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309 SSAMP > Summary > Flashcards

Summary Flashcards

1
Q

What is first pass metabolism

A

Drug undergoes metabolism at a specific location of the body

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2
Q

What is bioavailabity

A

the proportion of a drug or other substance which enters the circulation when introduced into the body and so is able to have an active effect.

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3
Q

What is half life t1/2

A

time taken for the drug concentration in the blood plasma to reduce by 1/2. helps to assess stability

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4
Q

What is pharmacokinetics

A

what the body does the drug

ADME- Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion

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5
Q

What is pharmcodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

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6
Q

What is the class and use of fusidic acid 1%

A

anti microbial and treats bacterial conjunctivitis - POM

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7
Q

What is the class and use of chloramphenicol 0.5% AND 1%

A

anti microbial and treats bacterial conjunctivitis- POM

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8
Q

What is the class and use of Lidocaine with fluoroscein (4% lidocaine and 0.25% fluoroscein)

A

Local anaethetic- POM

  • used for eye procedures such as foreign body removal, fluoroscien helps to visualise corneal abrasions and defects, tonometry for IOP
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9
Q

What is the class and use of Oxybuprocaine 0.4%

A

Local anaethetic - POM

Stronger topical anaesthetic for tonometry, gonioscopy and minor procdures.

Less stinging than tetracaine.

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10
Q

What is the class and use of Tetracaine (0.5% and 1%)

A

Local anaesthetic- POM

Stronger anesthetic for longer procedures like foreign body removal or minor eye surgeries.
More intense burning/stinging than oxybuprocaine or proxymetacaine.

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11
Q

What is the class and use of proxymetacaine 0.5%

A

Local anasethtic POM

Fast-acting and well-tolerated anesthetic for tonometry, gonioscopy, and minor eye procedures.
Causes the least stinging among the local anesthetics.

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12
Q

Onset, duration and stinging of Lidocaine with fluoroscein

A

Onset- 20 s

Duration- 15min

Stinging- moderate

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13
Q

Onset, duration and stinging of Oxybuprocaine

A

Onset- 30s

Duration- 10-15mins

Stinging- mild

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14
Q

Onset, duration and stinging of Tetracine

A

Onset- 30s

Duration- 10-15min

Stinging- strong

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15
Q

Onset, duration and stinging of proxymetacaine

A

Onset- 20s

Duration- 10-15mins

Stinging- very mild

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16
Q

Which LA stings the most and is used for minor eye surgery

A

Tetracine

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17
Q

Which LA stings the least

A

Proxymetacaine

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18
Q

What is the class and use of atropine 1%

A

POM- (Cycloplegic, mydriatic and anti muscarinic)

Long-acting pupil dilation for amblyopia and cycloplegia for diagnostic and therapeutic use (e.g., uveitis).

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19
Q

What is the class and use of cyclopentolate

A

POM- (Cycloplegic & Mydriatic, Antimuscarinic)

Shorter-acting cycloplegia and pupil dilation for eye exams.

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20
Q

What is the class and use of tropicamide

A

POM- (Cycloplegic & Mydriatic, Antimuscarinic)

Shorter-acting cycloplegia and pupil dilation for eye exams.

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21
Q

Which cyclplegic has the shortest duration

A

Tropicamide

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22
Q

Which cycloplegic has the longest duration

A

atropine

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23
Q

What is the class and use of phenylephrine 2.5% and 10%

A

POM- sympathomimetic

Pupil dilation (mydriasis) without cycloplegia for diagnostic or surgical procedures.

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24
Q

What are the two most commonly used ocular lubricants (artifical tears)

A

Hypromellose (Ocular Lubricant) – Used for dry eye relief.

Carbomer Gel (Ocular Lubricant) – Longer-lasting hydration for dry eyes.

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25
Q

What is the class and use of SCG 2%

A

P at 2%, GSL lower than 2%- mast cell stabiliser

Prevents allergic conjunctivitis by stabilising mast cells.

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26
Q

What is the use and class of cetirizine tablets

A

10mg tablets GSL, Higher dose P- antihistamine

Systemic antihistamine for allergic eye symptoms (usually in tablet form).

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27
Q

What is the use and class of antazoline sulphate

A

P- Antihistamine

Relieves allergic conjunctivitis by reducing histamine effects; xylometazoline helps with eye redness.

also has anticholinergic properties- risks for cardiovascular problems

28
Q

Which drugs are POMs

A

Cyclopentolate
Tropicamide
Phenylephrine
Fusidic acid
Chlormphenicol
Lidocaine with fluorsein
Oxybuprocaine
Tetracaine
Proxymetacaine

29
Q

Which drugs are P

A

Sodium Cromoglicate (2% eye drops), Antazoline Sulfate

30
Q

Which drugs are GSL

A

Sodium Cromoglicate (1% or lower eye drops), Cetirizine (10 mg standard dose)

31
Q

How are cycloplegic and antimuscarinic similar

A

They both block the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to pupil dilation and cycloplegia (paralysis of accommodation).

32
Q

Which three drugs all belong to the antimuscarnic group but are commonly referred to as cyclolegics

A

Cyclopentolate
Atropine
Tropicamide

33
Q

What is the vicious cylcle in Dry eye

5 step

A
  1. Tear Film Instability (Poor-Quality Tears)
    Your tears either evaporate too quickly or don’t spread properly across your eye.
    This happens due to meibomian gland dysfunction (MGD) (lack of oil in tears) or a lack of watery tears.
    The tear film breaks down, leaving dry spots on your eye.
  2. Increased Tear Evaporation & Inflammation
    With fewer or poor-quality tears, your eye loses moisture faster.
    The surface of your eye gets inflamed and irritated.
    Inflammation damages the cells that produce tears, making things worse.
  3. Damage to the Eye Surface
    The dryness and inflammation lead to tiny injuries on the eye’s surface.
    This triggers more inflammation and makes your eyes even more sensitive and uncomfortable.
  4. Nerve Damage & Reduced Tear Production
    The inflammation damages nerves responsible for signaling your eye to produce tears.
    As a result, your body produces even fewer tears, worsening the problem.
  5. The Cycle Continues
    With less tear production and more damage, your eyes stay irritated, inflamed, and uncomfortable.
    The dryness keeps worsening, leading to chronic dry eye disease.
34
Q

What treatment can be used to break the vicious cycle

A

✔️ Restoring tear film stability (using artificial tears & lipid-based drops)
✔️ Reducing inflammation (using anti-inflammatory drops like steroids or cyclosporine)
✔️ Treating meibomian gland dysfunction (MGD) (using warm compresses & eyelid massage)
✔️ Protecting the eye surface (using lubricating gels, ointments, or punctal plugs

35
Q

What is an anti cholinergic drug and what is an example

A

a class of drugs that block the action of acetylcholine, a chemical messenger in the brain and body

36
Q

What are 4 drugs with anti cholinergic properities

A

Cyclopentolate
Atropine
Tropicamide
Antazoline sulphate

37
Q

What is an agonist drug

38
Q

What is an agonist drug

A

activates a specific receptor to produce a desired effect

e.g. pilocarpine which constricts pupils and lowers IOP

e.g. pilocarpine which constricts pupils and lowers IOP
by stimulating the ciliary muscle to facilitate fluid outflow which alleviates the IOP.

39
Q

What is an antagonist drug

A

blocks the action of a natural agonist at that receptor, essentially preventing its effect

e.g. tropicamide blocks the signals which contracts pupillary sphincter muscle to contract which dilates the pupil

40
Q

Which 2 drugs are stored at 2-8 degrees

A

Proxymetacaine and Chloramphenicol

41
Q

What is the difference in the discharge of AC and BC

A

AC- watery discharge

BC- mucopurlent yellow green discharge and crusting

42
Q

What is a hallmark sign of conjunctivitis

A

ocular itching

43
Q

What is a feature of vernal keratoconjunctivits

A

cobblestone lumps under upper eyelid

44
Q

Do BC and AC effect both eyes

A

BC - can start in one eye then effect both
AC- typically always both

45
Q

How does fusidic acid work

A

Prevents translocation of elongation factor G (EF-G) – Fusidic acid works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.)

46
Q

What is the primary cause of posterior uveitis

A

toxoplasmosis (infection caused by eating undercooked meat)

47
Q

Why is acetacolamide contradicted in pregnancy

A

teratogenic effects

48
Q

Which drop should not be used in those with narrow angles

49
Q

Which topical eye drop has the highest risk of systemic hypertension

A

Phenylephrine

50
Q

Which ocular anesthetic is an ester-based agent with a rapid onset and short duration?

A

Proxymetacaine

51
Q

Which anti microbial is safer in neonates due to lower systemic toxicity

A

Fusidic acid

52
Q

What bacteria is most common in CL wearers

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

53
Q

Why should beta blockers be used cautiously

A

they can cause bradycardia

54
Q

What is the first line treatment for First-line treatment for bacterial keratitis

A

Topical fluoroquinolones

55
Q

Which red eye condition blanches with phenylephrine

A

Episcleritis

56
Q

What ocular complication can prolonged topical steriod use cause

57
Q

What is the first line treatment for CL related bacterial keratitis

A

Topical fluoroquinolones

58
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in narrow-angle glaucoma due to its mydriatic effect?

A

tropicamide

59
Q

Which drug should be avoided in a patient taking MAO inhibitors?

A

Phenylephrine

60
Q

Which of the following is a primary indication for oral acetazolamide?

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

61
Q

Which drug should be used with caution in patients with asthma due to the risk of bronchospasm?

62
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of phenylephrine-induced mydriasis?

A

pilocarpine

63
Q

Is increased IOP a typical feature of anterior uveitis?

64
Q

Is a dendritic ulver a classic finding of herpes simplex keratitis

65
Q

Which drug is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used in glaucoma treatment?

A

Brimonidine

66
Q

Is timolol a beta blocker used to lower IOP

309 SSAMP (12 decks)

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