surgery 2020 4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which is the correct regarding intervertebral disc disease
A

a. It is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs, long back)

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia
    a. It is an atrogenic complication
    b. It might be suppurative
    c. It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases
    d. It may be caused by surgical technical error
A

c. It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases?

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy
    a. Liver abscess
    b. Superficial liver rupture
    c. Cholelithiasis
    d. Diffuse hepatomegaly
A

a. Liver abscess

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4
Q
  1. The synovial fluid is determined as septic if
A

a. The WBC count is more than 40g/L, with mostly neutrophils

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5
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine
    b. Bupivacain har longer duration than mepivacaine
    c. Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration
    d. All of them are correct
A

d. All of them are correct

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6
Q

.

A

.

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7
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding patellar luxation in dogs
    a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line
    b. It is always lateral in large breeds
    c. It is always traumatic
    d. It is mostly caudal
A

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following layers is the first to be closed during midline laparotomy
    a. Rectus sheet
    b. Falciform ligament
    c. Peritoneum
    d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle
A

a. Rectus sheet

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following metric numbers indicates the thickest suture material
    a. 0
    b. 1
    c. 2
    d. 3
A

d. 3

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10
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps
    a. Syringe pumps are less accurate than infusion pumps regarding continuous
    drug dosage
    b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h)
    are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of
    the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)
    c. Conventional infusion lines are suitable for as accurate dosing of drugs as
    syringe pumps, by counting drop numbers
    d. In case of a power-cut, even modern syringe pumps stops, just like anesthesia
    machines
A

b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h)
are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of
the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)

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11
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia
    a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes
    b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left
    inflated on extubation
    c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued
    or antagonists are administered
    d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation
A

c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued
or antagonists are administered

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12
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals
    a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia
    invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine
    b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
    c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
    general condition
    d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive
A

c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
general condition

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13
Q
  1. Optional drug for preoperative analgesia are
    a. Phenotiazines and butyrophenone-derivates
    b. Alpha2-antagonist and NMDA-agonist
    c. Local anesthetics and muscle relaxants
    d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist
A

d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

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14
Q
  1. Which activity is to be done first in case of pneumothorax
    a. Thoracocentesis
    b. Percutaneous chest drainage
    c. Oxygenisation
    d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy
A

a. Thoracocentesis

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture
    a. Double contrast cystography
    b. Intravenous urography
    c. Excretory urethrography
    d. Retrograde urethrography
A

d. Retrograde urethrography

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16
Q
  1. The increasing sequence of capacity of a vein catheter is
    a. Yellow, blue, pink, green
    b. Blue, pink, grey, yellow
    c. Yellow, pink, blue grey
    d. Green, pink, blue, yellow
A

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green

17
Q
  1. Stadium analgesia
    a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
    b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor
    c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible
    d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation
A

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

18
Q
  1. Polyglactin (Vicryl)
    a. Polyglactin (VicrylO)
    b. Polydioxanone (PDSO)
    c. Both of them
    d. None of them
A

a. Polyglactin (VicrylO)??

19
Q
  1. Barium-sulphate can be used for which of the following procedures
    a. Myelography
    b. Gastric emptying study
    c. Retrograde cystography
    d. Arthrography
A

b. Gastric emptying study

20
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding anesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction
    a. The prevention of intraoperative hypertonia is the primary goal
    b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function
    c. Ketamine is contraindicated in dogs with kidney dysfunction
    d. Fentanyl and NSAID´s are recommended for intraoperative analgesia (not)
A

b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function

21
Q
  1. What statement is correct regarding the GGE (guaiphenesine)
    a. It has good analgesic effect
    b. It is available for induction alone
    c. It doesn’t cause ataxia
    d. It is a muscle relaxant
A

d. It is a muscle relaxant

22
Q
  1. General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats
    a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h
    b. 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h
    c. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h
    d. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min
A

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h

23
Q
  1. What do we use the grid for in radiography
    a. To filter scattered beam
    b. To improve image sharpness
    c. To reduce radiation exposure of the staff
    d. To restrain the animal
A

a. To filter scattered beam

24
Q
  1. Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy
    a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein
    b. Renal vein is to to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
    c. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
    d. The ureter is also occluded
A

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein

25
Q
29. Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral
obturation in a male dog
a. Urethrohydropropulsio
b. Prescrotal urethrostomy
c. Scrotal urethrostomy
d. Perineal urethrostomy
A

a. Urethrohydropropulsio

26
Q
  1. Which ligament repair is required in case of patellar luxation
    a. Cranial cruciate ligament
    b. Patellar straight ligament
    c. Both of them
    d. None of them
A

b. Patellar straight ligament?

27
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. Compressive spinal injury needs emergency treatment
    b. Spinal cord injury has no effect for visceral functions
    c. The treatment of patients with spinal cord injury is hopeless
    d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal
    injury
A

d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal
injury

28
Q
42. Which examination method is not enough alone for diagnosing Cauda Equina
Compression
a. MRI
b. Plain X-ray
c. CT
d. CT myelography
A

d. CT myelography

29
Q
  1. Which statement is not correct
    a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain
    b. Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion
    c. The urinary bladder injury can cause bloody urine
    d. In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is necessary
A

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain

30
Q
  1. In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common
    a. French bulldog
    b. German shepherd
    c. Yorkshire terrier
    d. Hungarian vizsla
A

a. French bulldog

31
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma
    (HSA)
    a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
    b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
    c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic
    factor
    d. Splenic HSA does not metastatise into the heart
A

c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic
factor

32
Q
47. Which of the followings is the least effective in German shepherd´s perineal
fistulation
a. Fistulectomy
b. Cyclosporine
c. Prednisolone
d. Conservative management
A

d. Conservative management

33
Q
  1. Which oral region is the mostly affected one by oral tumors
    a. Soft palate
    b. Hard palate
    c. Gingiva
    d. Tongue
A

c. Gingiva

34
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning pulse oxymetry
    a. The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry
    values
    b. Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
    c. Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
    d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values (hypotension has)
A

d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values (hypotension has)

35
Q
  1. Reversible drugs and their antagonists

a. Diazepam:flumazenil; fentanyl:naloxone; medetomidine:atipamezole

A