SUGER Flashcards

1
Q

What is renal glycosuria

A

-Disorder of the proximal tubule where glucose is not reabsorbed

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2
Q

Give the defect, mechanism, clinical features and treatment of renal glycosuria

A
  • defect= sodium glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2)
  • mechanism = failure of glucose reabsorption in proximal tubule
  • clinical features = incidental finding on testing, benign
  • treatment = SGLT2 inhibitors (e.g empagliflozin) now established as treatments for type 2 diabetes
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3
Q

What is aminoaciduria (e.g cystinuria)

A

Disorder in the proximal tubule where amino acids like cystine are not reabsorbed

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4
Q

Give the defect, mechanism and clinical features of cystinuria

A
  • defect = renal basic amino acid transporter (rBAT)
  • mechanism = failure of cystine reabsorption, increased urinary cystine concentration which can lead to stone formation
  • clinical features = renal colic, recurrent stone formation
  • treatment =
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5
Q

Give the treatment of cystinuria

A
  • high fluid intake = causes high urine flow and lower concentration of cystine
  • alkalinise urine = increases solubility of cystine
  • chelation = through penicillamine, captopril
  • management of individual stones = percutaneous treatment, surgery
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6
Q

What is hypophosphataemic rickets

A

Disorder of the proximal tubule where phosphate is not reabsorbed

The commonest form is the x linked hypophosphataemic rickets (XLH)

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7
Q

Give the defect, mechanism, clinical features and treatment of hypophosphataemic rickets (XLH)

A
  • defect = PHEX gene - zinc dependent metalloprotease
  • mechanism = PHEX mutation causes increased FGF-23 levels which leads to decreased expression and activity of the NaPi-2 in the proximal tubules
  • clinical manifestation = bow legged deformity, impaired growth
  • treatment = phosphate replacement
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8
Q

What is type 2 renal tubular acidosis

A

Disorder in the proximal tubule where bicarbonate is not reabsorbed

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9
Q

Give the defect, mechanism, clinical features and treatments of type 2 renal tubular acidosis

A
  • defect = sodium/hydrogen antiporter
  • mechanism = failure to bicarbonate reabsorption
  • clinical features = acidosis, impaired growth
  • treatment = bicarbonate supplementation
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10
Q

What can defects in carbonic anhydrase produce

A

-mixed proximal/distal renal tubular acidosis

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11
Q

What drug can be used to inhibit carbonic anhydrase and when might this be useful

A

acetazolamide

  • causes mild diuretic effect and induces a metabolic acidosis
  • used to treat altitude sickness because it allows rapid compensation of respiratory alkalosis
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12
Q

What is fanconi syndrome

A

Multiple disorders of reabsorption in the proximal tubule

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13
Q

Give the cause, mechanism and clinical features of fanconi syndrome

A
  • cause = genetic (e.g cystinosis, Wilson’s disease), myeloma, lead poisoning, cisplatin
  • mechanism = generalised proximal tubular dysfunction possibly due to failure to generate sodium gradient by Na/K ATPase
  • clinical features = glycosuria, aminoaciduria, phosphaturic rickets, renal tubular acidosis
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14
Q

What is Barrter’s syndrome

A

Disorder in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

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15
Q

Give a defect and mechanism of Barrter’s syndrome

A
  • defect = NaKCC2, ROMK, ClCKa/b, Barrtin
  • mechanism = failure of sodium, potassium and chloride cotransport in thick ascending limb, salt wasting, hypokalaemic alkalosis due to volume contraction, failure of voltage dependent calcium and magnesium absorption
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16
Q

Give clinical feature of Barrter’s syndrome

A

Antenatal - polyhydramnios, prematurity, delayed growth, nephrocalcinosis
Classical - delayed growth, polyuria, polydipsia
Similar effects to loop diuretics (e.g furosemide, bumetanide)

17
Q

What is Gitelman’s syndrome

A

Disorder of the NCCT (thiazide sensitive chloride channel) in the distal tubule

18
Q

Give the defect, mechanism and clinical features of Gitelman’s syndrome

A
  • defect = NCCT (thiazide sensitive chloride channel)
  • mechanism = failure of sodium/chloride cotransport in distal tubule, hypokalaemic alkalosis due to volume contraction, impaired magnesium absorption, increased calcium
  • clinical features = polyuria, polydipsia, tetany
19
Q

Give the defect, mechanism and causes of type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis

A
  • defect = luminal H+ ATPase or H+/K+ ATPase
  • mechanism = failure of H+ excretion and urinary acidification
  • causes = genetic (e.g Sjogren’s syndrome) and acquired (e.g chronic pyelonephritis, drugs - amphotericin)
20
Q

Give the effects of excessive aldosterone activity

A
  • sodium retention
  • hypertension
  • hypokalaemic alkalosis
21
Q

Give a primary and secondary of excessive aldosterone production

A

Conn’s syndrome (primary)

Renal artery stenosis (secondary)

22
Q

Give the defect, mechanism, clinical feature and treatment of glucocorticoid remediable aldosteronism

A
  • defect = chimeric gene - 11beta hydroxylase and aldosterone synthetase
  • mechanism = aldosterone is produced in the adrenal in response to ACTH so levels inappropriately high
  • clinical feature = sodium retention,hypertension, hypokalaemic alkalosis
  • treatment = suppress ACTH using glucocorticoids
23
Q

Give the defect, mechanism, clinical features and treatment of liddle’s syndrome

A
  • defect = activating mutation of ENaC
  • mechanism = sodium channel always open so constant aldosterone like effect
  • clinical features = sodium retention, hypertension, hypokalaemia alkalosis
  • treatment = amiloride (blocks ENaC)
24
Q

Give the defect, mechanism, clinical features and treatment of syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess (AME)

A
  • defect = 11-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
  • mechanism = cortisol not broken down in the renal tubules, therefore activates mineralocorticoid receptor
  • clinical features = sodium retention, hypertension, hypokalaemic alkalosis
  • treatment = spironolactone (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist)
25
Give the defect, mechanism and treatment of type 4 (hyperkalaemic distal) tubular acidosis
- defect = low aldosterone levels - mechanisms = reduced generation of electrochemical gradient, resulting in failure of H+ and K+ excretion - treatment = diuretics or fludrocortisone Common in elderly patients with diabetes
26
Give the defect, mechanism, clinical feature and treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
- defect = vasopressin V2 receptor or aquaporin 2 water channel - mechanism = failure of water reabsorption in the collecting duct, resulting in inability to concentrate urine - clinical features = polyuria, polydipsia, hypernatraemia - treatment = tolvaptan - a V2 receptor antagonist that induces polyuria and free water loss (aquaresis), also reduces cyst formation/progression in adult polycystic kidney disease
27
What is Turner syndrome
45x
28
What is Klinefelter syndrome
47xxy
29
What is androgen insensitivity syndrome
46xy but intersex genetalia Not responsive to testosterone (DHT) X-linked recessive
30
What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Autosomal recessive | 95% are due to 21 hydroxylase enzyme deficiency
31
Causes of precocious (early) puberty
Gonadotrophin dependent - intracranial lesions, infections, encephalitis - gonadotrophin secreting tumours - hypothyroidism Gonadotrophin independent - congenital adrenal hyperplasia - sex hormone secreting tumours - estradiol (E2) ingestion Other variants - premature thelarche (breast development) - premature adrenarche (acne, body odour, pubic hair and other androgen changes)
32
Treatments of precocious puberty
- excluding lesions, infections and tumours - do nothing - inhibit puberty with gonadotrophin analogues - androgen receptor blockage for premature adrenarche
33
Causes of delayed puberty
General - constitutional delay (temporary delay in skeletal growth) - malabsorption (coeliac disease, inflammatory bowel disease) - chronic disease or being underweight Gonadal failure - turner syndrome - iatrogenic - polyglandular - autoimmune syndrome Gonadotrophin deficiency - Kallman's syndrome - Hypothalamic/pituitary lesions
34
What is Kallman's syndrome and what causes it
- causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and an impaired sense of smell - hypogonadotropic hypogonadism affects the production of the hormones needed for sexual development - present from birth - caused by deficiency of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
35
Give some symptoms of Kallman's syndrome
- small penile size - undescended or partially descended testicles - facial defects e.g cleft lip or palate - short fingers or toes especially the 4th finger - hearing loss - development of one kidney - colour blindness
36
Treatment of delayed puberty
- excluding tumours, non-constitutional causes then do nothing - sex hormone treatment - growth hormone therapy - treatment of associated infertility with pulsatile gonadotrophin releasing hormone or hMG (containing LH and FSH) or donated gametes for IVF or ICSI