Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology CSET > Subject Matter Requirements > Flashcards

Subject Matter Requirements Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Mitosis: Period of cell growth before the DNA is duplicated

A

G1: Growth part of Interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mitosis: Period when the DNA is duplicated (that is, when chromosomes are duplicated)

A

S: Synthesis part of Interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mitosis: Period after DNA is duplicated; cell prepares for division

A

G2: Final preparations for division part of Interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mitosis phases

A

PMAT - Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mitosis: “pairing” - chromosomes pair in preparation for division

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mitosis: “middle” - chromosomes line up on the mid-line of the cell

A

Metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mitosis: “away” - the chromatids are pulled away from each other by the spindle fibers attached to the centrioles

A

Anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mitosis: “two” - two new cells are formed, as well as the nuclear membranes

A

Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Structure of the cell membrane:

form bilayer

A

Phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Structure of the cell membrane:

strengthens membrane

A

Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Structure of the cell membrane:

let in selected molecules and ions

A

Protein channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Characteristics of the cell membrane:

controls what enters and exits the cell

A

Semi-permeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Characteristics of the cell membrane:

has water-proof middle with water interactive top and bottom

A

Hydrophobic / hydrophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of the cell membrane:

bilayer is contiguous with vesicles and membranes of organelles, can be folded onto itself to allow endocytosis and exocytosis

A

Self-assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Methods of transport across the membrane:

random mixing due to kinetic energy of molecules/ions

A

Diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Methods of transport across the membrane:

diffusion of water across a membrane

A

Osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Methods of transport across the membrane:

ATP adds energy to move the molecules / ions

A

Active Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Methods of transport across the membrane:

membrane encloses around something outside the cell

A

Endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Methods of transport across the membrane:

specific case endocytosis, membrane encloses around food, “cell eating”

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Methods of transport across the membrane:

specific case of endocytosis, membrane encloses around water, “cell drinking”

A

Pinocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Methods of transport across the membrane:

membrane releases something to the outside of the cell

A

Exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Role of semipermeable membranes in cellular communication:

signal “same” or “intruder”, accept hormone signals

A

Surface proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Role of semipermeable membranes in cellular communication:

offer sites for cells to share materials

A

Junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Role of semipermeable membranes in cellular communication:

space between nerve cells and neuromuscular junctions

A

Synapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Role of semipermeable membranes in cellular communication:

fine strands of cytoplasm extending through pores in cell walls of plants

A

Plasmodesmata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What completes the synthesis of proteins?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What packs the proteins and tags them to go to other parts of the cell, organ or organism?

A

Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Role of chloroplasts in obtaining and storing usable energy:

uses light energy to convert ADP + P to ATP

A

Photophosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Location of the Krebs cycle

A

Mitochondrial matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where phosphorylation takes place - yielding large amounts of ATP

A

Mitochondrial cristae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What increases the rate of exergonic reactions by lowering activation energy?

A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Factors that affect enzyme activity:

the complexity of the enzyme and substrate, and the specificity of the binding site, will affect how well the enzyme binds with the substrate and/or similar substrates

A

Levels of protein organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Factors that affect enzyme activity:

_____ denatures proteins and causes enzymes to lose their shape. _____ slows the kinetic activity of the molecules decreasing the likelihood of them coming in contact.

A

Heat / Cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Factors that affect enzyme activity:

Salts can affect the same of the enzyme because of the positive and negative charges.

A

Ionic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Factors that affect enzyme activity:

____________ of enzyme and substrate - one or the other becomes a limiting factor.

A

Concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Factors that affect enzyme activity:

Extremes in ____ and ____ denature the enzyme

A

pH - acid / base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Metabolism of macromolecules:

Macromolecules are broken down to monomers as in cellular respiration.

A

Catabolic pathways

There is a decrease in free energy because the stored energy in the large molecule is released and is no longer available to do work.

The reaction is exergonic because energy is released when the bonds that hold the molecule together are broken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Metabolism of macromolecules:

Monomers are joined together to make macromolecules as in photosynthesis.

A

Anabolic pathways

There is an increase in free energy because energy is stored in the bonds used to make the macromolecule and becomes available to do work.

The reaction is endergonic because energy is stored when bonds are formed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

_________ blood from the body returns to the heart through veins and is then pumped to the lungs where oxygen is exchanaged for carbon dioxide in the capillary beds of the alveoli.

A

Deoxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_________ blood is pumped back to the hear (from the alveoli) and out to the body to supply oxygen to the tissues.

A

Oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Food is chewed by teeth and swallowed with saliva into the esophagus.

A

Bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The stomach adds acid and churns the food until it is liquefied.

A

Chime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Some digestive enzymes are added in the mouth and the stomach, but the majority of the enzymes necessary for chemical digestion are excreted in the _________.

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fully digested particles are absorbed through the wall of the small intestine into ____________.

A

The capillary beds surrounding them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The blood stream carries the __________, ___________, and __________ to the cells of the body.

A

lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Nitrogenous waste from the breakdown of proteins is released by the cells into the blood stream.

A

Waste removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

__________ are sent from a nerve receptor into the spinal cord and brain.

A

Afferent signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

__________ are sent from the brain to the peripheral body.

A

Efferent signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Internal environment:

sense pressure

A

Baroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Internal environment:

sense chemical concentrations, acid/base, hormones

A

Chemoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Internal environment:

sense temperature

A

Thermoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Internal environment:

sense touch pressure, sstretching, sound waves, motion

A

Mechanoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

External environment receptors

A

Mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors and sense organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Self-regulated, independent of external environment, internal environment maintained within certain parameters

A

Homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What maintains the water and mineral balance in the body?

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What maintains the fluid pressure and oxygen concentration in the body?

A

Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What collects information from all the internal and external sensors, monitors the information and sends messages to the other system to collaborate body functions?

A

Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What supports and protects the internal organs, moves the body in conjunction with muscles and are connected at the joints by ligaments?

A

Bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What lies between bones to cushion joints?

A

Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are connected to bones by tendons?

A

Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sliding of ______ and _______ in myofibrils cause contraction of muscle fibers that together form a contraction in a muscle.

A

Myosin / actin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Physiology of the Immune System:

protection by skin, mucous membranes, tears, saliva, inflammation, histamine response, complement system

A

Non-specific Responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Physiology of the Immune System:

Humoral response and Cell-mediated response

A

Specific Responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Antibodies bind to antigen and trigger a response to it.

A

Antibody-mediated response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

They activate helper T cells.

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Cause plasma B cells to produce antibodies

A

Antibody-mediated response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Cause memory B cells to be produced so that the reaction time will be reduced the next time that specific antigen is encountered.

A

Antibody-mediated response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

T-Cells that display the antigen and trigger a response to it

A

Cell-mediated response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Vaccination relies on the production of ____________.

A

Memory B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The individual receiving the vaccination must have _________ or no antibodies will be made, or the vaccine may make them contract the disease.

A

functional immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The vaccine must have enough DNA from the _________ to trigger an antibody response, but not so much as to initiate the disease process.

A

Pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The vaccine may need to be administered in doses to assure the ________ level in the blood stream reaches a therapeutic level.

A

Antibody

73
Q

(Vaccination) The individual may need _________ to maintain a therapeutic level of memory B cells.

A

Boosters

74
Q

Chemotherapy targets rapidly reproducing cells, so it kills cancer cells as well as also killing ___________. For this reason, chemotherapy patients also are vulnerable to infections.

A

White blood cells

75
Q

DNA -> _______ -> _________

A

RNA / Protein

76
Q

Chromosome structure:

All the genes that are part of an organisms’ genotype are made up of ___________

A

sequences of DNA bases

77
Q

Chromosome structure:

Sequences that code for each trait can be found on a specific location on a specific ___________.

A

Chromosome

78
Q

Chromosome structure:

The double stranded DNA is twisted around ___________ (proteins) to form chromosomes during mitosis or meiosis.

A

Histones

79
Q

Chromosome structure:

When the cell is not dividing, the DNA remains unwound in the ___________.

A

Nucleus

80
Q

Chromosome structure:

What was the purpose of the Human Genome Project?

A

To determine the exact location of every human trait on chromosomes and create a gene map

81
Q

How does meiosis promote variation?

A

Through crossing over and segregation of chromosomes

82
Q

How does fertilization promote variation?

A

By bringing together gametes from diverse individuals with different alleles

83
Q

_____________ during meiosis can cause aneuploidy (wrong number of chromosomes). The most common example is trisomy 21 or Down Syndrome.

A

Non-disjunction of chromosomes

84
Q

Any change in the chromosome can change the DNA base sequence and thereby the _____________. These changes can result in a different phenotype if they change the amino acid sequence of the protein that is being coded.

A

RNA base sequence

85
Q

A trait that is not on the X or Y chromosome; this is the assumed case unless otherwise stated.

A

Autosomal

86
Q

Traits that are physically located near each other on the chromosome and tend to be inherited together because they cross over together

A

Linked

87
Q

Traits that are on the X or Y chromosome.

A

Sex-linked

88
Q

If a trait is X linked, _________ may have the trait or be carriers for the trait.

A

Females

89
Q

If a trait is Y linked, only ________ will have the trait.

A

Males

90
Q

When a phenotype is seen in the homozygous and heterozygous cases (RR and Rr)

A

Dominant

91
Q

When a phenotype is seen only in the homozygous case (rr)

A

Recessive

92
Q

When a mix of dominant phenotypes is seen.

A

Codominance

93
Q

A graphic method to determine the probable distribution of alleles in the offspring of two parents

A

Punnet Square

94
Q

Which Mendel’s Law?

Genetic: Homozygous dominant (RR) or recessive (rr) or Heterozygous (Rr)

Cellular: Proteins for both alleles are produced, but the presence of one may mask the appearance of the other.

A

Law of Dominance

95
Q

Which Mendel’s Law?

Genetic: One allele is inherited from each parent. Sperm and egg each will have only one allele for a trait.

Cellular: The gametes are unique.

A

Law of Segregation

96
Q

Which Mendel’s Law?

Genetic: Unless there is gene linkage or sex linkage, traits are independent of each other and have no influence on the probability of any other trait being inherited.

Cellular: Mendel was able to see dihybrid traits, so he assumed the traits were independent.

A

Law of Independent Assortment

97
Q

Because of crossing over, and then the two cell divisions in meiosis, there is a ____________ chance that a particular allele will end up in a particular gamete.

A

One in 4

98
Q

Genes have ___________ to turn them on or off.

A

Operons

99
Q

Genes that are lethal are almost always

A. Dominant
B. Recessive

A

B. Recessive

100
Q

____________ are a good way to diagram the existence of traits in families.

A

Pedigrees

101
Q

Mutations:

When one location on the DNA or RNA strand is wrong

A

Point mutations

102
Q

Mutations:

When an extra base is added

A

Additions

103
Q

Mutations:

When a base is missing

A

Deletions

104
Q

Mutations:

When the three codon-reading frame has moved back or forward

A

Frameshift

105
Q

Mutations:

Where a mutation causes the transcription to not start or not stop

A

In start and stop codon

106
Q

Mutations:

May cause a synthesis problem if a different amino acid is coded

A

Between start-and stop-codon

107
Q

Mutations:

When there are more codes for one amino acid

A

Redundancy

108
Q

After ____________ the messenger RNA is cut and spliced.

A

Transcription

109
Q

What is used to make insulin and other proteins, as well as producing crops that are more resilient to parasites, have more nutrition, and are more cosmetically pleasing?

A

Genetic engineering

110
Q

Construction of recombinant DNA molecules by basic DNA technology:

Enzyme cuts DNA near certain desired sequences.

A

Restriction digestion by endonucleases

111
Q

Construction of recombinant DNA molecules by basic DNA technology:

Uses electrical charge to separate DNA segments by size.

A

Gel electrophoresis

112
Q

Construction of recombinant DNA molecules by basic DNA technology:

DNA ligase helps stick two pieces of DNA together.

A

Ligation

113
Q

Construction of recombinant DNA molecules by basic DNA technology:

New DNA is combined with a host cell to form a changed cell.

A

Transformation

114
Q

Construction of recombinant DNA molecules by basic DNA technology:

Steps for recombination/gene splicing:

A
  1. Restriction enzyme cuts DNA.
  2. Foreign DNA is added.
  3. DNA ligase “glues” the new DNA to the Original
115
Q

Bioethics:

Changing DNA to accomplish a desired phenotype, protein secretion, or other function

A

Genetic engineering

116
Q

Bioethics:

Making copies of DNA to accomplish reproduction without meiosis or fertilization.

A

Cloning

117
Q

Bioethics:

Mapped the loci of all human genes.

A

The human genome project

118
Q

Bioethics:

Putting cloned healthy genes into cells of diseased individuals to attempt to remedy the genetic disorder.

A

Gene therapy

119
Q

Bioethics:

Life expectancy and quality of life weighed against overpopulation and cost considerations.

A

Medical implications

120
Q

The physical traits of an organism determines its _________ for an environment.

A

fitness

121
Q

______________ favors fitness; therefore, _____________ acts on phenotype rather than genotype.

A

Natural selection / natural selection

122
Q

The more ___________ a group of organisms, the more likely they will be to survive.

A

diverse

123
Q

How are fossils made?

A

Organisms die in sand or water and are covered by silt. Over time the minerals from the surroundings harden in the organism and preserve it as rock. Organisms can also leave an impression in the silt.

124
Q

What makes a good, findable fossil?

A

Many of the same organisms;dense material such as bone or shells; buried in a location that we are likely to unearth.

125
Q

The variety of life on Earth across all of the different levels of biological organization - (small scale): the variety in the genetic make-up of a sepcies - (large scale): the variety of ecosystem types - the amount of animal and plant life in a particular habitat

A

Biological diversity - or Biodiversity

126
Q

Periods of tremendous evolution followed by periods of relative calm

A

Episodic speciation

127
Q

Periods in the fossil record that show an event that caused a large loss of life

A

Mass extinction

128
Q

Frequency of an allele in a population can be increased or decreased by chance.

A

Genetic drift

129
Q

Two members of different species and genealogies look alike or have analogous structures.

A

Convergent evolution

130
Q

Periods of calm followed by periods of intense evolution

A

Punctuated equilibrium

131
Q

Patterns of selection:

Selection favors the extremes (i.e. breeding of greyhounds for speed)

A

Directional

132
Q

Patterns of selection:

The environment is disrupted and as a result favors the extremes.

A

Disruptive

133
Q

Patterns of selection:

Favors the norm; the common trait; survival of the fittest in an unchanging environment.

A

Stabilizing

134
Q

Patterns of selection:

According to this hypothesis, most of the changes in DNA inside individuals are the result of ‘genetic drift’ - random changes that go on all the time and are not steered by natural selection in one direction or another. Those who support this explanation say that most genetic changes are neither helpful nor harmful; yet, genetic changes may become common in a population (or disappear entirely) due to chance events. Therefore, random processes explain most of evolution at the molecular level.

A

Neutral Evolution

135
Q

Five Necessary Conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

A
  1. Large population, more than 10,000 individuals
  2. No net changes due to mutation
  3. Isolated population; no migration
  4. Random mate selection
  5. All genotypes have an equal chance of success.
136
Q

Why are the necessary conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium unlikely to appear in nature?

A 
Not many populations are:
> Big
> Isolated
> Mate randomly
> Do not mutate and have no regard for survival of the fittest
137
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation:

A

p>2 + 2pq + q>2 = 1
p + q = 1

Where p = dominant allele, q = recessive allele, 2pq = heterozygous

138
Q

There is a group of sheep in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Ninety-one (91%) are white and 9% are black. Black color is a non-harmful autosomal variation. What percent of the while sheep are heterozygous?

A

42%

139
Q

Something an individual can do in its lifetime to encourage its own survival, but the change does not affect the DNA that would be passed on to its offspring.

A

Accommodation

140
Q

A gradual, multigenerational change to become more successful as a species.

A

Adaptation

141
Q

The situation where organisms are separated by a physical barrier such as an island.

A

Geographic isolation

142
Q

If a population is small, there may not be much diversity, so the organisms have almost identical DNA after several generations.

A

Founder effect

143
Q

If a population remains ___________, the organisms will evolve together with no outsiders to stabilize the gene pool.

A

isolated

144
Q

The situation where organisms have a preference for certain mating traits, have different mating seasons, or are physically not compatible.

A

Reproductive isolation

145
Q

A model for the evolution of the universe that holds that all matter and energy in the universe were concentrated in one point, which suddenly exploded. Subsequently, matter condensed to form atoms, elements, and eventually galaxies and stars.

A

Big Bang Theory

146
Q

Evolution of Life - 10 Steps

A
  1. Early Earth was hot; atmosphere contained poisonous gases; no O2.
  2. Earth cooled and oceans condensed.
  3. Simple organic molecules may have formed in the oceans.
  4. Small sequences of RNA may have formed and replicated.
  5. First prokaryotes may have formed when RNA or DNA was enclosed in microspheres.
  6. Later prokaryotes were photosynthetic and produced oxygen.
  7. An oxygenated atmosphere capped by the ozone layer protected Earth.
  8. First eukaryotes may have been communities of prokaryotes.
  9. Multi-cellular eukaryotes evolved.
  10. Sexual reproduction increased genetic variability, hastening evolution.
147
Q

The body of unique living organisms

A

Biodiversity

148
Q

Describe the effects on biodiversity of alteration of habitat.

A

If the alteration makes more competition expect to see biodiversity decrease as species become extinct or emigrate. If the alteration opens niches you will expect to see more biodiversity as new species move in.

149
Q

It is very important for the producers in an ecosystem to be __________.

A

stable

150
Q

What would happen if producers die off?

A

The entire ecosystem would collapse due to lack of food for the consumers.

151
Q

What are some consequences of consumers’ instability?

A

They could over-eat the producers and there would be a problem with some types of seed dispersal and pollination.

152
Q

What would happen if there were no decomposers?

A

There would be no way to remove carcasses and waste matter. Decomposers are essential to the nutrient cycles.

153
Q

What would happen if there are too many decomposers?

A

It could cause health problems for the producers and consumers because of infection and infestation of food supplies.

154
Q

Species interaction:

hunter / hunted

A

Preditor / prey

155
Q

Species interaction:

One organism benefits, and the other is harmed.

A

Parasitism

156
Q

Species interaction:

Both organisms benefit from the interaction.

A

Mutualism

157
Q

Species interaction:

One organism benefits, and the other is unaffected.

A

Commensalism

158
Q

Species interaction:

Two organisms struggling to use the same resources

A

Competition

159
Q

Fluctuations in population size in an ecosystem due to the relative rates of birth, immigration, emigration, and death:

Increased birth rate, decreased death rate and immigration:

A

Increase population size

160
Q

Fluctuations in population size in an ecosystem due to the relative rates of birth, immigration, emigration, and death:

Decreased birth rate, increased death rate and emigration:

A

Decrease population size

161
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Live in rapidly changing environments

A

R-Strategists

162
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Temporarily large populations

A

R-Strategists

163
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Short life span

A

R-Strategists

164
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Reproduce early in life

A

R-Strategists

165
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Have many offspring

A

R-Strategists

166
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Offer no parental care of offspring

A

R-Strategists

167
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Bacteria and insects

A

R-Strategists

168
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Slow growing

A

K-Strategists

169
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Small populations

A

K-Strategists

170
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Long life span

A

K-Strategists

171
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Few young

A

K-Strategists

172
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Slow maturing

A

K-Strategists

173
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Extensive care of young

A

K-Strategists

174
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Population near carrying capacity

A

K-Strategists

175
Q

Reproductive Strategies Survivorship Models

R-Strategists or K-Strategists?

Humans, whales, elephants

A

K-Strategists

176
Q

Changes in an ecosystem resulting from changes in ____________:

Rain, temperature, wind or other weather conditions could cause changes in the ecosystem depending on how they affect the relative populations of producers, consumers and decomposers.

A

Climate

177
Q

Changes in an ecosystem resulting from changes in ____________:

Industrialization, pollution, arson and other types of habitat infringement cause decreased resources for the ecosystem and increased competition for the remaining organisms.

A

Human activity

178
Q

Changes in an ecosystem resulting from changes in ____________:

Nonnative species may not have natural prredators, or may be better adapted to the new environment. This fitness can cause native species to be pushed out in favor of the nonnative species, which can cause problems with the food web.

A

Introduction of nonnative species

179
Q

Changes in an ecosystem resulting from changes in ____________:

Can cause supply and demand problems for other members of the food web.

A

Changes in population size

Biology CSET (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions