Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medsci Exam > Sun jai aum bhagwani ji > Flashcards

Sun jai aum bhagwani ji Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Pancreas secrete?

A

Alkaline (Bicarbonate) solution

+ Precursors of digestive enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3x motor symptoms of a damaged basal ganglia?

A 
Tremor at rest
Bradykinesia
Hypokinesia
Rigidity (increased tone)
-mood symptom(emotionally flat)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3x motor symptoms of a damaged cerebellar system?

A

cerebellum damaged

  • intention tremor
  • unco-ordinated movements
  • loss of balance
  • ataxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is ataxia?

A

disorder in muscle co-ordination due to damage to the cerebellum (such as trauma or disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is aphasia?

A

disorder of speech associated with the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the bipotential gonad develop from?

A

intermediate mesoderm

5th week of development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the female internal genetalia consist of?

A

FUV
Fallopian tube
Uterus
1/3 Vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the bipotential gonad need to become a testis?

A

SRY gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is anabolism?

A

protein synthesis

occurs in male secondary sexual development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 5 distinguishing features between a bronchiole and bronchus?

A
  1. small size of bronchiole (less than 1mm)
  2. simple columnar (instead of pseudostratified) epithelium
  3. club/clara cells
  4. absence of goblet cells and mucous glands
  5. abscence of cartilage plates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a unique feature of bronchus?

A

irregular cartilage plates

tubular mucous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Po2 in venous blood?

A

37mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Po2 in arterial blood?

A

95mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is PCo2 in arterial blood?

A

38mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Pco2 in venous blood?

A

44mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the meaning of the range of O2 starting values?

A

Pro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In which of the 5 columns would the enzymes of citric acid cycle be located?

A

cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is correct mucosa muscularis and externa muscularis, or muscularis mucosa and muscularis externa?

A

MUSCULARIS always comes FIRST

  • muscularis mucosa
  • muscularis externa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the functions of the lamina propria?

A

fibrous
soft and is Loose connective tissue- allows the epithelial surface layer to move
contains lymphocytes/WBC
contains blood vessels- to take away the products of digestion/nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the epithelium dependant on?

A

dependant on area, but usually secrete alot of Fluid, Mucous and Enzymes
-RAPID TURN OVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the muscularis mucosa?

A

movement INDEPENDANT of muscularis externa

  • squeezing lacteals
  • squeezing secretions from glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is the site of sperm storage in the female reproductive tract?

A

isthmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What percent does bone the organ and tissue compose in the body?

A

18% of body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the definition of bone the organ and bone the tissue?

A 
Organ= multiple different types of tissue
Tissue= highly specialised CT and dynamic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the size functions of bone?

A
  1. support (rigid framework)
  2. protection (internal organs/vital and soft tissue)
  3. movement (tendon attachment)
  4. Ca2+(hormone and enzyme production) and P reserve (strength of bone)
  5. Haemopoesis
  6. Fat (triglyceride) storage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the role of the Ca2+ and P reserve in bone?

A

strength of the tissue
reserve
mineral homeostasis (release of minerals into blood)
Ca2+ (99% bone tissue, 1% serum/tissue fluid), contraction and hormone and enzyme production
P (5x building blocks), DNA, cell membrane, pH, enzymes, ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For what 5x structures is Phosphorous the building blocks for?

A
  1. DNA
  2. Cell membranes
  3. ATP
  4. enzymes
  5. pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the allocation of calcium?

A

99% in bone tissue

1% in serum/tissue fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is located in haemopoetic tissue?

A
  1. developing blood cells (RBC, WBC, platelets)
  2. adipocytes
  3. fibroblasts
  4. macrophages
  5. all within a network of reticular fibres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do the numbers of bone differ with age?

A

born= 270 centres of ossification
then body tries to head to a state of fusion (hip to vertebrae)
adult= 206
elderly=

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two major roles of the axial skeleton?

A

support
protection
(+haemopoesis)
80 bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the two major roles of the axial skeleton?

A

movement
fat storage
126 bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How thick is the outer epiphyseal shell?

A

less than 0.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the difference between the thickness of endosteum or periosteum?

A

endosteum thinner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What sort of forces can the diaphysis resist?

A

bending and torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What sort of bone is compact bone?

A

cortical bone (cortex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the composition of endosteum?

A

fibrocellular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where are sharpey fibres located?

A

periosteum
tendons
ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the composition of periosteum?

A

fibrocellular sheath

dense IRregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is it called when bone just contains air and where is it located?

A

Pneumatized
face and sinus bones
(otherwise would have thick neck muscles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the junction between where the epiphysis and diaphysis join?

A

metaphysis

- hyaline cartilage and trabeculae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the largest bone in your body?

A

femur

acetabulum of pelvis bone (ball and socket joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the constancy of the pattern or trabeculae?

A

constantly being re-modelled - as how it is engineered is dependant on the forces imposed on it
(fighting fusion/equilibrium point)
irregular lattice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the two appendicular bones which contain red bone marrow?

A

pelvis

head of humerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What part of bone is vascular and innervated?

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the four primary tissues of the body?

A

muscle
epithelium
nervous
connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the role of connective tissue?

A 
most common body tissue- out of all CT Collagen is the most common
highly variable in function
binds, supports and strengthens other tissues
Primarily a Structural role
packaging tissue to fill up space
contains BV - keeps the tissue alive
contains Nerves- allows you to feel it
1. Ct
2. Cells and ECM
3. Ground substance and fibres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the first category of CT?

A

cells and ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the second category of ECM?

A

Ground substance and Fibres

Ct –> cells and ECM ==> ground substance and fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the organic component of bone(ECM)?

A

Fibres

1/3 dry weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the weight of the organic component of bone?

A

fibres

1/3 dry weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the percentage of collagen in bone?

A

Type 1>Type 5 (2 out of 29)
25%
stretching/pulling/tensional force in same plane- otherwise would collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the inorganic component of bone (ECM)?

A

ground substance
25% water
2/3 dry weight/50% hydroxyapatite crystallized salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What percentage of ground substance is water?

A

25% (less hydrated relative to other CT’s ECM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the main component of ground substance?

A 
hydroxyapatite
50% bone
2/3 dry weight
crystalised salt
gives bone its properties
\+ contains the calcium and phosphorous reserve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the job of cells?

A

resist and maintain torsion

typically tend to be low density in connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What do osteogenic cells arrive from?

A

UNspecialised embryonic stem cell
Mesenchyme
form Embryonic connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where does the cell division of bone occur?

A

the ONLY cell to undergo division is unspecialised embryonic stem cell (mesenchyme)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the composition of osteoid?

A

70% collagen
30% proteins and proteoglycans
hence ORGANIC component(minaly collagen) prior to hydroxyapatite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is another name for osteogenic cells?

A

osteoprogenitor
thin and flattened
differentiated under the influence of cues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is calcification?

A

infiltration of hydroxyapatite
80% in 3weeks –> 20% in 1-2 years
due to more water BEING DISPLACED (Ca2+ needs tissue fluid to move nutrients around cells)
strong and therefore nutritive fluids cannot flow through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What can nutrients diffuse through?

A

Nutrients CANNOT diffuse through bone,
need tissue fluid (hence why calcification slows at end as water is being displaced (less of it) to transport the nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Are osteocytes isolated and dead?

A

“lattice grid work of live cells”
no
as they are just trapped osteoblasts can revert back)
and arent isolated as have canaliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does canaliculi allow communication with?

A

other osteocytes

+ osteoblasts on the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the rate of movement of osteoclasts?

A

1mm every 20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How many cells join to form an osteoclast?

A 
MONOCYTE PRECURSOR/PROGEN
20 to form syncytium
max 50
short lived
acids(ph4 hydroxyapatite breakdown)+ hydrolytic enzymes from lysosomes (collagen breakdown)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the pH of acids released by osteoclasts?

A

ph4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where are the enzymes stored in osteoclasts?

A 
released from lysosomes
remove proteins (collagen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the main features of a osteoclast?

A

Howship’s Lacunae is FURRY as the acid has dissolved the hydroxyapatite and the collagen fibres are exposed(unlike smooth calcified bone)
ruffles border to increase contact and SA
the tight seal is called the CLEAR Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What dissolves collagen fibres?

A

hydrolytic enzymes from lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What dissolves hydroxyapatite?

A

enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the texture of calcified bone?

A

smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the difference in histology slides of bone?

A

Blue Lacuna= no calcium Ca2+ salts

Bright Pink lacuna= yes calcium Ca2+ salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How much of our skeleton is replaced?

A

on average we replace about 10% of our skeelton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What was appositional growth and bone reabsorption balance dependant on?

A 
Completely independant from one another
BALANCe however is dependant on AGE
-young= more appositional 
-teenage= equal
- (35+) adult- more reabsoprtion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Why cant bone undergo interstitial growth?

A

Bone is too rigid to expand

resists deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What happens to osteoblasts after they have finished secreting osteoid?

A
  1. revert back to osteogenic cells

2. die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What would happen if only appositional growth occurred?

A

bone would be too thick and unnecessarily heavy

therefore bone reabsorption makes it efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What forms resting endo/periosteum?

A

osteoGENIC cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What cues bone reabsorption?

A

osteocytes- either dying osteocytes of monitoring osteocytes (notice the dying ECM)
cues from monocyte precursors to exit blood vessels/VENULES
This is because they see damage that THEY CANNOT REPAIR, hence release cues to settle and start boring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What inhibits osteoclast formation?

A

osteoBlasts inhibit osteoclasts

Note- osteoclasts die via apoptosis- tightly regulated/short lived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is rickets?

A

high amounts of osteoid
-poor diet low in calcium (third world countries)
low amounts of calcium/calcification
-insufficent ca2+ to calcify quick enough
-stays soft and rubbery and deforms due to gravity and other forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is rickets in adults?

A

osteoclamacia
insufficent sunlight
insufficent vitamin D to absorb Ca2+ (through intestinal wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does reformed broken bone more?

A

Callus

LOOSELY packed collagen of woven bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the orientation of collagen in lamellar bone?

A

up to 90 degrees out of phase

  • is dependant on the forces exposed
  • can withstand forces from different directions therefore significantly stronger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the percent of spongy bone in bones?

A

20%
vary due to function
Longbone= 10% at ends/epiphysis
Vertebrae= 40% at more compression

87
Q

What is the difference between bone turnover?

A

spongy bone has a 5x greater turnover> than compact bone
therefore high Ca2+ and P turnover, as more mineral homesostasis- as reserve can quickly be pulled down form spongy bone –> serum
also receives more nutrients as high surface area and highly vascular

88
Q

Which part of the bone is most likely to be effected by a disease?

A

medullary cavity

as is highly vascular

89
Q

What is the role of trabeculae?

A 
resist stressors(compression)
transfer force without breaking
90
Q

What sort of blood vessels are located in compact bone?

A

Periosteal blood vessels (venules and arterioles)

91
Q

Which nerves are touched during an operation to anetheasize the bone?

A

CANNOT anethasise periosteal blood vessels during a bone biopsy
-therefore is very painful

92
Q

What is circumferential lamellae?

A

continuous layer around the outer and inner edge of compact bone
-due to osteoblasts putting down new layers but not always knowing to put down osteons
therefore cells ARENT typically found on the outside of bone

93
Q

What happens to the periosteum in primary bone formation?

A

becomes endosteum
REMAINS ACTIVE
(due to the ridges become prominent and fusing together)

94
Q

What can the cutting cone be referred to?

A

cellular drill

95
Q

What is the movement of a cutting cone?

A

along the predominantly plane of stress

96
Q

Why does the blood vessel grow into the secondary osteon?

A

to keep the osteoblasts alive

97
Q

With what can you identify if bone is compact or lamellae?

A

polarized light

-can see if there are osteons or not

98
Q

What junction can be seen in secondary osteon formation?

A

between new secondary osteon and pre-existing old osteon
=Cement line
=proteoglycan glue

99
Q

Where are cement lines found?

A

in articular cartilage

between new secondary osteons and prexisting old osteon - sticks old and new together

100
Q

What are key points in endochondral ossification?

A

epiphyseal plate can deform as it is rubbery soft
gets thicker, but the cartilage that is closest to the metaphysis is dying
(one osteoid)
rate of epiphyseal growth SLOWS down at the end of puberty

101
Q

What are the three main functions of joints?

A
  1. force transmission (weakest part of skeleton and subject to huge amount of strain)
  2. growth
  3. movement (natural break in skeleton.can train your joints via stretching them (flexibility)
102
Q

What is the weakest part of the skeleton?

A

joints

103
Q

How long is the digestive system?

A

5m

9m w/o muscle and CT

104
Q

What is the digestive system largest at?

A

largest immune system

largest organ system (including its epithelial glands- pancreas and liver)

105
Q

Where is the main location of bacteria in the digestive system and what sort of relationship does it have?

A

1x more bacteria in the large intestine than any other place

body has a SYMBIOTIC relationship with bacteria

106
Q

What is digestion?

A

the chemical breakdown of ingested foods into absorbable molecules

107
Q

What is absorption?

A

the movement of nutrients, water and electrolytes through the epithelial lining of the gut –> into the blood or lymph

108
Q

What is similar to bone in the mouth?

A

dentine

109
Q

What are the features of dentine?

A

similar to bone
made out of odontoblasts
odontoblast cells closer to the pulp

110
Q

What are the features of enamel?

A

crystalline rods and prisms
of calcium phosphate and c carbonate
acellular and no sensation
Hard for longevity

111
Q

Where is the vascular and innervated path of teeth?

A

ONLY PULP

112
Q

Where is the alive part of the tooth?

A

ONLY PULP

-as the pulp is the only part which contains blood vessels (and nerves)

113
Q

What is cementum made out of?

A

calcified connective tissue

  • cements to jaw bone
  • all around ROOT
  • below jaw bone
114
Q

What has a rapid turn over in the mouth?

A

peridontal ligament (is made out of mostly collagen fibres)

115
Q

What is the bone of the socket?

A

alveolar bone

116
Q

What is periodontal disease?

A

the result of having food getting trapped in the gap between the tooth and root
-avoided by regular flossing

117
Q

What is the periodontal ligament predominantly made out of?

A

collagen fibres

118
Q

What are the three directions of muscle in the tongue?

A

LTV
Longitudinal
Transverse
Vertical

119
Q

What is the arrangement of fungiform like?

A

non-uniform (arranged between filiform)

120
Q

What are the features of the largest papilla?

A 
circumvallate
8-12x
large amounts of taste buds
gustatory PORES called channels
send signals to your brain so you can actually smell food
121
Q

What are the five things the tongue allows you to do?

A 
eat
taste
chew 
swallow
phonetics
122
Q

Where is the sublingual gland located?

A

under the tongue

123
Q

What can cause the secretion of saliva?

A

smelling
seeing
tasting
thinking about food

124
Q

What are the three main components of saliva?

A

enzyme
mucous
water

125
Q

Is the liver in front or behind the stomach?

A

infront

therefore the gallbladder has to also be behind the liver

126
Q

What are the fourth way of increasing surface area?

A

simple tubular glands

forming pits

127
Q

Where is the myenteric nerve plexus located?

A

between the inner circular and outer longitudinal muscularis externa

128
Q

What is the composition of the serosa?

A

outer mesothelium

inner CT Bed

129
Q

Where are blood vessels located in the four tunics?

A

in both the MUCOSA AND the SUBMUCOSA

submucosa has larger as have combined here (portal vein included)

130
Q

How long is the oesophagus?

A 
25cm long
(pharynx --> stomach)
131
Q

What is the rate of flow in oesophagus?

A

5 sec for food

1 sec for fluid

132
Q

What is the rate of turnover in oesophagus?

A

stratified squamous divide in basal layers

every 7 days

133
Q

What are the four components of the stomach?

A

Cardia
Fundus
Body
Pylorus

134
Q

What are the 6 functions of the stomach?

A
  1. secrete acid, water and enzyme
  2. produce chyme
  3. breakdown protein
  4. Absorption of water, ions and drugs (aspirin and alcohol) DOESNT ABSORB AND FOOD
  5. Transport
  6. Protection (against own secretions/microbes/acid/pepsin)
135
Q

What is the volume of secretions of the stomach?

A

2-3 L daily

acids mucous enzymes

136
Q

What is chyme?

A

food + gastric juices

137
Q

Where is the absorption of aspirin and alcohol?

A

in stomach

stomach absorbs water, ions and some drugs (alcohol and aspirin) but NO FOOD absorbed at stomach

138
Q

What is the pyloric sphincter controlled by?

A

volume

hormones

139
Q

Why is the stomach for storage?

A

As food is eaten quicker than is can be digested and absorbed
(provides more time)

140
Q

How fast is a churning wave?

A

very 20 seconds

141
Q

What is the rate of turnover or surface mucous cells?

A

2-3days

142
Q

What cells are activated at every meal time?

A

mucous neck cells

143
Q

Where does protein breakdown occur?

A

20% in stomach

80% in small intestine

144
Q

Waht do the chief cells secrete?

A 
pepsinogen (protein breakdown)
gastric lipase (fat breakdown)
145
Q

What has the negative feed back?

A

gastrin cells (stomach enteroendocrine)

146
Q

How big is the liver?

A

1.5 kg

147
Q

How many metabolic functions can hepatocytes perform?

A

over 500

148
Q

Where are hepatocytes derived from?

A 
embryonic endoderm
(epithelial gland)
149
Q

What are the 5 functions of the liver?

A
  1. production of bile (similar to surfactant)
  2. Detoxification (drugs, poison, metabolites)
  3. Storage (glycogen as glucose and vitamins esp Vitamin A)
  4. Synthesis of Plasma Proteins (albumin, globulin, blood clotting proteins)-reassemble and repackage
  5. recycles old RBC into more RBC or other chemicals
150
Q

What is similar to surfactant?

A

bile

151
Q

What are the fenestrations between hepatocytes?

A

fenestrated endothelium of sinusoid

152
Q

What are the funky names in the plates of hepatocytes?

A

tight junctions

lymph space of disse

153
Q

What is the size of a hepatocyte?

A

2mm length lobule
1mm wide lobule
hexagonal in cross sections

154
Q

Where space in the centre of lobule?

A

central vein

155
Q

What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?

A

islets of Langerhan
1% of the pancreas
secretes insulin and glycogen
(blood glucose regulation)

156
Q

What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?

A

secretes pancreatic alkaline solution BICARBONATE
precursors of digestive enzymes
-these digestive enzymes activated once in small intestine and DIGEST fats, carbs and proteins + NUCLEIC ACID

157
Q

Where are acinus located?

A

in the pancreas

158
Q

What is the pathway of substance movement in the pancreas?

A

secretory cell -> acini –> intercalated ducts –> interlobar ducts –> main pancreatic duct

159
Q

How long is the duodenum?

A

25 cm

duodent means 12 (x2 ish)

160
Q

What does jejunus mean?

A

empty

primary part for digestion and absorbtion

161
Q

What does ileum mean?

A

twisted

primarily for absorbtion

162
Q

What is the primary pathway of functions in the small intestine?

A

Digestion –> digestion + absorption –> absoprtion

163
Q

What is special about the duodenum?

A

contains the Glands of Brunner

mucous glands

164
Q

Where are the glands of Brunner located?

A

duodenum

165
Q

What sort of glands are the glands of brunner in the duodenum?

A

mucous glands

166
Q

What sort of folds are plicae?

A

circular folds

167
Q

What are the covering and core of plicae?

A

mucosa

submucosa

168
Q

What are the covering and core of villi?

A

epithelium

lamina propria

169
Q

What are the covering and core of microvilli?

A

cell membrane

cytoplasm

170
Q

What are the two functions of paneth cells?

A 
secrete lysozyme (anti bactericidal)
phagocytotic
171
Q

What is the turn over of small intestine enterocytes?

A

2-3 days
-have microvilli
columnar absorptive cells

172
Q

What is the turnover of the whole mucosa as it moves upwards in the small intestine?

A

every 5 days

173
Q

What is the function of secretin?

A

signal the pancreas to produce pancreatic juices - to neutralise the acidic chyme with its alkalineness
secretin is secreted in response to acidic chyme coming into the small intestine

174
Q

What leaves the hepatic venules?

A

carbs (monosaccharides), proteins (amino-acids), water and electrolytes

175
Q

Where in the body does secretin, a little bit of gastrin and cholecystokinin released?

A

small intestine

176
Q

What absorbs lipids that are too difficult to get into the venules (currently transporting monosaccharides, amino acids, water and electrolytes)

A

lacteals
(lactation) milked by lamina propria’s smooth muscle
fats/tryglycerides that are too big for venules

177
Q

How long is the large intestine?

A

1.5 m long with 7 parts

178
Q

What are the 6x functions of the large intestine?

A
  1. absorbs water and electrolytes
  2. secrete mucus
  3. formation of feces (chyme–> feces)
  4. fermentation- the manner of digesting lignin - this is their energy + proponiate and buterate for protecting enterocytes
  5. bacteria products (vitamin B12 vitamin K(blood clotting))
  6. defecation - stores fecal matter
179
Q

What is the fermentation function of the large intestine?

A

cellulose and lignin - this is their energy

proponiate and buterate for protecting enterocytes

180
Q

What is vitamin K used for?

A

blood clotting

181
Q

What are you at risk at if you have diarrhea?

A

low vitamin K

product from bacteria in large intestine (as well as vitamin B12)

182
Q

Out of the three functions what occurs at the small intestine?

A

absorption

183
Q

What is the composition of feces?

A

30% bacteria

30% undigested dietary fibre

184
Q

What distributes the flow in the large intestine?

A

illeocecal valve

controls chyme outflow

185
Q

Where is there a high concentration of lymphocytes in the body?

A

small intestine

AND LARGE intestine - protection against bacteria

186
Q

What is the caecum and does it change size?

A

dilated pouch

largest in herbivores

187
Q

What determines the colour of feces?

A

bilirubin content

188
Q

What sort of a muscle is the tenia coli?

A

3x strips
longitudinal muscle
Only in the decending colon and rectum

189
Q

What are the lymph clusters in the large intestine called?

A

lymph nodules

190
Q

What is located in the descending colon and rectum?

A

teni coli

191
Q

How long is the rectum?

A

20 cm

192
Q

how long is the anal canal?

A

last 2 cm

193
Q

What is a complete joint replacement called?

A

athroplasty

194
Q

What is an arthroplasty?

A

a complete joint replacement

195
Q

What is special about the socket cup in an arthroplasty?

A

the back of the cup is porous to allow the SPONGY bone to grow through it
there are two ways to attach metal into body
pressfit
bone cement

196
Q

What is the relationship between spongy bone and arthroplasty?

A

The back of the cup is porous/has pores, allowing the spongy bone to grow in it (cementing it in) -either through bone cementing or press fit

197
Q

What happens to the femur in a hip arthroplasty?

A

The femur’s medullary space is dug out and the tip of the femur is cut off
the long SHAFT of the joint is placed down inside the femur
-in the femur’s medullary space which has been remounted

198
Q

What texture is the cup?

A

removable polyethylene sleeve (greasy plastic)

199
Q

How long does an arthroplasty last?

A

10-15 years
as by now the metal grinding on plastic will give off a few metal or plastic fragments
These can go behind the cup or down the shaft
osteoclasts will move in and get rid of these fragments but will in turn erode the bone
-this will result in a Loose joint

200
Q

How many types of arthritis are there?

A

osteoid arthritis

rheumatoid arthritis

201
Q

What is prupose of calcified cartilage?

A

There is alot of sheer force exposed to cartilage
The top 3 function layers can be deformed
all this force is being transferred to the narrow osteochondral junction
the calcified cartilage acts as a buffer
it Spreads the sheer force along the subchondral bone (increase SA)
enough to ensure that you don’t delaminate you cartilage when you put a lot of sheer force on it

202
Q

Where is hyaluronic acid found in a baby?

A

hyaluronic acid is found in the umbilical cord
avoid knotting of the umbilical cord
due to it being a long chain
and being able to hold onto/attach water

203
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

when you bone has alot of pores in it

204
Q

What is it called when you bone has lots of pores in it?

A

osteoporosis

205
Q

What is the position of the collagen fibres in the middle zone?

A

oblique

45 degrees to the SURFACE

206
Q

What sort of texture is the surface zone of articular cartilage?

A

felt like

207
Q

What has a felt like texture?

A

surface zone of articular cartilage

208
Q

Where does migration occur in articular cartilage?

A 
deep zone
cells mitotically dividing 
secreting ECM (maintaining environment)
nests
migrate upwards
209
Q

What is the importance of the cell mitotically dividing in the deep zone of articular cartilage?

A

creates a reserve of chondrocytes

interstitial growth

210
Q

What colour is calcified cartilage?

A

slightly pink

211
Q

Where is the first sign of Tide mark?

A

at the tide mark

212
Q

What is the tide mark representative of in relation to calcification?

A

The tide mark is the first point to find hydroxyapatite

therefore it is LOW in PG

213
Q

Where is a place in articular cartilage that is surprisingly low in proteoglycans?

A

The tide mark
It is the first place to find hydroxyapaitite
therefore it is calcified
therefore it is low in PG

Medsci Exam (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions