Surg 105--Final Flashcards

1
Q

The portion of the jaw that surrounds and supports the tooth?

A

alveolar process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does orbicularis mean?

A

circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Crescent shaped cartilage found in the TMJ knee joint is?

A

meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The synovial joint formed at the bicondylar junction of the mandible and the temporal is the?

A

temporomandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Another name for the malar joint (bone) is?

A

zygomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can be done to treat an intranasal dural tear?

A

cover with fat,fascial,or muscle graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The space between the lip (extending to include the cheeks) and the teeth is the?

A

vestibule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The term deciduous refers to the ___ teeth.

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What sucture attaches the tongue to the floor of the buccal cavity?

A

lingual frenulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The skull comprises ____ bones?

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which facial muscle allows for closure of the mouth and protrusion of the chin?

A

masseter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the term use to desribe a deformity involving an abnormally small jaw?

A

micrognathia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the source of autogenous graft material?

A

patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Arch bars are fixed into postion with _____?

A

wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vomiting can lead to aspiration,but in the maxillofacial patient it can also pose a risk of_____.

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is nasal intubation preferred when arch bar application is anticipated?

A

to provide access to the oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The term malocclusion refers to?

A

teeth that are not in proper alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of incision is made at the patient’s hairline and can be bilaterally extended?

A

coronal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Endoscopic viewing of the joint is called

A

arthroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mot common type of midfacial fracture?

A

LaForte I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which diagnotic imaging method provides images of the bony defects?

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In which position will the patient be placed to obtain a Waters’ view radiograph?

A

upright with the neck hyperextended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?

A

vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The uvula is considered to be ___tissue?

A

lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

There are __ bones of the cranium that enclose and protect the brain.

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

All are action of the frontalis muscle EXCEPT?

A

drawing the scalp backward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Anatomical development of the face ocurs along with the development of the cranium around the _____ week of embryological life.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which class of dental fractures extend into the dentin of the tooth?

A

class 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most LeFort fractures are a result of?

A

automobile accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which radiographic view shows the hard palate,nasal septum,orbital floor, and zygoma?

A

Caldwell view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Frontal sinus repair often requires a?

A

craniotomy setup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

LeFort 2 and 3 fractures can also be referred to as __fractures.

A

panfacial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

______ is injected into the joint space to distend the capsule during a TMJ arthroscopy.

A

Lactated Ringer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Temporomandibular joint replacement is usually limited to serve cases of ___.

A

ankylosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

perforations in the mandibular condyle meniscus are usually repaired with?

A

4-0 chromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Craniofacial screws come in diameters of?

A

1 to 4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which statement is correct concerning oral procedures?

A

Oral procedures are not considered sterile ,use the best technique possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The skin is a _membrane.

A

cutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The outermost layer of the epidermis that is composed of dead epidermal cells is the stratum?

A

corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What layer binds the skin to the underlying structures?

A

subcutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The process by which strands of though,fibrous proteins develop within the cell membrane is?

A

keratinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which layer contain hair follicles ,sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers?

A

dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which cells contribute to the development of the hair at the base of the hair follicle?

A

dermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which skin layer contains blood vessels to aid in the regulation of the body temperature?

A

dermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Sebaceous glands secrete?

A

sedum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What burn classification involves only the epidermis?

A

1st degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A burn that destroys the epidermis,dermis,and accessory organs of the skin?

A

full thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What bones form the hard palate of the mouth?

A

palatine and maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What three nerves innervates the forearm,wrist,and hand?

A

radial,ulnar,median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If skin is taken from an unburned area of the patient and used as a transplant ,it is called?

A

autograft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?

A

palmaris longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the two main arteries that supply the forearm and hand?

A

radial and ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia is known as?

A

Dupuytren’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What medical term refers to the surgical procedure commonly known as a face-lift?

A

rhytidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is?

A

blepharoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which type of donor skin graft includes the epidermis ,dermis,and possibly subcutaneous?

A

full thickness skin graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which body site is not ideal for a split-thickness skin graft?

A

calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which procedure may involve the use of the local anesthetic cocaine?

A

rhinoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following is a synovial fluid-filled cyst that can arise from a tendon sheath or wrist joint?

A

ganglion cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following best describes the perimeter of the skin preparation for a ganglion cystectomy?

A

hand and wrist circumferentially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Reimplantation of a digit begins with ___ attachment.

A

bone-to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What surgical procedure is performed to remove hypertrophic breast tissue?

A

reduction mammoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which instrument is responsible for expanding the surface area of a skin graft?

A

mesh grafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which nerve must be avoided during a rhytidectomy?

A

facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The main reason for using mineral oil during procurement of a skin graft using a dermatome is to?

A

minimize friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

All of the following are fase for the type of dressing required for the recipient skin graft site EXCEPT the dressing should?

A

be dry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in place in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure?

A

nylon

68
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is found only in the thick areas such as the palms of the hands and soles of the feet?

A

stratum lucidum

69
Q

The thick-strength layer of the dermis is known as?

A

reticular layer

70
Q

Congenital malformation of the palate occur during which part of the pregnancy?

A

1st trimester

71
Q

How many phalanges are in a normal hand?

A

14

72
Q

A freely movable joint is known as which type of joint?

A

diarthrosis

73
Q

The term given to the condition known as clubhand is?

A

radial dysplasia

74
Q

Which surgical procedure is performed to improve the cosmetic appearance of the chin by correcting micrognathia?

A

mentoplatsy

75
Q

Where would an autograft be taken from to replace the congenital absence of an ear?

A

costal cartilage

76
Q

Besides anticipating the needs of the surgeon ,the main role of surgical technologist during a cleft lip repair is to?

A

retract

77
Q

Which instrument would a surgeon need to dissect the nasal mucosa during a cleft palate repair?

A

cottle elevator

78
Q

Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transferred to remain attached to its blood supply?

A

pedicle flap

79
Q

How many carpal bones compose each wrist?

A

8

80
Q

what structure is referred to as the pacemaker of the heart?

A

SA node

81
Q

what portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery

A

right ventricle

82
Q

where does the coronary vein empty?

A

coronary sinus

83
Q

which artery supplies blood to the walls of the left atrium and ventricle?

A

circumflex

84
Q

which structure is attached to the valvular cusps and prevents valves from swinging back into the atria?

A

chordae tendineae

85
Q

there are how many pulmonary veins?

A

4

86
Q

which structure prevents the trachea from collapsing

A

cricoid cartilage

87
Q

the structure between an alveoli and bronchiole is the?

A

alveolar duct

88
Q

the right lung is divided into how may lobes

A

3

89
Q

the heart lies

A

slightly to the left within the mediastinum

90
Q

the heart is surrounded by the

A

pericardium

91
Q

the cardiac cycle refers to the events taking place during a

A

single heartbeat

92
Q

when does the fetal heart begin developing

A

third

93
Q

what is the most common congential chest deformity

A

pectus excavatur (funnel chest)

94
Q

what medical term refers to the abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity

A

pneumothorax

95
Q

an abnormal opening in the wall between the right and left ventricle of the heart is known as

A

ventricular septal defect

96
Q

which surgical instrument is preferred for the removal of a foreign body in the bronchial tree of infants and children

A

rigid bronchoscope

97
Q

what is the surgical position for a lobectomy

A

posterolateral

98
Q

which intercostal space is entered for a thoracotomy

A

5th

99
Q

which piece of equipment assumes the role of the heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass

A

pump oxygenator

100
Q

what protects the heart from damage during cardiopulmonary bypass

A

hypothermia

101
Q

what mechanical devise is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures

A

intra-aortic balloon pump

102
Q

which portion of the heart is the cannula placed to achieve venous cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass

A

right atrium

103
Q

which type of hemostatic agent is placed on each side of the sternum after a median sternotomy

A

bone wax

104
Q

the parts of the sternum from superior to inferior are

A

manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

105
Q

the trachea divides at what structure into right and left bronchi

A

carina

106
Q

oxygenaed blood leaves the lungs through the

A

pulmonary veins

107
Q

another name for the mitral valve is

A

bicuspid

108
Q

a normal adult heart rate averages how many beats per minute

A

72

109
Q

what percentage of all patients with carcinoma of the lung are cigarette smokers

A

90

110
Q

after birth, with the elimination of placental circulation, which structure closes

A

ductus arteriosus

111
Q

what is the most common complaint in the patient with a thoracic aorta aneurysm

A

chest pain

112
Q

truncus arteriosus is characterized by

A

a single artery arising from both ventricles

113
Q

a teflon patch being used to close the ventricular septal defect, the middle pulmonary artery is transected, and a channel is placed from the right ventricular outflow to the pulmonary artery is known as

A

the Rastelli procedure

114
Q

what study is best for determining the overall size of the heart and great vessel configuration

A

AP and lateral X-rays

115
Q

a closed system of blood vessels that transports blood away from the heart to the body’s tissues and back to the heart refers to the

A

peripheral vascular system

116
Q

microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and wastes between blood and tissue fluid around the cells are known as

A

capillaries

117
Q

describe one characteristic of a vein

A

veins have specialized structures called valves

118
Q

which structure supplies the myocardium with oxygenated blood

A

coronary arteries

119
Q

which artery is one of the three major branches of the aortic arch

A

brachiocephalic

120
Q

which arteries supply the pelvis and perineum with blood

A

internal iliac

121
Q

superficial blood supply to the head and neck is supplied from which artery

A

external carotid

122
Q

which arteries communicate with the basilar artery to form the circle of Willis

A

internal carotid

123
Q

what arteries supply blood to the spinal cord and its meninges

A

lumbar

124
Q

which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck

A

internal jugular

125
Q

which is the longest vein in the body

A

greater saphenous

126
Q

claudication is the term used to refer to

A

cramping

127
Q

endarterectomy is performed to alleviate occlusion of an artery (T or F)

A

True

128
Q

which graft requires preclotting by the surgical team

A

porous Dacron grafts

129
Q

the typical suture gauge for a femoral vascular anastomosis is

A

4-0

130
Q

which procedure could necessitate the use of a Javid shunt

A

carotid endarterectomy

131
Q

which vessel must be clamped during a carotid endarterectomy

A

external carotid artery

132
Q

with which instrument is an arteriotomy initiated

A

11 blade on a #7 handle

133
Q

the primary purpose of a femoral-poplieteal bypass is to

A

restore blood flow to the lower limb

134
Q

which clamp is removed last during a carotid endarterectomy

A

internal carotid artery

135
Q

which gauge suture is appropriate for closing a carotid arteriotomy

A

6-0

136
Q

which type of suture is appropriate for closing an arteriotomy

A

polypropylene

137
Q

which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel

A

taper

138
Q

which arteries supply the upper portion of the digestive tract, spleen, and the liver

A

celiac

139
Q

a Fogarty balloon catheter is used for

A

arterial embolectomy

140
Q

which medication is always added to injectable saline for the use of intra-arterial irrigation

A

heparin

141
Q

after exposure of the femoral artery, the surgeon will want to isolate the aartery and will ask for

A

right angle clamp

142
Q

an iliac artery obstruction can be bypassed with

A

femoral-femoral bypass

143
Q

which self-retaining retractor is used during an aortofemoral bypass procedure

A

Weitlaner

144
Q

during vascular surgery, pledgets are used to

A

reinforce the graft

145
Q

the incision for a femorofemoral bypass is made over the

A

groin

146
Q

the amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle into the aorta with one contraction is known as

A

stroke volume

147
Q

arterial blood volume is decreased when

A

cardiac output is decreased

148
Q

the external iliac arteries branch into the

A

femoral arteries

149
Q

which aratery supplies blood to the head and the arm

A

brachiocephalic

150
Q

what is the name of the vascular needle holder preferred for vascular anastomosis

A

castroviejo

151
Q

a bulldog is used in vascular surgery to

A

clamp a blood vessel

152
Q

the right common carotid artery originates from the

A

brachiocephalic artery

153
Q

gas exchange takes place in the

A

arterioles

154
Q

the relaxation phase of the heart is known as

A

diastole

155
Q

what might be included in a typical pre op instruction for a patient about to undergo elective plastic surgical procedure

A

avoid aspirin and smoking 2 weeks prior

156
Q

What categorical of plastic surgery deal with head and face

A

asthetic

157
Q

type of dermatome when surface can be stabilized for precision cutting

A

free-hand knife

158
Q

graft from genetically identical person

A

allograft

159
Q

where is thymus located

A

anterior section of mediastinum

160
Q

effective treatment for spontaneous pneumothorax

A

pleurodesis

161
Q

vessel that has best long-term patency rate

A

internal mammary

162
Q

valve that consists pulmonary and aortic valve

A

semilunar valve

163
Q

incision made to left or right of sternum, patient in supine position

A

paramedian thoracotomy

164
Q

which drug is used to suppress arterial vasospasm

A

papaverine

165
Q

dvt prophylaxis

A

compression stockings

166
Q

layer of arterial wall

A

intima