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surgery 2020 3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following decisions is correct in case of disuse gastric necrosis during
    GDV surgery
    a. Billroth I gastroduodenostomy
    b. Partial gastrotomy
    c. Euthanasia (because its diffuse necrosis)
    d. Resorption and gastroplexy
A

c. Euthanasia (because its diffuse necrosis)

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable
A

a. Tracheal hypoplasia

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following uroliths is surely radiodense
    a. Struvite
    b. Calcium-oxalate
    c. Ammonium-urate
    d. Cystine
A

b. Calcium-oxalate

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain
    a. Is always a single exit drain
    b. Can only be used as double exit drain
    c. Is mostly used for flushing
    d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it
A

a. Is always a single exit drain

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5
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. The overexposed area is dark in the digital x-ray image
    b. The overexposed area is “noisy” in the digital x-ray image
    c. It is easy to overexpose digital radiographs
    d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs
A

d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs

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6
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning pain
    a. During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia
    is only required pre-, and postoperatively
    b. Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation
    c. Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived
    d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and
    the intensity of pain experience by the patient
A

d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and
the intensity of pain experience by the patient

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7
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. The direct effect of the bullet is the traumatic shock
    b. Injuries caused by gun shots regenerate if the bullet only hits the muscle
    c. Both
    d. None
A

d. None

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8
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding electricity caused injuries
    a. It is always lethal above 50 mA
    b. It is always lethal above 100 mA
    c. Both
    d. None
A

b. It is always lethal above 100 mA

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9
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. The fast healing is typical of contused wounds
    b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
    c. The traumatic shock is not common in contused wounds
    d. The anerobic wound infection is rare in contused wounds
A

b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

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10
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding anesthesia of patients with liver dysfunction
    a. Diazepam is the choice of drug in a patient with hepatic disease, instead of
    midazolam
    b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic
    encephalopathy
    c. Isoflurane and sevoflurane significantly affects hepatic function
    d. Administration of colloid solutions in case of hypoalbuminemia is risky
A

b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic

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11
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. Wobbler-syndrome affects small breeds
    b. The site of disc protrusion can be exactly determined in the survey radiograph
    c. The basic types of compressive processes found with myelography:
    extradural, intradural, extramedullary
    d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anesthesia
A

d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anesthesia

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12
Q
  1. Which component is not a normal part of digital x-ray system
A

Intensifying screen

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13
Q
  1. Which therapy has of primary importance in case of cranial injury
    a. Analgesia
    b. Anti-convulsion therapy
    c. Intracranial pressure decrease
    d. Artificial hypothermia
A

c. Intracranial pressure decrease

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following does not represent an increased risk of infection of surgical
    infection
    a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure
    b. Prolonged hospitalization
    c. Obesity
    d. Prolonged procedure time
A

a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge
    approximation
    a. Skin-intradermal-subcutaneus-muscular-fascial
    b. Interrupted vs continuous
    c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving
    d. Simple-matress-cruciate
A

c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving

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16
Q
  1. Which is not a type of periosteal reaction
    a. Lamellar
    b. Columnar
    c. Sunburst-like
    d. Medullar
A

d. Medullar

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following USP numbers indicate the thickest suture material
    a. 0
    b. 2-0
    c. 2
    d. 3-0
A

c. 2

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18
Q
  1. Which location is not typical of OCD in dogs
    a. Tarsus
    b. Carpus
    c. Shoulder
    d. Stifle
A

b. Carpus (elbow that is typically affected)

19
Q 
43. Which of the following instruments is not the member of the abdominal
instrumentation set
a. Balfour self retraining retractor
b. Doyen clamp
c. Finochietto self retaining retractor
d. Atraumatic tissue forceps
A

c. Finochietto self retaining retractor (used in thoracic operation)

20
Q
  1. Which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) is highly toxic to cats
A

a. Paracetamol (acetaminophen)

21
Q
  1. Which of the following disorder is the most urgent to be acutely solved
    a. External venous bleeding
    b. Upper airway obstruction
    c. Spinal fracture
    d. Open extremity fracture
A

b. Upper airway obstruction

22
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding anesthesiologic considerations of
    hypothyreoidism
    a. Due to thermoregulatory imbalance hyperthermia occurs
    b. The overall metabolic rate is decreased, drug metabolism is slower, therefore
    the “vulnerability” of the patient to anesthesia is lower
    c. Myocardial contractibility is decreased, tachycardia is present
    d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm
A

d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

23
Q
  1. Which local anesthetic technique is the safest from the patient´s aspect
    a. Infiltrational
    b. Epidural
    c. Intrathecal
    d. Paravertebral
A

a. Infiltrational

24
Q
  1. Which color is typical for compensatory stage of shock
    a. Pale
    b. Cyanotic
    c. Dirty red
    d. Bright red
A

. Bright red

25
Q
  1. Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an
    antibiotic
    a. Splenectomy
    b. Small intestine biopsy
    c. Ovariectomy
    d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament
    replacement material
A

d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament
replacement material

26
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning tendon injuries
    a. One or two % overextension of the tendons causes partial rupture
    b. Three or four % overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
    c. More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
    d. None
A

c. More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture

27
Q
  1. Which of the following factors does not effect the success of feline perineal
    urethrostmy
    a. Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma
    b. Transection of bulbospongious muscle
    c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
    d. Type of the suture material
A

c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle

28
Q 
58. Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of
urinary bladder tumors
a. Double contrast cystography
b. Ultrasonography
c. Urine sediment analysis/cytology
d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria
A

d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

29
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical findings is not member of the diagnostic triad defining
    the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
    a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
    b. Status of the thoracic wall
    c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
    d. ARD
A

a. skin defect of the thoracic wall

30
Q
  1. Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV
A

a. Stabilization and gastrocentesis-adequate narcosis-orogastric tubation and
gastric lavage-surgery

31
Q
  1. According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect
    concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma
    a. Male
    b. Bite wound
    c. Bodyweight is less than 10kg
    d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg
A

d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

32
Q
  1. What is the sequester
    a. Connective tissue surrounded cavity filled with pus
    b. Natural body cavity filled with pus
    c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone
    d. Vital, demarcated area in the bone
A

c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone

33
Q
  1. Which is necessary for bone healing
    a. Antibiotic treatment
    b. NSAID treatment
    c. Good bloody supply
    d. Fluid therapy
A

c. Good bloody supply

34
Q
  1. Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body
    caused caudal thoracic (prediaphragmatic) esophageal obstruction
    a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
    b. Endoscopic removal
    c. Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
    d. Thoracotomy + esophagotomy
A

b. Endoscopic removal

35
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial
    cruciate ligament repair
    a. The suture material is non-absorbable
    b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
    c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
    d. The suture material is placed outside the joint
A

a. The suture material is non-absorbable

36
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body caused small intestinal
    obstruction
    a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
    b. It usually requires multiple GI incisors
    c. Iatrogenic perforation might be caused
    d. Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening
A

a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

37
Q
  1. Which of the following causes is not primary in the etiology of external otitis in dogs
    a. Bacteria
    b. Paracite
    c. Grass awn
    d. Atopia
A

a. Bacteria

38
Q 
85. Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of
scrotal hernia
a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder
A

a. Small intestine

39
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in
    feline otitis media
A

a. Ventral bulla osteotomy

40
Q 
87. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone
involvement of oral tumors
a. Radiography
b. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
c. Computed tomography
d. Ultrasonography
A

. Radiography

41
Q
  1. If the lactate is 6,5 mmol/l in the abdominocentesis fluid, then
    a. Impaction is presumable
    b. The horse had intensive exercise
    c. Strangulation ileus is likely
    d. It can be manages conservatively
A

c. Strangulation ileus is likely

42
Q 
89. Which of the following decisions is correct in case of fundus necrosis during GDV
surgery
a. Billroth 1 gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrectomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy
A

b. Partial gastrectomy

43
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in
    canine otitis externa and media
A

a. TECA + LBO

Small animal (37 decks)

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