Genetics: Chromosomes Flashcards

1
Q

When a protein makes it easier for a biological reaction to happen, it is acting as:

A) an enzyme
B) a transporter
C) a structural protein
D) a messenger

A

A) an enzyme

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a function performed by proteins?

A) Regulation
B) Transportation
C) Respiration
D) Structural support

A

C) Respiration

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3
Q

Proteins in our cartilage, hair, and nails are:

A) transport proteins
B) structural proteins
C) regulatory proteins
D) storage proteins

A

B) structural proteins

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4
Q

What atoms are connected by a peptide bond?

A) side chain groups
B) carbonyl carbon and carbonyl oxygen
C) amine nitrogen and another amine nitrogen
D) carbonyl carbon and amine nitrogen

A

D) carbonyl carbon and amine nitrogen

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5
Q

Proteins are biological molecules made of?

a) amino acids
b) glycerol
c) nucleotides
d) sugars

A

a) amino acids

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6
Q

The following are consequences of meiotic recombination:

I. Increased genetic diversity
II. Exchange of parts of homologous chromosomes
III. Stabilization of chromosomes at the metaphase plate

a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I, II and III
d) I
e) I and III

A

c) I, II and III

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7
Q

If the cell of a diploid organism (2n = 6) undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes are present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I?

a) 18
b) 12
c) 3
d) 6
e) 24

A

c) 3

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8
Q

If the cell of a diploid organism (2n = 6) undergoes meiosis, how many chromosome are present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis II?

a) 6
b) 18
c) 12
d) 24
e) 3

A

e) 3

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a) Spindle microtubule tension on each tetrad is balanced at metaphase.
b) Kinetochore proteins assemble on chromosomes during prophase I.
c) Chromatids move toward the spindle poles during anaphase I.
d) Chromosome decondense during telophase I.
e) Centrosome duplication occurs during interphase.

A

c) Chromatids move toward the spindle poles during anaphase I.

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10
Q

A scientist is studying an organism with a mutation which reduces the efficiency of tetrad formation. This defect would most likely affect the ability to:

a) Breakdown the nuclear membrane
b) Duplicate centrosomes
c) Assemble spindle microtubules
d) Establish spindle poles
e) Align homologous chromosome at the metaphase plate

A

e) Align homologous chromosome at the metaphase

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11
Q

Crossing over occurs during which phase?

a) Prophase II
b) Prophase I
c) Interphase II
d) Prometaphase II
e) Interphase

A

b) Prophase I

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12
Q

Which of the following structures is unique to meiosis?

a) Spindle poles
b) Kinetochores
c) Tetrads
d) Centrosomes
e) Spindle microtubules

A

c) Tetrads

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13
Q

Sister chromatids segregate to opposite poles during which of the following types of cell division?

I. Mitosis
II. Meiosis I
III. Meiosis II

a) I and III d) I and II
b) I e) I, II and III
c) II and III

A

a) I and III

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14
Q

Chromatids can be found in which of the following types of cell division?

I. Mitosis
II. Meiosis I
III. Meiosis II

a) I and III d) I, II and III
b) II and III e) I
c) I and II

A

d) I, II and III

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15
Q

Replication precedes which of the following types of cell division?

I. Mitosis
II. Meiosis I
III. Meiosis II

a) I and II d) I, II and III
b) II and III e) I and III
c) I

A

a) I and II

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16
Q

Which of the following meiosis II events are correctly ordered?

a) Centrosome duplication, chromatid separation, chromosome condensation, telophase II
b) Replication, chromosome condensation, metaphase II, cytokinesis
c) Metaphase II, kinetochore assembly, anaphase II, cytokinesis
d) Prophase II, metaphase II, chromatid separation, chromosome decondensation
e) Tetrad formation, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II

A

d) Prophase II, metaphase II, chromatid separation, chromosome decondensation

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17
Q

Which of the following events occur during prophase II?

I. Kinetochores assemble on each tetrad
II. Chromosome condensation
III. Spindle apparatus assembly

a) I d) I and III
b) II and III e) I, II and III
c) I and II

A

b) II and III

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18
Q

Which of the following scientists are credited with discovering the structure of DNA?

a) James Watson and Francis Crick
b) Frederick Griffith and Francis Crick
c) Maurice Wilkins and Oswald Avery
d) Oswald Avery and James Watson
e) Frederick Griffith and Oswald Avery

A

a) James Watson and Francis Crick

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19
Q

The following concepts led to the hypothesis that DNA has a double helix structure:

I. The ratio of A:T is 1:1.
II. Deoxyribose is the sugar in DNA.
III. DNA strands are antiparallel

a) I, II and III
b) I and II
c) I and III
d) II and III
e) II

A

c) I and III

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Two of the answers are correct.
b) Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine.
c) Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with thymine.
d) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine.
e) Cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with adenine.

A

d) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the antiparallel nature of DNA?

a) DNA is composed of two strands.
b) The 5’ end of one DNA strand bonds with the 3’ end of a second strand.
c) DNA utilizes complementary base pairing.
d) DNA strands are parallel.
e) The backbone of a DNA molecule is composed of phosphate groups and sugars.

A

b) The 5’ end of one DNA strand bonds with the 3’ end of a second strand.

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22
Q

Which of the following bases are categorized as purines?

a) Thymine and adenine
b) Thymine, cytosine and uracil
c) Guanine and adenine
d) Guanine, adenine and uracil
e) Guanine and cytosine

A

c) Guanine and adenine

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23
Q

What type of bond holds DNA strands together?

a) Covalent
b) Hydrophobic
c) Hydrogen
d) Phosphodiester
e) Ionic

A

c) Hydrogen

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24
Q

A phosphodiester bond links:

a) A sugar to another sugar
b) A nitrogenous base and another nitrogenous base
c) A sugar and a nitrogenous base
d) A nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
e) A sugar and a phosphate group

A

e) A sugar and a phosphate group

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25
Which of the following can be found in a DNA molecule? a) No answers are correct b) Sugar c) Fatty acid d) Two answers are correct e) Phosphate
d) Two answers are correct
26
Which of the following forms the backbone of a DNA molecule? a) Deoxyribose and a phosphate group b) Deoxyribose only c) Deoxyribose and ribose d) Deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base e) Ribose and a nitrogenous base
a) Deoxyribose and a phosphate group
27
A nucleic acid monomer is called: a) A nucleosome b) A nucleoside c) Ribose d) A nucleotide e) Deoxyribose
d) A nucleotide
28
Which of the following is a primary function of a nucleic acid? I. Structural support II. Storage of information III. Energy storage a) I and II d) II b) II and III e) I and III c) III
d) II
29
The process in which the duplicated DNA of a diploid cell is separated into identical daughter cells is called: a) Mitosis b) Prometaphase c) Prophase d) Meiosis e) Metaphase
a) Mitosis
30
A picture in which all of the homologous chromosomes of an organism have been stained and organized is called a(n): a) Ultrasound b) Karyotype c) Karyogram d) Karyopic e) Chromosomal panel
c) Karyogram
31
Which is the organelle that helps with the assembly of polypeptides? a) nucleus b) ribosome c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) cytoplasm e) lysozome
b) ribosome
32
In which step do the tRNA and mRNA first join up in the ribosome? a) Elongation b) Initiation c) Transcription d) Translation e) Termination
b) Initiation
33
In which step does the ribosome reach a stop codon and end the process of translation? a) Elongation b) Initiation c) Termination d) Transcription e) Translation
c) Termination
34
In which step does the polypeptide continue to grow as amino acids are added to the chain? a) Translation b) Elongation c) Termination d) Initiation e) Transcription
b) Elongation
35
Which type of codon signals the termination of polypeptide synthesis? a) a stop codon b) a methionine codon c) None; codons do not signal termination. d) a start codon e) an anticodon
a) a stop codon
36
In which phase of transcription does the RNA polymerase attach to the promoter sequence of DNA? a) Promotion b) Replication c) Initiation d) Elongation e) Termination
c) Initiation
37
What does the 'm' stand for in 'mRNA'? a) monomer b) mitochondria c) mononucleosis d) messenger e) molecule
d) messenger
38
Where in the cell does transcription occur? a) in the nucleus b) transcription occurs outside of the cell c) in the plasma membrane d) in the ribosome e) in the cytoplasm
a) in the nucleus
39
Which of the following is the enzyme that adds RNA nucleotides to build the antisense strand? a) RNA polymerase b) RNA primase c) DNA primase d) DNA helicase e) DNA polymerase
a) RNA polymerase
40
Which is the strand that serves as the template for transcription? a) the helical strand b) the sense strand c) the daughter strand d) the parent strand e) the antisense strand
b) the sense strand
41
Which structure is responsible for making spores through meiosis? a) Gametophyte b) Gametes c) Zygote d) Gametangium e) Sporophyte
e) Sporophyte
42
Which correctly pairs the chromosome number term with the correct abbreviation? a) Diploid - - - n b) Triploid - - - n c) Triploid - - - 2n d) Haploid - - - 2n e) Diploid - - - 2n
e) Diploid - - - 2n
43
Which term best describes the multicellular haploid stage of the plant life cycle? a) Sporophyte b) Gametophyte c) Zygote d) Gamete e) Spore
b) Gametophyte
44
Spores go through what process in order to create new, identical cells in order to become the gametophyte? a) Mitosis b) Apoptosis c) Fertilization d) Sexual reproduction e) Meiosis
a) Mitosis
45
Which structure is correctly matched with its chromosome number? a) Spore - - - Diploid b) Gamete - - - Diploid c) Zygote - - - Haploid d) Gametophyte - - - Haploid e) Sporophyte - - - Haploid
d) Gametophyte - - - Haploid
46
Which word part is used to designate that a molecule is an enzyme? a) The suffix '-amine' b) The prefix 'DNA' c) The suffix '-ase' d) The suffix '-nucleic' e) The root 'polymer'
c) The suffix '-ase'
47
What are the small components (monomers) that make up the large DNA polymer? a) Cytosine b) Nucleosomes c) Nucleic Acids d) Nucleotides e) Guanine
d) Nucleotides
48
Which is the enzyme that attaches daughter nucleotides to the parent strand during DNA replication? a) DNA Primase b) DNA Polymerase c) RNA Polymerase d) RNA Primase e) DNA Helicase
b) DNA Polymerase
49
What happens to the RNA primer once DNA replication is begun by DNA polymerase? a) The primer's length is tripled. b) The primer becomes part of the daughter strand. c) The primer is removed. d) The primer's length is doubled. e) The primer becomes an enzyme.
c) The primer is removed.
50
Which is the enzyme that builds the RNA primer? a) RNA Primase b) DNA Primase c) DNA Polymerase d) RNA Polymerase e) DNA Helicase
a) RNA Primase
51
What is the purpose of the RNA primer? a) To build the daughter strand of DNA. b) To build the enzyme RNA primase. c) To initiate the process of DNA replication. d) To terminate the process of DNA replication. e) To unwind the DNA double helix.
c) To initiate the process of DNA replication.
52
Which of the following are pyrimidines that can be found in RNA? a) Cytosine and thymine b) Adenine and thymine c) Cytosine and uracil d) Adenine and uracil e) Guanine and uracil
c) Cytosine and uracil
53
Which of the following are reasons why RNA is generally less stable than DNA? I. Fewer hydrogen bonds II. Prevalence of proteins that can degrade RNA III. Fewer -OH groups in the sugar a) I and III b) None of the answers are correct. c) II and III d) I and II e) I, II and III
d) I and II
54
Which of the following are ways in which RNA is different from DNA: I. Single-stranded II. Ribose III. Number of nitrogenous bases a) I, II and III b) I and II c) II and III d) I and III e) None of the answers are correct.
b) I and II
55
Which of the following statements is true? a) Two of the statements are true. b) Hydrogen bonds can form between bases in a single RNA molecule. c) cRNA is the copy created when DNA is transcribed into RNA. d) The Central Dogma states that DNA is the most important nucleic acid. e) tRNA transfers proteins to the cell membrane.
b) Hydrogen bonds can form between bases in a single RNA molecule.
56
How many natural amino acids are there? a) 4 b) 20 c) 22 d) 9
b) 20
57
Which amino acid has no side chain? a) proline b) glycine c) alanine d) lysine
b) glycine
58
Which amino acid is involved in formation of disulfide bonds? a) glycine b) proline c) cysteine d) lysine
c) cysteine
59
Which category of amino acids cannot participate in hydrogen bonding with its side chain? a) negative b) polar c) non-polar d) positive
c) non-polar
60
Which of the following makes proline a 'special' amino acid? a) It forms disulfide bonds b) Its side chain is bonded to the amine Nitrogen c) It has a polar side chain d) It has no side chain
b) Its side chain is bonded to the amine Nitrogen
61
What does N-terminus refer to? a) The first amino acid with the abbreviation 'N' in the protein b) The end of a protein with a free amine group c) The end of a protein with a free carboxylic acid group d) A train station
c) The end of a protein with a free carboxylic acid group
62
A peptide bond is the linkage between: a) The carboxylic acid oxygen of an amino acid and the carbon next to the amine of another amino acid b) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the nitrogen of the amine of another amino acid c) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the nitrogen of the amine of that amino acid d) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the carbon next to the amine of another amino acid
b) The carbonyl carbon of an amino acid of a carboxylic acid and the nitrogen of the amine of another amino acid
63
Which of the following reactions forms peptide bonds? a) Hydrogenation b) Hydration c) None of these answers d) Dehydration
d) Dehydration
64
What are the monomer units in protein polymers? a) Nucleic acids b) Fats c) Sugars d) Amino acids
d) Amino acids
65
True or false: Amino acids come together on their own to form peptides and proteins. False True
False
66
True or false: the tertiary structure of a protein could be the same as its quaternary structure. False True
True
67
Which of the following secondary structures is not held together by hydrogen bonds? a) alpha helix b) super helix c) beta sheet d) random coil
d) random coil
68
Which of the following is the breakdown of protein secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure? a) Carboxylation b) Denaturation c) Deamination d) Dehydrogenation
b) Denaturation
69
Which of the following are involved in the 3-D structure of proteins? a) hydrogen bonding b) covalent bonds c) hydrophobic interactions d) all of these
d) all of these
70
Which structure represents only the order of amino acids in a protein? a) tertiary b) primary c) secondary d) quaternary
b) primary
71
Which macromolecule would likely contain nitrogen? a) Phospholipids b) Carbon c) Glucose d) Carbohydrates e) Amino acids
e) Amino acids
72
Which of the following best describes carbohydrates? a) They are composed of hydrated carbon atoms b) They are the building blocks of nucleic acids c) They are the major component in the cell membrane d) They are the building blocks of proteins e) They are composed of long hydrophobic chains
a) They are composed of hydrated carbon atoms
73
Which of the following is NOT one of the elements found in all four macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids)? a) Hydrogen b) They are all found in all macromolecules c) Carbon d) Phosphorous e) Oxygen
d) Phosphorous
74
Which macromolecule would likely contain selenium? a) Phospholipid b) Lipids c) Protein d) Carbohydrates e) Nucleic acids
c) Protein
75
Which macromolecule would likely contain sulfur? a) Nucleic acids b) Carbohydrates c) Glucose d) Lipids e) Proteins
e) Proteins
76
If a human has forty-six chromosomes, what is the maximum number of chromatids that could be found in a cell in a normal human body? a) 92 b) 46 c) 23 d) 12 e) 4
a) 92
77
If a human has forty-six chromosomes, what is the maximum number of chromatids for chromosome two that could be found in a cell in a normal human body? a) 23 b) 46 c) 92 d) 4 e) 2
d) 4
78
Which of the following are primary functions of the centromere? I. Hold sister chromatids together II. Protect chromosomes III. Repair DNA damage a) II b) III c) I d) I and II e) II and III
c) I
79
Loss of one of the telomeres of a chromosome could result in which of the following: I. Chromosome shortening II. Loss of genomic information III. An increase in chromosome number a) I b) I and II c) III d) II e) I, II and III
b) I and II
80
Which of the following roles in the cell could non-coding DNA perform? I. Provide structural support at the end of chromosomes. II. Encode a protein that will play a significant role in cell division. III. Serve functional purposes. a) II b) I and II c) III d) I e) I and III
e) I and III
81
Place the following terms in order of increasing complexity within the cell: I. Genome II. DNA III. chromatin IV. nucleosome a) IV, III, II, I b) II, III, IV, I c) II, I, IV, III d) III, IV, II, I e) II, IV, III, I
e) II, IV, III, I
82
A discrete unit of DNA that produces a protein that provides the functionality a cell needs is a) genome b) chromatin c) histone d) karyotype e) gene
e) gene
83
A protein that plays a central role in DNA folding a) nucleosome b) karyotype c) histone d) gene e) chromatin
c) histone