at any site and wedges or flaps of the ear, lip or nose
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20
Q

What prophylactic antibiotics can be used for a high risk surgical site infection of a site that breaches the oral mucosa?

A
21
Q

What prophylactic antibiotics can be used for a high risk surgical site infection of any skin graft at any site, wedge excision or flap on the ear, lip or nose?

A
22
Q

What prophylactic antibiotics can be used for a high risk surgical site infection of the lower legs and groin?

A
23
Q

What is the difference between amide and ester anesthetics?

  • Where are they metabolized?
  • What are allergic reactions commonly due to?
  • What are contraindications?
A

Amides have 2 Is in their name; Esters have only 1 I

  • Amides: metabolized via CYP 3A4 in liver; allergic reactions are rare and usually to methylparaben preservative; contraindication: end-stage liver disease
  • Esters: metabolized via pseudocholinesterases in plasma; renally excreted, frequent allergic reactions to PABA metabolite; contraindications: allergy to PABA, pseudocholinesterase deficiency, renal insufficiency
24
Q

What is the anesthetic of choice in pregnancy?

  • Can epinephrine be used?
A

Lidocaine

  • Note: epinephrine is pregnancy category C and will decrease uterine blood flow
  • Epinephrine can be used if it is diluted to 1 : 300,000
25
Q

What is the maximum pediatric dose of lidocaine with and without epinephrine?

A
  • 1.2 - 2 mg/kg WITHOUT epinephrine
  • 3 - 4.5 mg/kg WITH epinephrine
26
Q

What is the maximum adult dose of lidocaine with and without epinephrine? What about in pregnant women?

A
  • 4.5 - 5 mg/kg WITHOUT epinephrine
  • 7 mg/kg WITH epinephrine
  • Epinephrine can be used in pregnant women if diluted to 1 : 300,000
27
Q

Which amide anesthetic has the longest duration of action when combined with epinephrine? Without epinephrine?

A
  • Bupivicaine + epinephrine lasts 8 hours and is used in big Mohs cases (and has highest risk of cardiac toxicity)
  • Ropivicaine has longest duration by itself at 6 hours
28
Q

What are ways to decrease pain with injection? (3)

A
  • Pinch/rub surrounding skin (“Gate theory” of pain)
  • Add bicarbonate
  • Warm anesthetic
29
Q

What are the notable differences between EMLA and LMX?

  • Which requires occlusion?
  • Which increases the risk of methemoglobinemia in infants?
  • Which cannot be used near the eye?
A
  • EMLA: mixture of 2.5% lidocaine + 2.5% prilocaine
    • Requires occlusion
    • Risk of methemoglobinemia in infants from prilocaine component
    • Cannot use near eye (corneal injury)
  • LMX4: 4% lidocaine
    • Does not require occlusion
30
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen in adults < 60 years old, > 60 years old and those with liver failure?

A
  • Adults < 60 years old: 4 g
  • Adults > 60 years old: 3 g
  • Liver failure: 2 g
31
Q

How long should you stop aspirin in the perioperative period?

A

Withhold for 10 days prior and 5-7 days after surgery as long as no increased risk of stroke or MI for patient

32
Q

True or False?

Thienopyridines (e.g., clopidogrel and ticlopidine) SHOULD be stopped prior to surgery.

A

False

  • Do NOT stop taking clopidogrel or ticlopidine if it is for a cardiac or neurologic indication
33
Q

Should a patient stop warfarin prior to a procedure?

A

No, but ensure INR is < 3

34
Q

Which herbs and supplements enhance warfarin and inhibit platelet adhesion and therefore should be stopped prior to dermatologic surgery?

A
35
Q

Which antiseptic should NOT be used around the eyes or ears?

A

Chlorhexidine

  • Can cause severe corneal damage and ototoxicity
36
Q

Name the instrument in this photograph and what it is classically used for.

A

Allis clamps

37
Q

Name the types of scissors in this photograph.

A
38
Q

Name the needle holders in this photograph.

A
39
Q

Name the instruments in this eyelid surgical tray.

A
40
Q

Name the instruments in this facial surgical tray.

A
41
Q

Name these instruments (from left to right) contained in this trunk or extremity surgical tray.

A
42
Q

Name the needle anatomy (i.e., the parts of the needle).

  • Where should the needle be grasped with the needle driver?
A
  • The shank, body and point are shown, as well as specific needle points for different types of cutting
  • Needles should be grasped at approximately one-third of the distance from the shank to the point. Avoid placement on or near the swaged area or near the tip.
43
Q

Where is the desired undermining plane for trunk/extremities?

  • For small or superficial defects?
  • For larger excisions or melanomas?
A
  • Mid-deep fat (for small or superficial defects)
  • Just above deep fat (larger excisions or melanomas)
44
Q

Where is the ideal undermining plane for the face?

A
  • Superficial to SMAS to preserve motor nerves
45
Q

What is the recommended surgical margin for a BCC?

  • What about for high risk subtypes (e.g., recurrent or with aggressive histology)?
A
  • 4 mm for most tumors
  • 0.6 cm - 1.0 cm margins or Mohs for high risk subtypes (e.g., recurrent or with aggressive histology, etc.)
46
Q

What is the recommended surgical margin for an SCC?

  • What about for high risk subtypes?
A
  • 4 mm for most
  • 0.6 mm or Mohs for high risk subtypes
47
Q

What are the recommended surgical margins for DFSP?

  • Excision must extend to what?
A
  • 2-3 cm margins extending at least to fascia, or Mohs
48
Q

What are the recommended surgical margins for:

  • Melanoma in situ
  • Breslow depth < 1 mm
  • Breslow depth 1 - 2 mm
  • Breslow > 2 mm
A
  • Melanoma in situ: 0.5 cm - 1 cm
  • Breslow depth < 1 mm: 1 cm to deep fat or fascia
  • Breslow depth 1 - 2 mm: 1 - 2 cm to fascia
  • Breslow > 2 mm: 2 cm to fascia
49
Q

Which type of electrical hemostasis has the highest risk of interference with pacemakers and defibrillators?

A

Electrosection