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Biology CSET > Genetics: Chromosomes > Flashcards

Genetics: Chromosomes Flashcards

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1
Q

When a protein makes it easier for a biological reaction to happen, it is acting as:

A) an enzyme
B) a transporter
C) a structural protein
D) a messenger

A

A) an enzyme

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a function performed by proteins?

A) Regulation
B) Transportation
C) Respiration
D) Structural support

A

C) Respiration

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3
Q

Proteins in our cartilage, hair, and nails are:

A) transport proteins
B) structural proteins
C) regulatory proteins
D) storage proteins

A

B) structural proteins

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4
Q

What atoms are connected by a peptide bond?

A) side chain groups
B) carbonyl carbon and carbonyl oxygen
C) amine nitrogen and another amine nitrogen
D) carbonyl carbon and amine nitrogen

A

D) carbonyl carbon and amine nitrogen

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5
Q

Proteins are biological molecules made of?

a) amino acids
b) glycerol
c) nucleotides
d) sugars

A

a) amino acids

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6
Q

The following are consequences of meiotic recombination:

I. Increased genetic diversity
II. Exchange of parts of homologous chromosomes
III. Stabilization of chromosomes at the metaphase plate

a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I, II and III
d) I
e) I and III

A

c) I, II and III

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7
Q

If the cell of a diploid organism (2n = 6) undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes are present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I?

a) 18
b) 12
c) 3
d) 6
e) 24

A

c) 3

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8
Q

If the cell of a diploid organism (2n = 6) undergoes meiosis, how many chromosome are present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis II?

a) 6
b) 18
c) 12
d) 24
e) 3

A

e) 3

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a) Spindle microtubule tension on each tetrad is balanced at metaphase.
b) Kinetochore proteins assemble on chromosomes during prophase I.
c) Chromatids move toward the spindle poles during anaphase I.
d) Chromosome decondense during telophase I.
e) Centrosome duplication occurs during interphase.

A

c) Chromatids move toward the spindle poles during anaphase I.

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10
Q

A scientist is studying an organism with a mutation which reduces the efficiency of tetrad formation. This defect would most likely affect the ability to:

a) Breakdown the nuclear membrane
b) Duplicate centrosomes
c) Assemble spindle microtubules
d) Establish spindle poles
e) Align homologous chromosome at the metaphase plate

A

e) Align homologous chromosome at the metaphase

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11
Q

Crossing over occurs during which phase?

a) Prophase II
b) Prophase I
c) Interphase II
d) Prometaphase II
e) Interphase

A

b) Prophase I

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12
Q

Which of the following structures is unique to meiosis?

a) Spindle poles
b) Kinetochores
c) Tetrads
d) Centrosomes
e) Spindle microtubules

A

c) Tetrads

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13
Q

Sister chromatids segregate to opposite poles during which of the following types of cell division?

I. Mitosis
II. Meiosis I
III. Meiosis II

a) I and III d) I and II
b) I e) I, II and III
c) II and III

A

a) I and III

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14
Q

Chromatids can be found in which of the following types of cell division?

I. Mitosis
II. Meiosis I
III. Meiosis II

a) I and III d) I, II and III
b) II and III e) I
c) I and II

A

d) I, II and III

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15
Q

Replication precedes which of the following types of cell division?

I. Mitosis
II. Meiosis I
III. Meiosis II

a) I and II d) I, II and III
b) II and III e) I and III
c) I

A

a) I and II

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16
Q

Which of the following meiosis II events are correctly ordered?

a) Centrosome duplication, chromatid separation, chromosome condensation, telophase II
b) Replication, chromosome condensation, metaphase II, cytokinesis
c) Metaphase II, kinetochore assembly, anaphase II, cytokinesis
d) Prophase II, metaphase II, chromatid separation, chromosome decondensation
e) Tetrad formation, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II

A

d) Prophase II, metaphase II, chromatid separation, chromosome decondensation

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17
Q

Which of the following events occur during prophase II?

I. Kinetochores assemble on each tetrad
II. Chromosome condensation
III. Spindle apparatus assembly

a) I d) I and III
b) II and III e) I, II and III
c) I and II

A

b) II and III

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18
Q

Which of the following scientists are credited with discovering the structure of DNA?

a) James Watson and Francis Crick
b) Frederick Griffith and Francis Crick
c) Maurice Wilkins and Oswald Avery
d) Oswald Avery and James Watson
e) Frederick Griffith and Oswald Avery

A

a) James Watson and Francis Crick

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19
Q

The following concepts led to the hypothesis that DNA has a double helix structure:

I. The ratio of A:T is 1:1.
II. Deoxyribose is the sugar in DNA.
III. DNA strands are antiparallel

a) I, II and III
b) I and II
c) I and III
d) II and III
e) II

A

c) I and III

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Two of the answers are correct.
b) Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine.
c) Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with thymine.
d) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine.
e) Cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with adenine.

A

d) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the antiparallel nature of DNA?

a) DNA is composed of two strands.
b) The 5’ end of one DNA strand bonds with the 3’ end of a second strand.
c) DNA utilizes complementary base pairing.
d) DNA strands are parallel.
e) The backbone of a DNA molecule is composed of phosphate groups and sugars.

A

b) The 5’ end of one DNA strand bonds with the 3’ end of a second strand.

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22
Q

Which of the following bases are categorized as purines?

a) Thymine and adenine
b) Thymine, cytosine and uracil
c) Guanine and adenine
d) Guanine, adenine and uracil
e) Guanine and cytosine

A

c) Guanine and adenine

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23
Q

What type of bond holds DNA strands together?

a) Covalent
b) Hydrophobic
c) Hydrogen
d) Phosphodiester
e) Ionic

A

c) Hydrogen

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24
Q

A phosphodiester bond links:

a) A sugar to another sugar
b) A nitrogenous base and another nitrogenous base
c) A sugar and a nitrogenous base
d) A nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
e) A sugar and a phosphate group

A

e) A sugar and a phosphate group

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25
Q

Which of the following can be found in a DNA molecule?

a) No answers are correct
b) Sugar
c) Fatty acid
d) Two answers are correct
e) Phosphate

A

d) Two answers are correct

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26
Q

Which of the following forms the backbone of a DNA molecule?

a) Deoxyribose and a phosphate group
b) Deoxyribose only
c) Deoxyribose and ribose
d) Deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base
e) Ribose and a nitrogenous base

A

a) Deoxyribose and a phosphate group

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27
Q

A nucleic acid monomer is called:

a) A nucleosome
b) A nucleoside
c) Ribose
d) A nucleotide
e) Deoxyribose

A

d) A nucleotide

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28
Q

Which of the following is a primary function of a nucleic acid?

I. Structural support
II. Storage of information
III. Energy storage

a) I and II d) II
b) II and III e) I and III
c) III

A

d) II

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29
Q

The process in which the duplicated DNA of a diploid cell is separated into identical daughter cells is called:

a) Mitosis
b) Prometaphase
c) Prophase
d) Meiosis
e) Metaphase

A

a) Mitosis

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30
Q

A picture in which all of the homologous chromosomes of an organism have been stained and organized is called a(n):

a) Ultrasound
b) Karyotype
c) Karyogram
d) Karyopic
e) Chromosomal panel

A

c) Karyogram

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31
Q

Which is the organelle that helps with the assembly of polypeptides?

a) nucleus
b) ribosome
c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) cytoplasm
e) lysozome

A

b) ribosome

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32
Q

In which step do the tRNA and mRNA first join up in the ribosome?

a) Elongation
b) Initiation
c) Transcription
d) Translation
e) Termination

A

b) Initiation

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33
Q

In which step does the ribosome reach a stop codon and end the process of translation?

a) Elongation
b) Initiation
c) Termination
d) Transcription
e) Translation

A

c) Termination

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34
Q

In which step does the polypeptide continue to grow as amino acids are added to the chain?

a) Translation
b) Elongation
c) Termination
d) Initiation
e) Transcription

A

b) Elongation

35
Q

Which type of codon signals the termination of polypeptide synthesis?

a) a stop codon
b) a methionine codon
c) None; codons do not signal termination.
d) a start codon
e) an anticodon

A

a) a stop codon

36
Q

In which phase of transcription does the RNA polymerase attach to the promoter sequence of DNA?

a) Promotion
b) Replication
c) Initiation
d) Elongation
e) Termination

A

c) Initiation

37
Q

What does the ‘m’ stand for in ‘mRNA’?

a) monomer
b) mitochondria
c) mononucleosis
d) messenger
e) molecule

A

d) messenger

38
Q

Where in the cell does transcription occur?

a) in the nucleus
b) transcription occurs outside of the cell
c) in the plasma membrane
d) in the ribosome
e) in the cytoplasm

A

a) in the nucleus

39
Q

Which of the following is the enzyme that adds RNA nucleotides to build the antisense strand?

a) RNA polymerase
b) RNA primase
c) DNA primase
d) DNA helicase
e) DNA polymerase

A

a) RNA polymerase

40
Q

Which is the strand that serves as the template for transcription?

a) the helical strand
b) the sense strand
c) the daughter strand
d) the parent strand
e) the antisense strand

A

b) the sense strand

41
Q

Which structure is responsible for making spores through meiosis?

a) Gametophyte
b) Gametes
c) Zygote
d) Gametangium
e) Sporophyte

A

e) Sporophyte

42
Q

Which correctly pairs the chromosome number term with the correct abbreviation?

a) Diploid - - - n
b) Triploid - - - n
c) Triploid - - - 2n
d) Haploid - - - 2n
e) Diploid - - - 2n

A

e) Diploid - - - 2n

43
Q

Which term best describes the multicellular haploid stage of the plant life cycle?

a) Sporophyte
b) Gametophyte
c) Zygote
d) Gamete
e) Spore

A

b) Gametophyte

44
Q

Spores go through what process in order to create new, identical cells in order to become the gametophyte?

a) Mitosis
b) Apoptosis
c) Fertilization
d) Sexual reproduction
e) Meiosis

A

a) Mitosis

45
Q

Which structure is correctly matched with its chromosome number?

a) Spore - - - Diploid
b) Gamete - - - Diploid
c) Zygote - - - Haploid
d) Gametophyte - - - Haploid
e) Sporophyte - - - Haploid

A

d) Gametophyte - - - Haploid

46
Q

Which word part is used to designate that a molecule is an enzyme?

a) The suffix ‘-amine’
b) The prefix ‘DNA’
c) The suffix ‘-ase’
d) The suffix ‘-nucleic’
e) The root ‘polymer’

A

c) The suffix ‘-ase’

47
Q

What are the small components (monomers) that make up the large DNA polymer?

a) Cytosine
b) Nucleosomes
c) Nucleic Acids
d) Nucleotides
e) Guanine

A

d) Nucleotides

48
Q

Which is the enzyme that attaches daughter nucleotides to the parent strand during DNA replication?

a) DNA Primase
b) DNA Polymerase
c) RNA Polymerase
d) RNA Primase
e) DNA Helicase

A

b) DNA Polymerase

49
Q

What happens to the RNA primer once DNA replication is begun by DNA polymerase?

a) The primer’s length is tripled.
b) The primer becomes part of the daughter strand.
c) The primer is removed.
d) The primer’s length is doubled.
e) The primer becomes an enzyme.

A

c) The primer is removed.

50
Q

Which is the enzyme that builds the RNA primer?

a) RNA Primase
b) DNA Primase
c) DNA Polymerase
d) RNA Polymerase
e) DNA Helicase

A

a) RNA Primase

51
Q

What is the purpose of the RNA primer?

a) To build the daughter strand of DNA.
b) To build the enzyme RNA primase.
c) To initiate the process of DNA replication.
d) To terminate the process of DNA replication.
e) To unwind the DNA double helix.

A

c) To initiate the process of DNA replication.

52
Q

Which of the following are pyrimidines that can be found in RNA?

a) Cytosine and thymine
b) Adenine and thymine
c) Cytosine and uracil
d) Adenine and uracil
e) Guanine and uracil

A

c) Cytosine and uracil

53
Q

Which of the following are reasons why RNA is generally less stable than DNA?

I. Fewer hydrogen bonds
II. Prevalence of proteins that can degrade RNA
III. Fewer -OH groups in the sugar

a) I and III
b) None of the answers are correct.
c) II and III
d) I and II
e) I, II and III

A

d) I and II

54
Q

Which of the following are ways in which RNA is different from DNA:

I. Single-stranded
II. Ribose
III. Number of nitrogenous bases

a) I, II and III
b) I and II
c) II and III
d) I and III
e) None of the answers are correct.

A

b) I and II

55
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Two of the statements are true.
b) Hydrogen bonds can form between bases in a single RNA molecule.
c) cRNA is the copy created when DNA is transcribed into RNA.
d) The Central Dogma states that DNA is the most important nucleic acid.
e) tRNA transfers proteins to the cell membrane.

A

b) Hydrogen bonds can form between bases in a single RNA molecule.

56
Q

How many natural amino acids are there?

a) 4
b) 20
c) 22
d) 9

A

b) 20

57
Q

Which amino acid has no side chain?

a) proline
b) glycine
c) alanine
d) lysine

A

b) glycine

58
Q

Which amino acid is involved in formation of disulfide bonds?

a) glycine
b) proline
c) cysteine
d) lysine

A

c) cysteine

59
Q

Which category of amino acids cannot participate in hydrogen bonding with its side chain?

a) negative
b) polar
c) non-polar
d) positive

A

c) non-polar

60
Q

Which of the following makes proline a ‘special’ amino acid?

a) It forms disulfide bonds
b) Its side chain is bonded to the amine Nitrogen
c) It has a polar side chain
d) It has no side chain

A

b) Its side chain is bonded to the amine Nitrogen

61
Q

What does N-terminus refer to?

a) The first amino acid with the abbreviation ‘N’ in the protein
b) The end of a protein with a free amine group
c) The end of a protein with a free carboxylic acid group
d) A train station

A

c) The end of a protein with a free carboxylic acid group

62
Q

A peptide bond is the linkage between:

a) The carboxylic acid oxygen of an amino acid and the carbon next to the amine of another amino acid
b) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the nitrogen of the amine of another amino acid
c) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the nitrogen of the amine of that amino acid
d) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the carbon next to the amine of another amino acid

A

b) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the nitrogen of the amine of another amino acid

63
Q

Which of the following reactions forms peptide bonds?

a) Hydrogenation
b) Hydration
c) None of these answers
d) Dehydration

A

d) Dehydration

64
Q

What are the monomer units in protein polymers?

a) Nucleic acids
b) Fats
c) Sugars
d) Amino acids

A

d) Amino acids

65
Q

True or false: Amino acids come together on their own to form peptides and proteins.

False
True

A

False

66
Q

True or false: the tertiary structure of a protein could be the same as its quaternary structure.

False
True

A

True

67
Q

Which of the following secondary structures is not held together by hydrogen bonds?

a) alpha helix
b) super helix
c) beta sheet
d) random coil

A

d) random coil

68
Q

Which of the following is the breakdown of protein secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure?

a) Carboxylation
b) Denaturation
c) Deamination
d) Dehydrogenation

A

b) Denaturation

69
Q

Which of the following are involved in the 3-D structure of proteins?

a) hydrogen bonding
b) covalent bonds
c) hydrophobic interactions
d) all of these

A

d) all of these

70
Q

Which structure represents only the order of amino acids in a protein?

a) tertiary
b) primary
c) secondary
d) quaternary

A

b) primary

71
Q

Which macromolecule would likely contain nitrogen?

a) Phospholipids
b) Carbon
c) Glucose
d) Carbohydrates
e) Amino acids

A

e) Amino acids

72
Q

Which of the following best describes carbohydrates?

a) They are composed of hydrated carbon atoms
b) They are the building blocks of nucleic acids
c) They are the major component in the cell membrane
d) They are the building blocks of proteins
e) They are composed of long hydrophobic chains

A

a) They are composed of hydrated carbon atoms

73
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the elements found in all four macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids)?

a) Hydrogen
b) They are all found in all macromolecules
c) Carbon
d) Phosphorous
e) Oxygen

A

d) Phosphorous

74
Q

Which macromolecule would likely contain selenium?

a) Phospholipid
b) Lipids
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrates
e) Nucleic acids

A

c) Protein

75
Q

Which macromolecule would likely contain sulfur?

a) Nucleic acids
b) Carbohydrates
c) Glucose
d) Lipids
e) Proteins

A

e) Proteins

76
Q

If a human has forty-six chromosomes, what is the maximum number of chromatids that could be found in a cell in a normal human body?

a) 92
b) 46
c) 23
d) 12
e) 4

A

a) 92

77
Q

If a human has forty-six chromosomes, what is the maximum number of chromatids for chromosome two that could be found in a cell in a normal human body?

a) 23
b) 46
c) 92
d) 4
e) 2

A

d) 4

78
Q

Which of the following are primary functions of the centromere?

I. Hold sister chromatids together
II. Protect chromosomes
III. Repair DNA damage

a) II
b) III
c) I
d) I and II
e) II and III

A

c) I

79
Q

Loss of one of the telomeres of a chromosome could result in which of the following:

I. Chromosome shortening
II. Loss of genomic information
III. An increase in chromosome number

a) I
b) I and II
c) III
d) II
e) I, II and III

A

b) I and II

80
Q

Which of the following roles in the cell could non-coding DNA perform?

I. Provide structural support at the end of chromosomes.
II. Encode a protein that will play a significant role in cell division.
III. Serve functional purposes.

a) II
b) I and II
c) III
d) I
e) I and III

A

e) I and III

81
Q

Place the following terms in order of increasing complexity within the cell:

I. Genome
II. DNA
III. chromatin
IV. nucleosome

a) IV, III, II, I
b) II, III, IV, I
c) II, I, IV, III
d) III, IV, II, I
e) II, IV, III, I

A

e) II, IV, III, I

82
Q

A discrete unit of DNA that produces a protein that provides the functionality a cell needs is

a) genome
b) chromatin
c) histone
d) karyotype
e) gene

A

e) gene

83
Q

A protein that plays a central role in DNA folding

a) nucleosome
b) karyotype
c) histone
d) gene
e) chromatin

A

c) histone

Biology CSET (11 decks)

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