Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Part II > Surgery > Flashcards

Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

The most commonly involved muscle in trismus is …..

The muscle pierced by the needle in IANB is …..

A

medial pterygoid

buccinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The path of lingual artery is …….

A

from the ant. of ECA, it loops upward, passes posterior to hyoglossus muscle, to enter the submandibular space. There, CN XII passes superficially to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Warthin’s duct is crossed twice by ………

A

lingual N.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blood/Gas partition coefficient for N2O is ……

A
  1. 47
    * The less, the faster the onset and the emergence
    * The more, the more dissolved in blood and slower onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The deep tendon of the temporalis and superior pharyngeal constrictor form …….

A

V shaped landmark (for IANB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

LIdocaine and procaine differ from other L.A in that ….

A

they produce initial mild sedation/drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

To induce dissociative anesthesia, use …….

A

ketamine IV 2 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Respiratory complications after surgery include

A

atelectasias, aspiration pneumonia, pulmonary embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hemophilia will cause ……., While VWD will cause ……

A

increased PTT (everything else is normal)

Increased PTT & BT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Midazolam is water …….

A

soluble (no need for propelyne glycol). It is most commonly used due to fast onset
* Diazepam & Lorazepam are water insolube (Longer action, but slower onset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chloral hydrate is …….

A

hypnotic and sedative used for pedos

* Note: emotional stress reduce the rate of absorption of PO drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tylenol is ……

A

weak cox inhibitor in periphery (and the reason for lack of anti inflammatory effects), but strong cox inhibitor centrally
* Note: avoid nsaids, tylenol, meperidine and morphine in dialysis patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

…….. is contraindicated in patients with respiratory disease

A

barbs

  • also in pregnancy (fetal damage)
  • barbs are weak analgesics even at high doses
  • Has small therapeutic window (lethal dose is close to effective dose)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Benzons action is ……, while Barbs action is …..

A

potentiate the action of GABA
enhance the transmission of Cl ions, preventing depolarization
* Note: Benzos are potent cerebral vasoconstirctors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

…. is contraindicated for patients taking MAOI and dilantin

A

meperidine

  • the mix results in life threatening hyperpyrexic reactions
  • Meperidine is taken for pain 50 mg every 4 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pentazocine is …..

A

a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist

* no euphoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Primary Max. molars are luxated palatally because ……..

A

they are palataly positioned, and the palatal root is strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Impacted molars are best removed when the root is …….

A

2/3 formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Darvon 65 is a mix of ……..

A

phenoxyphene (opioid), caffiene, aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the effects of glucocorticoids on wound healing?

A

interfere with the migration of neutrophils and inhibiting their phagocytic ability. Also, retards capillary formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pseudoarthrosis is produced by …..

A

excessive mobility of fractured segments

* Note: normal healing time for fractures is 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Types of semirigid fixation include

A

miniplate fixation and wire fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Types of non rigid fixation include

A

MMF with ivy loops, arch bars, tranalveolar screw, gunning & lingual splints

24
Q

The standard time for MMF is …….

25
Tunneling resorption is ......
formation of new haversian systems in the fractured segment, to allow for formation of new BV
26
Compartment syndrome is .....
the pressure applied to BV in area of fracture from the severe swelling. Leads to muscle necrosis and long term disability
27
EMS should be notified ....... for less than 8 yr old patient, or ....... for adult patient
1-5 min immediately * Note: for best results, CPR should begin within 4 mins
28
Normal BUN value is ......... | Creatinine value is ......
7-18 mg/dL | 0.6 - 1.2 mg/dL
29
ASA classes are ........
``` I - normal patient II - mild systemic disease III - moderates systemic disease IV - severe & constant threat to life V - morbid VI - organ donor ```
30
Autogenous grafts are two types
Cortical (good strength, high BMP content) | Cancellous (high cell content, lacks strength)
31
When constochondral rib graft is used for ridge aug., there will be ....
shrinkage
32
Problems with alloplastic grafts when used for genial deficiency are .......
erosion of bone adjacent to implant, migration of graft, and unpleasant sensation * alloplastic = synthetic
33
The advantage of hydroxyapatite graft is .....
it binds physically and chemically to bone, and doesn't resorb
34
The disadvantage of hydroxyapatite is ........
nerve neuropathy, may migrate, and poor color under mucosa, and no osteogenesis
35
Minimum bone height for endosseous implant is ......
10 mm | * Implant length ranges from 8 - 18 mm
36
Blade shaped implants are used in case of ......
insufficient width but good good depth of bone
37
The most important structure to prevent spread of infection is .......
hyoid bone
38
Cavernous sinus thrombosis results from ......
spread of infection from deep temporal space and canine space (via ophthalmic veins)
39
The masticator space contains the content of ......
pterygomandibular space and is continuous with the temporal space * Infection of masticator space causes trismus
40
The least accurate method for obtaining body temp is ......
axillary | * The best is rectally and aurally
41
What are the types of frenectomy
1. for wide based frenum: V-Y advancement flap | 2. for narrow frenum: Z-plasty or diamond excision
42
The bacteria in cellulitis is ......
aerobic | * cellulitis is more serious than abscess
43
Epidermoid carcinoma is another name for ......
SCC
44
Patients at risk of osteoradionecrosis are treated with hyperbaric oxygen. T/F??
true | * 20 sessions before surgery, 10 sessions after
45
Dissociative anesthesia is produced by
ketamine | * used to produce short term anesthesia for short procedures (e.g changing a bandage)
46
Neuroleptanesthesia is produced by ......
neuroleptic (droperidol) narcotic (fentanyl) N2O + O2 * Induction is slow, but recovery is fast after N2O is removed * Used for short term procedures (colonoscopy, endoscopy etc...)
47
INR represents ......
a standardized reading for PT score, no matter how that score is acquired * Different PT is due to different reagents used for its determination on the same patient * Normal INR for patient not on anticoagulants is 1 * Normal INR for anticoagulant patient is 2-4 * INR of 5 is contraindicated for surgery
48
Platelet count below ...... is contraindicated for elective surgery
50,000 * Emergency procedures can be done with as few as 30,000 (with hematologist & good technique) * Causes of thrombocytopenia include: cirrhosis, transfusion, infectious mononucleosis
49
Ramsay hunt syndrome is ......
herpes zoster infection of the sensory and motor branches of VII & VIII * Tx is antidepressants, anticonvulsants, or sympathetic blockers
50
Crepitations of TMJ is associated with .......
osteoarthritis
51
TMJ arthrocentesis is .....
injection of saline in superior joint space for the treatment of internal derangement
52
The sign of internal derangement of TMJ is ......
reciprocal clicking
53
The origin of superior lateral pterygoid is ........ | and the inferior head is .........
infratemporal crest of the greater wing lateral pterygoid plate
54
Flumazenil is used for treatment of ........
diazepam overdose
55
Analeptics are ........... | Ataraxics are .....
CnS stimulants | tranquilizers
56
L.A with epi is contraindicated in patients with ....
hyperthyroidism, uncontrolled hypertension, bisulfate allergy, angina, recent MI, or taking non specific beta blockers

Part II (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions