Surg 105--Chapter 29 (Fuller) Flashcards

1
Q

Surgery that is performed to improve appearance but not function; also called cosmetic surgery.

A

aesthetic surgery

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2
Q

A tissue graft in which the donor and recipient are of the same species.

A

allograft

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3
Q

To enlarge a structure.

A

augment

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4
Q

The surgical transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual.

A

autograft

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5
Q

A graft derived from live tissue, whether human or animal.

A

biological graft

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6
Q

A type of graft or implant material made of synthetic absorbable material.

A

biosynthetic

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7
Q

A biological graft composed of different types of tissues such as skin and muscle.

A

composite draft

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8
Q

The surgical removal of dead skin. debris, and infectious material from a wound.

A

debridement

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9
Q

A medical device used for removing single thickness skin grafts.

A

dermatome

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10
Q

Drying or dehydration of tissue.

A

desiccation

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11
Q

Tissue that has been burned (second- and third-degree burns) but remains adherent to the wound.

A

eschar

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12
Q

Tissue that is non-elastic and may constrict underlying structures, impairing vital functions

A

eschar

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13
Q

Excision of eschar to release stricture in surrounding tissues.

A

escharotomy

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14
Q

Multiple longitudinal incisions made in the fascia to release severe swelling or stricture which can result in necrosis.

A

fasciotomy

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15
Q

A skin graft composed of the epidermis and dermis.

A

full-thickness skin graft (FTSG)

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16
Q

A dressing impregnated with a water-based gel that prevents the wound from drying and encourages healing.

A

hydrodressing

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17
Q

A scar which contains excess tissue and may be inflamed and usually reduces within 6 months.

A

hypertrophic scar

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18
Q

A synthetic, natural, or biosynthetic substance used to fill in or replace an anatomical structure.

A

implant

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19
Q

A hypertrophic scar occurring in dark-skinned individuals, may become a bulbous and usually does not reduce over time.

A

keloid

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20
Q

A procedure in which a malignant tissue mass is removed and cut into quadrants before frozen section.

A

mohs surgery

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21
Q

Damage to the skin caused by ultraviolet light.

A

photodamage

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22
Q

Surgery performed to restore form and function that have been lost because of trauma, radical surgery, or congenital anomaly.

A

plastic and reconstructive surgery

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23
Q

To fold tissue and secure it in place surgically.

A

plicate

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24
Q

Derived from pig tissue.

A

porcine

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25
Q

Drooping or sagging of any anatomical structure.

A

ptosis

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26
Q

A skin graft that consists of the epidermis and a portion of the papillary dermis.

A

split-thickness (or partial-thickness) skin graft (PTSG)

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27
Q

A surgical method of providing support to an anatomical structure; the term may also refer to the support device itself.

A

stent

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28
Q

In plastic surgery, a _____ is used to maintain contact between a skin graft and the graft site.

A

stent dressing

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29
Q

A graft derived from synthetic material compatible with body tissue; may be soft, semisolid, or liquid.

A

synthetic graft

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30
Q

A surgical technique in which a plane of tissue is created or an existing tissue plane is lifted, such as skin from the fascia.

A

undermine

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31
Q

A graft made up of tissue taken from one species and grafted into another species.

A

xenograft

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32
Q

What is the primary goal of plastic and reconstructive surgery?

A

restoration of form and function

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33
Q

What is the outer layer of the skin?

A

epidermis

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34
Q

What are the primary tissue cells of the epidermis?

A

keratinocytes

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35
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis?

A
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum lucidum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum germinativum (basale)
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36
Q

The most superficial layer of the epidermis, relatively transparent and composed of dead keratinocytes that are filled with a protein called keratin.

A

stratum corneum

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37
Q

Composed of dead or dying cells that are flattened and densely packed; may not be found on regions of the body with thin skin

A

stratum lucidum

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38
Q

Several cell layers thick and produces keratin.

A

stratum granulosum

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39
Q

Contains undifferentiated cells that become specialized as they migrate to the skin surface.

A

stratum spinosum

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40
Q

The deepest layer of the epidermis attached to the dermis; cells in this layer undergo mitosis, producing keratinocytes that migrate through the layers of the epidermis; melanocytes also are found in this layer.

A

stratum germinativum (basale)

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41
Q

Lies between the epidermis and the subcutaneous fatty layer.

A

dermis

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42
Q

Contains numerous sensory receptors which inform the brain about environmental change or danger.

A

dermis

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43
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands found in the human body?

A
  • apocrine sweat gland

- eccrine sweat gland

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44
Q

Arise from the dermis and are located mainly in the axilla and groin; open out into the hair follicle.

A

apocrine sweat glands

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45
Q

Secrete sweat over the surface of the body through small tubules.

A

eccrine sweat glands

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46
Q

The soft tissues of the face include _____.

A
  • skin
  • fat
  • muscle
  • fascia
  • ligaments
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47
Q

The subcutaneous fatty tissue of the face is separated into deep and superficial layers by a tissue planes called the _____.

A

superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS)

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48
Q

What are the three types of debridement?

A
  • chemical
  • surgical
  • pressurized
49
Q

Skin lesions are removed for diagnostic purposes and to prevent or treat malignancy.

A

excision of superficial lesions

50
Q

Of the three types of malignant lesions (basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and malignant melanoma), which is the lesion of the most concern

A

malignant melanoma

51
Q

Performed to remodel a previous scar or to remove a keloid.

A

scar revision

52
Q

What instrument is used to undermine the tissue during a scar revision?

A

Metzenbaum scissors

53
Q

The removal of nonviable tissue from a non-healing or traumatic wound?

A

debridement

54
Q

Requires repeated debridement to remove dying and dead tissue so that healing can continue?

A

burn wounds

55
Q

Only the outer layer of the epidermis is injured. The skin is red or pink, dry, and painful to touch?

A

superficial partial thickness first degree burn

56
Q

The epidermis and various degrees of the epidermis is injured. The skin is blistered, red, and moist. The burn is very sensitive to environmental exposure and touch?

A

partial thickness second degree burn

57
Q

The epidermis and full dermis are injured. These burns are characterized by a white, smooth, shiny surface with dry blisters and edema?

A

full thickness second degree burn

58
Q

The skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and bone are burned. Centered in an area of second-degree injury. The skin may be white, brown, or black and appears waxy. There is no pain because nerves have been destroyed?

A

full thickness third degree burn

59
Q

Has a tourniquet effect on the affected body part and thus can extensively damage underlying muscle, bone, and vascular tissue?

A

circumferential eschar

60
Q

Removed during debridement to allow healing and to reduce constriction

A

eschar

61
Q

During debridement of burns, lap sponges soaked in a solution of _____ and _____ are applied to control bleeding.

A

sterile saline and topical epinephrine (1:1000)

62
Q

During debridement of burns, the concentration most often used is _____, with _____.

A

1000 mL of normal saline, with 4 mL of topical epinephrine

63
Q

Performed to replace skin that has been lost as a result of trauma, disease, or infection?

A

skin grafting (split-thickness skin graft)

64
Q

The dermatome should always be handed to the field with the depth gauge set to _____.

A

0

65
Q

What is applied to the graft site to reduce friction as the blade of the dermatome glides over the skin?

A

mineral oil

66
Q

What instruments does the surgeon use to remove skin grafts?

A
  • a free-hand skin graft knife (full-thickness graft)

- a dermatome (split-thickness graft)

67
Q

Provides coverage and vascularization to a soft tissue defect.

A

pedicle graft (flap graft)

68
Q

Pedicle grafts are classified as _____ or _____.

A

near or distant

69
Q

Resection of the eyelid is done to improve vision of the upper visual fields.

A

blepharoplasty

70
Q

Performed to lift the supportive structures of the brow and alleviate drooping of skin, muscle, and fascia?

A

brow lift (open and endoscopic)

71
Q

What are the three approaches a surgeon may use for a brown lift?

A
  • coronal (behind the hairline)
  • pretrichial (at the hairline)
  • direct (at the level of the brow)
72
Q

Redundant and sagging supportive tissue of the face is reduced or modified to provide a more aesthetic appearance?

A

rhytidectomy

73
Q

Removes the epidermis and a portion of the dermis to reduce facial lines and wrinkles?

A

laser skin resurfacing

74
Q

Performed to give normal contours to the chin or cheek?

A

facial implant (facial augmentation)

75
Q

What is mentoplasty?

A

chin augmentation

76
Q

What is malar augmentation?

A

cheek augmentation

77
Q

Surgical creation of the external ear?

A

otoplasty

78
Q

Performed to correct a congenital malformation of the external ear or to create an ear destroyed by trauma?

A

otoplasty

79
Q

Performed to increase the size and improve the shape of the breast?

A

augmentation mammoplasty

80
Q

Excess breast tissue removed and the breast is reconstructed to provide an aesthetic appearance?

A

reduction mammoplasty

81
Q

What is macromastia?

A

excessively large breasts

82
Q

What is gynecomastia?

A

macromastia is males

83
Q

Performed to reconstruct the breast without the use of implants?

A

transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap

84
Q

In this procedure, a tissue flap containing skin, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle is raised from the lower abdomen and transferred to the mastectomy site?

A

transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap

85
Q

Performed to remove excess deep fat?

A

liposuction

86
Q

Performed to remove excess skin and adipose tissue from the abdominal wall.

A

panniculectomy (abdominoplasty)

87
Q

Plastic surgery involves _____.

A

the treatment of congenital defects and anatomical abnormalities caused by disease and injury

88
Q

When a patient arrives for surgery, special _____ needs must be met.

A

psychological

89
Q

What are the vital functions of the skin?

A
  1. protects underlying tissues and organs
  2. excretes organic waste and stores nutrients
  3. excretes water and dissipates heat as a means of thermoregulation
  4. its sensory organs transmit touch, pressure, pain, and temperature
90
Q

Layer of the skin that is thicker on areas of the body that are weight bearing?

A

stratum corneum

91
Q

Provides nourishment and enervation to the epidermis?

A

dermis

92
Q

Aids thermoregulation of the body by producing “goose bumps” in a cold environment?

A

hair muscle (erector pili muscle)

93
Q

The most common type of skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

94
Q

The second most common type of skin cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

95
Q

The rarest of the skin cancers but accounts for the most fatalities from skin cancer?

A

melanoma

96
Q

A mechanical dermatome can be powered by _____.

A

compresses air or electricity

97
Q

What are the most commonly used models of mechanical dermatomes?

A

Brown (most common), Padget, Zimmer

98
Q

What are examples of drum dermatomes?

A

Reese and Padget

99
Q

What is used to remove a full-thickness skin graft?

A

graft knife

100
Q

The _____ laser is used for facial resurfacing?

A

carbon dioxide (CO2)

101
Q

Implants that are porous, cause little inflammatory reaction, and remain stable in the body?

A

polyethylene (Medpor) implants

102
Q

Implants that have been used in cardiovascular procedures for many years?

A

gore-tex

103
Q

_____ cannot take place until debridement is complete.

A

grafting

104
Q

Enzymes are used to dissolve tissue?

A

chemical debridement

105
Q

Tissue is removed using sharp dissection with surgical instruments?

A

surgical debridement

106
Q

Debridement is performed using a fine jet spray of saline?

A

pressurized saline

107
Q

Third-degree burns develop _____.

A

eschar

108
Q

Free-hand skin graft knife is used for _____.

A

full-thickness graft

109
Q

A dermatome is used for _____.

A

split-thickness graft

110
Q

During a rhytidectomy, the excisional areas are injected with _____ to maintain hemostasis.

A

1% lidocaine with epinephrine

111
Q

Round implants are used for _____.

A

an elective procedure on an intact breast.

112
Q

Anatomical implants are used _____.

A

after masectomy or if the breast is very small

113
Q

During an augmentation mammoplasty, the surgeon creates a pocket in the _____.

A

pectoralis major

114
Q

During an augmentation mammoplasty, the resevoir is filled with _____.

A

150 - 300 mL of saline

115
Q

During an augmentation mammoplasty, the tissue expander is filled in _____ increments.

A

60 mL

116
Q

During liposuction, a large volume of lidocaine and epinephrine diluted in _____ is injected into the targeted tissue.

A

lactated Ringer solution

117
Q

Superficial aspiration is performed with a _____ cannula.

A

2 or 3 mm

118
Q

Deep aspiration is performed with a _____ cannula.

A

4 or 5 mm

119
Q

What position is used for panniculectomy?

A

semi-Fowler