Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Anesthesiologist

A

MD or DO
Chooses and applies correct meds
Monitors physicologic function during surgery
In charge of fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anesthesia assistant

A

AKA an anesthetist such as CRNA
works up the anesthesiologist
Edu: RN + BSN+ 2 years extra school + 1 year on the job experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Surgeon

A

MD, DO
Board certifed in their surgical field
In charge of surgical procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1st Assist

A

Can be PA or MD
Person standing directly across from surgeon
Maintains visibility of surgical site with suction
Holds retractors, control bleeding
Apply dressing etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Scrub tech

A

Can be RN or LPN

Maintains integrity and safety of the sterile field throughout the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

XR/fluoroscopy tech

A

Fluoroscopy = continuous XR image on monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Intern/resident/student

A

There to learn how to cut

Residents can do surgeries by themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Circulating nurse

A

RN
Monitor and coordinate all actvities within the room
Manage care required for the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Perfusionist

A

Makes sure the heart-lung machine is efficienctly managing the lungs and heart
Delivers the drug that stops a patients heart in cardiac surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

American society of anesthesiology

Risk assessment

A

ASA 1 Normal healthy
ASA 2 mild systemic disease
ASA 3 Severe systemic disease
ASA 4 Severe systemic with constant threat to live
ASA 5 Moribund, not expect to survive without operation
ASA 6 declared brain dead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Upper airway exam

A
ROM of cervical spine
Thyroid cartilage to mentum dis: >6cm
Mouth opening greater than 3 cm
Look at dentition, dentures loos teeth
Jaw protrusion
Presence of beard
Mallampati score
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mallampati score

A

Grade1: easy intubation

2: see tonsilar pillars and part of uvula
3: only hard and soft palate visable
4: hard palate only visable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

G tube

A

gastrostomy tube, surgical access
tube inserted thru abdomen directly into stomach
Indicated when patient needs long term access
Also used for decompression
Can bolus feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

J tube

A

jejunostomy tube
same as g tube but placed more distally
Reduced risk of aspiration
Continuous drip w pump required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PEG tube

A

percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
specific technique
Done with endoscope
Most common use if for head and neck cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pre surgery diabetes glucose level

A

300 = reevaluate surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Phases of wound healing 1

A

Coagulation:
Fibrin plug form
Main cell type: platelets
Platelets aggregate, release fibrinogen fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Phase 2 of wound healing

A

Inflammatory
Cell recruitment and chemotaxis
Cell types: neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Phase 3 of wound healing

A

Migratory/proliferative
Epidermal resurfacing, angiogenesis
Keratinocytes, fibroblasts, endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Phase 4 of wound healing

A

Remodeling
Scar formation
Myofibroblasts
Phenotypic switch to myofibroblasts from fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Suture size on face

A

5-0 and 6-0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common surgical site infection

A

Staph aureus

Staph epidermidis: worry for immunocomp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pathogens in sites involving intestines

A

E.coli
K. pneumo
Enerobacter
Bacteroides species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dirty wound number of bugs

A

10^5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Furuncle

A

Boil
Caused by S aureus, can also be strep
Tx: most often resolve, can I&D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Carbuncle

A

Collection of furuncles
Extend to subQ
RF: DM, immunoComp, chronic steroid use
Manage: I&D, often excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cellulitis

A

Eti: strep, staph, MRSA in hospital
Mangement: Abx: keflex, amox, dicloxacilin
(TMP-SMX if MRSA)
Severe: IV PCN G, naficillin (+vanco if MRSA)
drain abcess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pyomyositis

A

Bact infx of skeletal muscles due to hematogenous spread, leads to abcess formation and sepsis
Most common in the tropics

29
Q

Gas gangrene

A

Eti: Trauma, IVDU. One of clostridia
Crepitus, gas in tissue on palpation and CT/XR
Manage: surg debridement, IV abx

30
Q

Necrotizing fascitis

A
Strep, Kleb, Clostrid, E.coli, Staph
Infection of fascia
Type 1: polymicrob
Type 2: group a strep
Type 3: gas gangrene
Marked systemic toxicity and pain out of proportion to local findings
31
Q

Post surgical pneumonia

A

Most common pulmonary comp for pt. who die after surgery
Usually 2/2 aspiration of gram - bact.
Sx/s: fever, tachyP, increased secretions, consolidation on PE

32
Q

Dehiscence

A

Surgical complication when wound ruptures along a surgical incision
Often result from using too few sutures

33
Q

Evisceration

A

Rupture of all layers of the abdominal wall and extrustion of abdominal viscera
Most common on 5-8th day PostOpp

34
Q

Atelectasis

A

Complete or partial collapse of a lung or a lobe
Most common surgical pulmonary complication 25%
Most freq: old, OW, smokers,
Sx/s: vent/profusion mismatch, low O2

35
Q

Ileus

A

disruption of normal propulsive ability of the GI tract

Caused by failure of peristalsis rather than mechanical obstruction

36
Q

Fecal impaction

A

Most common in elderly and with opioid use

37
Q

Post op anemia

A

Result of gastric operation
Iron absorption in proximal tract
Intrinsic factor needed for B12 absorption

38
Q

IV phlebitis

A

Inflammation of IV site entry
One of the most common causes of post op fever
Day 3ish
Tx: removal of IV at first sign of it

39
Q

Post op fever

A

Occurs in about 40% of pt. post major surgery
48 hours: IV phleb, Pneumonia, UTI
>5 days: wound infection

40
Q

Post op DVT

A

Surgery increases risk 21 times

DVT most common source of PE

41
Q

Upper abdominal pain

A
Fore gut:
esophagus
liver
gallbladder
pancreas
stomach
duodenum
42
Q

Midline periumblicial pain

A
Midgut pain:
small intestine
cecum
appendix
ascending colon
43
Q

Lower abdominal pain

A

Hindgut:
descending colon
sigmoid colon
rectum

44
Q

Ruptured spleen

A

Eti: commonly blunt trauma
S/s: Kehr’s sign: (blood leaking->abd pain radiates to left shoulder/neck
Tenderness with palp of LUQ 9-10th rib
Splenomegaly

45
Q

Perforated bowel

A

Eti: commonly: diverticulitis & colonoscopies
S/s: Sudden onset of severe agonizing mid/low abd pain
Abdomen is rigid and tender

46
Q

Choelithiasis/Cholecystitis

A
4F's: Fat, female, forty, fertile
s/s: biliary colic, RUQ pain. episodes of pain
Pain may refer to scapula
Murphy's sign.
Ultra sound
47
Q

Peritonitis

A

Eti: Preexisting large-volume ascites
- 2nd: appendicitis, perf bowel/ulcer divertic, trauma
Positive peritoneal sign
Dx: CBC, blood cult, abd paraC for gram stain

48
Q

Bowel obstruction etiology

A

Small bowel 3 most common:
Adhesion (65-75%), hernias, neoplasm
Large bowel: 15%

49
Q

Bowel obstruction s/s

A

High pitched bowel sounds or absence of them
Crampy pain, occurs in cycles
Classic: vomiting, distention, obstipation (severe constipation)

50
Q

Colon cancer

A

3rd most common men and women
Majority asymptomatic
Subclinical bleeding-> asymptomatic iron deficiency anemia
Dx: colonoscopy

51
Q

Diverticulitis

A

More common in colon
Remains asymptomatic in 80%, incidentally found
Mild tenderness in LLQ

52
Q

Volvulus

A
Rotation of a segment of intestine
Surgical emergency
S/s: Severe intermittent colicky pain that begins in the right abdomen and becomes continous
Dx: Coffee bean sign in cecum
Barium enema - > Bird beak sign
53
Q

Appendicitis

A

Gangrene and perforation can occur in about 24 hours
Progression of symptoms is key
Begin: vague midabdominal/ periumbilical discomfort
N/V/indigestion
Pain continuous but not severe with mild cramping
Pain shifts to RLQ, causing discomfort on moving, walking etc.
Localized tenderness (McBurney), guarding, rebound tenderness

54
Q

Pilonidal disease

A
Chronic gland infection of the gluteal cleft
3 types
- Acute, chronic, recurrent
S/s: pain and swelling
Tx: I&D
55
Q

Hemorrhoids, internal

A

Bleeding, pressure-like pain, prolapse
Can have sig blood loss and show symptoms of anemia
Dx: DRE to rule out mass lesions or malignancy
Tx: grade 1: fiber, fluid, possible laxitive
grade 2-3: rubber band ligation
grade 4: excisional hemorrhoidectomy

56
Q

Hemorrhoid internal grades

A

Grade 1: no prolapse
Grade 2: prolapse that spontaneously reduces
Grade 3: prolapse that requires manual reduction
Grade 4: prolapse that is not reducible

57
Q

Anorectal fistulas

A

Chronic drainage of mucus and blood, typically a history of anorectal abcess. Occur in 50% of anal abcesses
Image: MRI choice
Tx: fistulotomy, lays flat the tract

58
Q

Perirectal abcess

A

Acute pain, swelling, possible fever
Occasional leakage of pus and mucus
Dx: may have elevated WBC, history and physical usually all that is needed. MRI if necessary
Tx: I&D

59
Q

Carcinoma of the breast

A

s/s: single, nontender, firm to hard mass with ill-defined margins
Later s/s: skin or nipple retraction, axillary lymphA, breast enlargement, erythema, edema, pain, fixation of the mass

60
Q

Simple mastectomy

A

removal of entire breast, leaving pectoralis muscle not all the lymphnodes

61
Q

Modified radical mstectomy

A

Removal of breast, leaving pectoral muscle, taking axillary lymphnodes

62
Q

Fibroadenoma

A

Most frequent in young women within 20 years of puberty

Typically: round or ovoid, rubber, discrete, relatively mobile, non-tender 1-5 cm

63
Q

Mitral regurgitation

A

Associated with pulmonary congestion and low cardiac output
S/s: dyspnea, poor exercise tolerance, fatigue
PE: displaced PMI, S3 gallop over apex
XR: shows cardiomegally
Echo is the mainstay of diagnosis

64
Q

Mitral valve stenosis

A

Eti: most common cause: rheumatic fever
s/s: mid diastolic rumble best heard over apex
opening snap can be heard in beginning of disease

65
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Eti: most common senile calcific aortic stenosis
s/s: gradual decrease in exercise tolerance, syncopy, angina, dyspnea on exertion
Ausc: harsh ejection murmur (heard best base of heart)

66
Q

Aortic insufficiency

A

S/s: most pt. don’t develop symp until LV dialation
PE: water hammer pulse (head bob with heart beat)
Ausc: High-pitched blowing diastolic murmur immediately after S2

67
Q

Thoracic aortic aneurysm

A

Abrupt tearing sensation in chest radiating to the back

UE pulse deficit and possible regurg murmur

68
Q

AAA

A

AA: greater than 3 cm, surgical if greater than 5 cm
Think old smokers
s/s: sudden abdominal or flank pain with pulsatile mass and hypertension
Dx: FAST or Ct if patient is stable
Tx: reduce HTN with BB and nitroprusside, vascular surgery

69
Q

Mesenteric ischemia

A

patients > 60 (afib, CHF, recent MI)
Abdominal pain out of proportion with clinical presentation
Intestinal pain after eating, relieved by vomiting
Progression: N?V, bloody diarrhea, peritonitis.