5- Pharmacology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

The study of the movement of drugs into, around, and out of the body. “What the body does to the drug.”

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2
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

The study of how drugs work when they reach their site of action. “What the drug does to the body.”

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3
Q

On what mechanisms may drugs act?

A

Components of the cell.
Critical chemical pathways of the cell.
Transport mechanisms for chemicals entering and exiting cells.
Chemical messaging systems between cells.
DNA/RNA replication.

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4
Q

What are the two categories of transport mechanisms?

A

Passive Transport: Diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion.

Active Transport: Uses ATP.

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5
Q

Give examples of chemical messengers involved in drug actions.

N,A,G,D,S

A

Noradrenaline (NA)
Acetylcholine (Ach)
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine (DA)
Serotonin (5HT, 5-hydroxytryptamine)

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6
Q

What is the “lock and key” mechanism of drug-receptor interaction?

A

Drug molecules bind to receptor sites like a key fitting into a lock, leading to:

Agonist: Enhances action.
Antagonist: Diminishes action.
Partial agonist: Dampens down action.

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7
Q

What happens when a B2 agonist binds to a B2 adrenoceptor?

A

Enhances receptor action.
Dilates the airways (e.g., salbutamol for asthma).

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8
Q

What happens when a B1 blocker binds to a B1 adrenoceptor?

r,v,l

A
  • Reduces receptor action.
  • Vasodilation
  • Lowers blood pressure (e.g., atenolol, propranolol).
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9
Q

What does an anticholinergic agent like atropine do at cholinergic receptors?

A

Anticolinergics block the action of AcH

Thus, Dilation of the pupil (mydriasis).

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10
Q

How do SSRIs affect serotonin levels?

A

They increase serotonin concentration outside the receptor, enhancing mood.

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11
Q

What does buprenorphine do at opiate receptors?

A

Provides moderate pain relief.
Reduces potential for opiate addiction.
Useful in substance misuse treatment.

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12
Q

Through which areas are eye drops absorbed?

A

Primarily through the cornea.
Also through the conjunctival mucosa, which can lead to systemic effects.

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13
Q

Why are frequent applications of eye drops needed?

A

Eye drops have a short drug-eye contact time.

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14
Q

What are unit dose (UD) eye drops also known as

A

Preservative-free eye drops.

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15
Q

What are the advantages of eye ointments over eye drops?

A

Prolonged contact time, requiring less frequent application.

Lubricates the eye, reducing the need for concurrent lubricants.

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16
Q

What are the disadvantages of eye ointments?

A

Blurred vision

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17
Q

What formulations are used to treat posterior segment of the eye

A

Intravitreal injections.
Periocular injections.
Systemic administration (oral medicines

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18
Q

How many drops are in 1 mL of eye drops?

A

Approximately 20 drops per 1 mL (fewer for more viscous drops).

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19
Q

Why should there be a 5-minute gap between different eye drops?

A

To prevent the second drop from washing out the first before full absorption.

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20
Q

What medications can orthoptists administer without prescription

6- LLAF MC

A

Local anaesthetics.
Fluorescein.
Antimicrobials.
Lubricants.
Mydriatics.
Cycloplegics.

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21
Q

Which drugs act on the cornea?

LFAL

A

Local anaesthetics.
Fluorescein.
Antibiotics.
Lubricants.

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22
Q

What drugs act on the iris

A

Mydriatics (e.g., cyclopentolate) dilate the pupil

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23
Q

What drugs act on the ciliary muscle

A

Cycloplegics (e.g., atropine, tropicamide) paralyze the muscle.

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24
Q

What is the action of fuscidic acid

A

Effective against gram-positive organisms, especially Staphylococcus aureus.

Prolonged contact in the conjunctival sac ensures effectiveness with twice-daily application.

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25
Q

Why must soft contact lenses not be worn during treatment with fusidic acid eye drops?

A

The preservative benzalkonium chloride can irritate eyes and discolor contact lenses.

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26
Q

What are the pharmacodynamics of fusidic acid

A

**Fusidic acid acts as a bacteriostatic agent, inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by blocking peptide chain elongation.

It is effective against a wide range of Gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus.

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27
Q

Does fuscidic acid kill bacteria directly (bactericidal)

A

No, but it stops their replication and protein synthesis, effectively halting bacterial growth.

28
Q

Fuscidic acid- how long after contact do bacterial cells stop dividing

A

within 2 minutes, while DNA and RNA synthesis continues for 45 minutes to 1-2 hours, respectively

29
Q

What are the potential undesirable effects of fuscidic acid

A

Local effects:
Eye irritation (stinging or burning upon instillation).
Conjunctival hyperemia (redness).
Allergic reactions such as itching or swelling.

Systemic effects: Rare due to minimal systemic absorption. However, trace amounts can sometimes cause mild systemic reactions such as nausea or gastrointestinal discomfort.

30
Q

What are the pharmacodynamics of atropine

A

Anticholinergic effects:

Atropine is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the parasympathetic nervous system.

31
Q

More on atropine pharmacodynamics

A

Inhibition of the iris sphincter muscle leads to mydriasis (dilation of the pupil).
Relaxation of the ciliary muscle leads to cycloplegia (paralysis of accommodation).

32
Q

What is the onset of atropine

A

Pupillary dilation typically occurs within 30 minutes of local application and may last for 7 days or longer.

33
Q

Onset and duration of cycloplegia develop with Atropine

A

onset - 15–30 min
duration- 4–6 h.

34
Q

How long does atropine last

35
Q

What is the combination of lidocaine with fluorescein used for

Common Form: Lidocaine 4% + Fluorescein 0.25% solution (eye drops).

A

📌 Purpose: A combination used in ophthalmology for diagnostic procedures.

📌 Key Uses:

**Topical Anesthesia ** tonometry, foreign body removal, and eye exams.
**Corneal Staining – Fluorescein highlights abrasions, ulcers, or damage under blue light.
Glaucoma Testing – IOP measurement.
Contact Lens Fitting – Helps assess lens alignment and corneal staining.

📌 How It Works:
**Lidocaine **→ Numbs the eye.
**Fluorescein **→ Stains damaged areas, making them visible under blue light.

36
Q

What is the purpose of Lidocaine with fluoroscein

A

Diagnostic purposes, such as in tonometry or contact lens fitting, without causing significant systemic effects.

37
Q

Pharmacokinetics of Lidocaine with Fluoroscein

ADME

A

Absorption: Lidocaine is absorbed locally in the eye with minimal systemic absorption.

Distribution: Not applicable as most of the action is local.

Metabolism: Lidocaine is metabolized in the liver, though the risk of systemic absorption is negligible in ocular use.

Elimination: Lidocaine is eliminated via the kidneys, with trace amounts excreted as unchanged drug.

38
Q

Who is most effected by dry eye?

women or men and during which life stage

A

7% of people 50s

15% of people in their 70’s

Women are affected more frequently than men, especially during menopause due to hormonal changes.

39
Q

When should preservative-free ocular lubricants be used

A

-In patients with allergies or epithelial toxicity to preservatives.

-When the patient requires more than 4-6 applications of eye drops daily.

-After eye surgery, until healing is confirmed.

-If a patient needs to use dry eye drops more frequently than 4 times daily, a more viscous lubricant should be used.

40
Q

What is an advantage of preservative free formulations

A

They reduce the risk of irritation or toxicity from preservatives and can be used for up to 2-6 months after opening without contamination.

41
Q

What is the pharmacokinetics of Sodium Cromoglycate?

ADME

A

Absorption: Poor systemic absorption; only trace amounts (less than 0.01%) penetrate into the aqueous humour.

Distribution: Not applicable as it has minimal systemic effects.

Metabolism: Not significantly metabolized.

Elimination: Sodium cromoglycate is cleared from the aqueous humour within 24 hours after stopping treatment.

42
Q

What are the pharmacodynamics of sodium cromoglycate

A

Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer, inhibiting the degranulation of sensitized mast cells after antigen exposure.

43
Q

What does sodium cromoglycate prevent

A

It prevents the release of histamine and other mediators from the mast cells

44
Q

Has sodium cromoglyacte got
vasoconstrictor or antihistamine activity

45
Q

What is sodium cromoglycate used to treat

A

seasonal and perennial allergic conjunctivitis and provides relief from symptoms like itching and redness.

46
Q

What are the adverse effects of Sodium Cromoglycate?

A

Local irritation: Transient stinging or burning on instillation of the drops.

Rare side effects: Other symptoms of local irritation can occur, but systemic side effects are unlikely due to minimal absorption.

47
Q

What does an agonist do

A

Agonist: Enhances action.

48
Q

What does an antagonist do

A

Diminishes action

49
Q

What does a partial agonist do

A

Partial agonist: Dampens down action.

50
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

51
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of a partial agonist?

A

Partially activates the receptor while preventing full activation

52
Q

What is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?

A

They irreversibly inhibit H+/K+ ATPase

53
Q

Which drugs is a beta-1 selective antagonist?

A

propanolol

54
Q

Whats the primary site of absoprtion for most eye drops?

55
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

A

Increase serotonin availability by blocking its reuptake

56
Q

What is the main mechanism by which fusidic acid acts as an antibacterial agent?

A

Blocks bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with elongation factor G

57
Q

Which of the following eye formulations allows for the longest drug contact time?

A

Eye ointments

58
Q

Where is atropine eliminated

59
Q

Why are eye drips applied freqiently

A

they have a short drug- eye contact time

60
Q

Which drugs are used to treat opioid addiction due to its partial agonist properties?

A

naloxone or buprenorphine

61
Q

How many drops are in a 10mL bottle

62
Q

What is the main reason for allowing a 5-minute gap between different eye drops?

A

prevents the first drop from washing out

63
Q

Which of the following is a clinical application of fluorescein?

A

staining corneal abrasions

64
Q

Why are beta blockers used in opthalomolgy

65
Q

A partial agonist at opioid receptors would have which of the following properties?

A

Competes with full agonists for receptor binding

66
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide in glaucoma treatment?

A

Inhibits carbonic anhydrase, reducing aqueous humor production