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Physiology Flashcards

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0
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of connective tissue?

A. It consists of few cells surrounded by fibers and a group substance.
B. It includes such diverse tissues as bone, cartilage, tendons,adipose, and loose connective tissue.
C. It connects and supports other tissues.
D. It forms the internal and external lining of many organs.

A

D. It forms the internal and external lining of many organs.

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1
Q

Which of the following is NOT an organ system?

A. Skeletal
B. Connective
C. Digestive
D. Nervous

A

B. Connective

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2
Q

The diaphragm

A. Is a mesentery.
B. Increases the surface area of the lungs.
C. Is part of the mammalian reproductive system.
D. Separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities in mammals.

A

D. Separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities in mammals.

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3
Q

The interstitial fluid of animals

A. Is the internal environment within cells.
B. Provides for the exchange of nutrients and waste between cells and blood.
C. Is composed of blood.
D. Is found at the major exchange areas in lungs, kidneys, and intestine.

A

B. Provides for the exchange of nutrients and waste between cells and blood.

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4
Q

Negative feedback circuits are

A. Mechanisms that maintain homeostasis.
B. Activated when a physiological variable deviates from a set point.
C. Analogous to a thermostat that controls room temperature.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above

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5
Q

Enzyme that hydrolyzes peptide bonds, works in the stomach.

A

Pepsin

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6
Q

Hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric juices

A

Gastrin

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7
Q

Enzyme that begins digestion of starch in mouth

A

Salivary amylase

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8
Q

Enzymes specific for hydrolyzing disaccharides

A

Disaccharidases

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9
Q

Enzyme that hydrolyzes peptide bonds at amino end of polypeptide

A

Aminopeptidase

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10
Q

BMR

A. Stands for bottom metabolic rate.
B. Is higher for ectotherms than for endotherms.
C. Is higher per gram for smaller animals than for larger ones.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

C. Is higher per gram for smaller animals than for larger ones.

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11
Q

The energy content of fats

A. Is released by bile salts.
B. Is inversely related to body size.
C. Is approximately two times that of carbohydrate or protein.
D. Can reverse the effects of malnutrition.

A

C. Is approximately two times that of carbohydrate or protein.

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12
Q

Incomplete proteins are

A. Lacking in essential vitamins.
B. A cause of undernourishment.
C. Found in proper proportion in meat, eggs, and cheese.
D. Lacking in one or more essential amino acids.

A

D. Lacking in one or more essential amino acids.

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13
Q

Vitamins

A. May be produced by intestinal microorganisms.
B. Are constant from one species to the next.
C. Are toxic in excess because they are deposited in body fat.
D. Are inorganic nutrients, needed in small amounts, that usually function as cofactors.

A

A. May be produced by intestinal microorganisms.

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14
Q

Which of the following is most prevalent in animals with gastrovascular cavities?

A. Absorption or predigested nutrients
B. Extracellular digestion.
C. Intracellular digestion.
D. Filter feeding.

A

C. Intracellular digestion.

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15
Q

The acid pH of the stomach

A. Hydrolyzes proteins.
B. Is regulated by the release of gastrin.
C. Is neutralized by gastric juice.
D. Is produced by pepsin.

A

B. Is regulated by the release of gastrin.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. The average human has enough stored glycogen to supply calories for several weeks.
B. Eating less and/or exercising more can result in weight loss.
C. Conversion of glucose and glycogen takes place in the liver.
D. Excessive calories are stored as fat, regardless of their food source.

A

A. The average human has enough stored glycogen to supply calories for several weeks.

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common component of feces?

A. Intestinal bacteria
B. Cellulose
C. Bile salts
D. Undigested ingredients of food

A

C. Bile salts

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18
Q

A gastrovascular cavity

A. Is found in cnidarians and annelids.
B. Functions to pump fluids throughout the body.
C. Functions in both digestion and distribution of nutrients.
D. Involves all of the above.

A

C. Functions in both digestion and distribution of nutrients.

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT A SIMILARITY between open and closed circulatory systems?

A. Some sort of pumping device helps to move blood through the body.
B. Some of the circulation of blood is a result of movements in the body.
C. The blood and interstial fluid are indistinguishable from each other.
D. All tissues come into close contact with the circulating body fluid so that the exchange of nutrients and wastes can take place.

A

C. The blood and interstial fluid are indistinguishable from each other.

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20
Q

In a system with double circulation,

A. Blood is pumped at two locations as it circulates through the body.
B. There is a countercurrent exchange within the gills.
C. There is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart.
D. Blood is repumped after it returns from the capillary beds of the gas- exchange organ.

A

D. Blood is repumped after it returns from the capillary beds of the gas- exchange organ.

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21
Q

During diastole,

A. The atria fill with blood.
B. Blood flows passively into the ventricles.
C. The elastic recoil of the arteries maintains hydrostatic pressure on the blood.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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22
Q

An atrioventricular valve prevents the backflow or leakage of blood

A. From a ventricle into an atrium.
B. Between ventricles.
C. From the aorta into the left ventricle.
D. From the pulmonary vein into the right atrium.

A

A. From a ventricle into an atrium.

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23
Q

Heart beat is initiated by contraction of the

A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Right atrium
D. Myogenic cardiac muscle cells

A

A. SA node

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24
Q

If all of the body’s capillaries were open at the same time,

A. Blood pressure would fall dramatically.
B. Peripheral resistance would increase.
C. Blood would move too rapidly through the capillary beds.
D. The amount of blood returning to the heart would increase.

A

A. Blood pressure would fall dramatically.

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25
Q

Edema is a result of

A. Swollen lymph glands.
B. An accumulation of interstitial fluid.
C. Swollen feet.
D. Too high a concentration of blood proteins.

A

B. An accumulation of interstitial fluid.

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26
Q

A function of the kidneys is

A. Control of the lymphatic system.
B. Maintenance of electrolyte balance.
C. Production of lymphocytes.
D. Destruction and recycling of red blood cells.

A

B. Maintenance of electrolyte balance.

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27
Q

Fibrinogen is

A. A blood protein that escorts lipids through the circulatory system.
B. A cell fragment involved in the blood-clotting mechanism.
C. A blood protein that is converted to fibrin to form a blood clot.
D. One of the formed elements of blood.

A

C. A blood protein that is converted to fibrin to form a blood clot.

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28
Q

Angina pectoris

A. Causes atherosclerosis.
B. Is a mild form of stroke.
C. Promotes hypertension.
D. May be a warning sign that a coronary artery is partially blocked by plaque.

A

D. May be a warning sign that a coronary artery is partially blocked by plaque.

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29
Q

A thrombus

A. May form at a region of plaque in an artery.
B. Is a traveling embolism.
C. May cause hypertension.
D. May calcify and result in arteriosclerosis.

A

A. May form at a region of plaque in an artery.

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30
Q

Blood leaving the right ventricle of a mammal’s heart will pass through how many capillary beds before it returns to the right ventricle?

A. One
B. Two
C. One or two, depending on the circuit it takes
D. At least two, but frequently three

A

B. Two

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31
Q

Negative pressure is created in the lungs of mammals by

A. Exhalation of air.
B. Inhalation of air.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm and rib muscles.
D. Contraction of the diaphragm and rib muscles.

A

D. Contraction of the diaphragm and rib muscles.

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32
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its effect?

A. Gastric juice - kills bacteria in the stomach
B. Fever - stimulates phagocytosis and inhibits microbial growth
C. Histamine - causes blood vessels to dilate
D. Vaccination - creates passive immunity

A

D. Vaccination - creates passive immunity

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33
Q

Monoclonal antibodies

A. Are used to treat AIDS.
B. Explain the ability of the immune system to create a large number of identical T or B cells.
C. Are produced in tissue culture by hybridomas.
D. Initiate the secondary immune response.

A

C. Are produced in tissue culture by hybridomas.

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34
Q

Antigens are

A. Proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains.
B. Proteins or polysaccharides usually found on the cell surfaces of invading bacteria or viruses.
C. Proteins found in the blood that cause blood cells to clump.
D. Proteins embedded in T-cell membranes.

A

B. Proteins or polysaccharides usually found on the cell surfaces of invading bacteria or viruses.

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35
Q

A secondary immune response is more rapid and greater than a primary immune response because

A. Memory cells respond to the pathogen and rapidly clone more effector cells.
B. The second response is an active immunity, whereas the primary one was a passive immunity.
C. Helper T-cells are a available to activate other blood cells.
D. Interleukins cause the rapid accumulation of phagocytic cells.

A

A. Memory cells respond to the pathogen and rapidly clone more effector cells.

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36
Q

In opsonization,

A. Proteins coat microorganisms and help macrophages bind to and engulf the invading cell.
B. A set if proteins lyses a hole in the foreign cell’s membrane.
C. Antibodies cause cells to agglutinate, and the resulting clumps are engulfed by phagocytes.
D. A flood of histamines is released a that may result in anaphylactic shock.

A

A. Proteins coat microorganisms and help macrophages bind to and engulf the invading cell.

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37
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency

A. Is autoimmune disease.
B. Is a form of cancer in which the membrane surface of the cell has changed.
C. Is a disease in which both T and B cells are absent or inactive.
D. Is an immune disorder in which the number of T helper cells is greatly reduced.

A

C. Is a disease in which both T and B cells are absent or inactive.

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38
Q

A transfusion of B-type blood given to a person who has A-type blood would result in

A. The recipient’s anti-B antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.
B. The recipient’s B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies.
C. The recipient forming both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
D. No reaction, because B is a universal donor type of blood.

A

A. The recipient’s anti-B antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.

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39
Q

Which of the following are incorrectly paired?

A. Variable region - antibody specificity for an antigenic determinate
B. Helper T cells - production of plasma cells
C. Cytotoxic T cells - destruction of foreign cells
D. Immunoglobulins - antibodies

A

B. Helper T cells - production of plasma cells

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40
Q

There is a net water flow by osmosis through a membrane from

A. A solution that is hyperosmotic to one that is hypoosmotic.
B. A solution with a lower osmolarity to one with a higher osmolarity.
C. One isoosmotic solution to another.
D. Cells in a freshwater environment to the surrounding medium.

A

B. A solution with a lower osmolarity to one with a higher osmolarity.

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41
Q

Contractile vacuoles most likely would be found in protists

A. In a freshwater environment.
B. In a marine environment.
C. That are internal parasites.
D. That are hypoosmotic to their environment.

A

A. In a freshwater environment.

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42
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its excretory system?

A. Earthworm - protonephridia
B. Flatworm - flame-cell system
C. Insect - Malpighian tubules
D. Amphibian - kidneys

A

A. Earthworm - protonephridia

43
Q

The process of secretion in the formation of urine insures that

A. A constant pH is maintained in body fluids.
B. Drugs and other poisons are removed from the blood.
C. Potassium balance is maintained in body fluids.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

44
Q

Which is the correct pathways for the passage of urine in vertebrates?

A. Collecting tubule > ureter > bladder > urethra
B. Renal vein > renal ureter > bladder > urethra
C. Nephron > urethra > bladder > ureter
D. Cortex > medulla > bladder > ureter

A

A. Collecting tubule > ureter > bladder > urethra

45
Q

Consumption of alcohol may result in diuresis because

A. The JGA (juxtaglomerular apparatus) releases renin, which activates angiotensin, resulting in an increase in blood pressure.
B. Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH, causing excessive water loss in the urine.
C. The atrium of the heart is stimulated to release ANP (atrial natriuretic protein), which inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone and thus lowers blood volume and pressure.
D. The kidneys must work harder to remove alcohol from the system.

A

B. Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH, causing excessive water loss in the urine.

46
Q

Which of the following is used by terrestrial animals as a mechanism to dissipate heat?

A. Hibernation
B. Countercurrent exchange
C. Evaporation
D. Vasoconstriction

A

C. Evaporation

47
Q

The heating center if the hypothalamus

A. Responds to messages from temperature-sensing nerve cells in the skin.
B. Controls shivering and vasoconstriction of superficial vessels.
C. Functions along with a cooling center to thermoregulate by feedback mechanisms.
D. Does all of the above.

A

D. Does all of the above.

48
Q

Physiological adjustments to cooler seasonal temperatures may include

A. Production of enzymes with lower optimal temperatures.
B. Changes in the lipid components of cell membranes.
C. Increased production of enzymes to offset their reduced efficiency.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

49
Q

Which go the following sections of the mammalian nephron is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

A. Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus - filtration of blood
B. Proximal convoluted tubule - secretion of ammonia and H+ into filtrate and transport of glucose and amino acids out of tubule
C. Descending limb of loop of Henle - diffusion of urea out of filtrate
D. Ascending limb of loop of Henle - diffusion and pumping of Na+ and Cl- out of filtrate

A

C. Descending limb of loop of Henle - diffusion of urea out of filtrate

50
Q

What is stratified cuboidal epithelium composed of?

A. Several layers of boxlike cells
B. A hierarchical arrangement of flat cells
C. A tight layer of square cells attached to a basement membrane
D. An irregularly arranged layer of pillar-like cells
E. A layer of ciliated, mucus-secreting cells

A

A. Several layers of boxlike cells

51
Q

Which of the following apply to skeletal muscle?

A. Smooth and involuntary
B. Smooth and unbranched
C. Striated and voluntary
D. Smooth and voluntary
E. Striated and branched
A

C. Striated and voluntary

52
Q

What does it mean if the blood pressure of a human is 110/80?

A. The systolic pressure is 80.
B. The diastolic pressure is 80.
C. The pulse rate is 80 beats per minute.
D. The blood pressure during contraction of the heart is 80.
E. Both B and C are correct.

A

B. The diastolic pressure is 80.

53
Q

A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in

A. The recipient’s B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies.
B. The recipient’s anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.
C. The recipient’s anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type.
D. No reaction because type O is a universal donor.
E. No reaction because the O-type does not have antibodies.

A

B. The recipient’s anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells.

54
Q

Physical barriers to invasion by other organisms

A. Include the skin and the mucus membranes.
B. Are difficult for bacteria and viruses to penetrate.
C. May work in conjunction with secretions like tears, perspiration, and mucus.
D. Only A and C are correct.
E. A, B, and C are correct.

A

E. A, B, and C are correct.

55
Q

Which of the following mechanisms would account for increased urine production as a result of drinking alcoholic beverages?

A. Increased aldosterone production
B. Increases blood pressure
C. Decreased amount of anti-diuretic hormone
D. The proximal tubule reabsorbing more water
E. The osmoregulator cells of the brain increasing their activity

A

C. Decreased amount of anti-diuretic hormone

56
Q

Blood samples taken from an individual who had been fasting for 24 hours would have which of the following?

A. High levels of insulin
B. High levels of glucagon 
C. Low levels of insulin
D. Low levels of glucagon 
E. Both B and C would be present
A

E. Both B and C would be present

57
Q

A varying response to a common chemical messenger is possible because

A. Various target cells have different genes.
B. Each cell knows how it fits into the body’s master plan.
C. Various target cells differ in their receptors to the same hormone.
D. The circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets.
E. The hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through different branches of the circulatory system.

A

C. Various target cells differ in their receptors to the same hormone.

58
Q

All of the following statements about hormones are correct EXCEPT:

A. They are produced by endocrine glands.
B. They travel to different areas of the body.
C. They are carried by the circulatory system.
D. They are used to communicate between different organisms.
E. They elicit specific biological responses from target cells.

A

D. They are used to communicate between different organisms.

59
Q

The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by means of

A. Releasing factors.
B. Second messengers.
C. Third messengers.
D. Antibodies.
E. Pyrogens.
A

A. Releasing factors.

60
Q

All of the following statements about glands are correct EXCEPT:

A. The parathyroids regulate metabolic rate.
B. The thyroid participates in blood regulation.
C. The pituitary participates in the regulation of the gonads.
D. The adrenal medulla produces “fight-or-flight” responses.
E. The pancreas helps to regulate blood sugar concentration.

A

A. The parathyroids regulate metabolic rate.

61
Q

All of the following statements about the hypothalamus are correct EXCEPT:

A. It functions as an endocrine gland.
B. It is part of the central nervous system.
C. It is subject to feedback inhibition by certain hormones.
D. It secretes tropic hormones that act directly on the gonads.
E. It’s neurosecretory cells terminate in the posterior pituitary.

A

D. It secretes tropic hormones that act directly on the gonads.

63
Q

Hormones that are secreted by the pancreas

A. Ecdysone C. Thymosin E. Growth hormone
B. Glucagon D. Oxytocin

A

B. Glucagon

64
Q

Hormones that stimulate the contraction of uterine muscle

A. Ecdysone C. Thymosin E. Growth hormone
B. Glucagon D. Oxytocin

A

D. Oxytocin

65
Q

Hormones that are secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary

A. Ecdysone C. Thymosin E. Growth hormone
B. Glucagon D. Oxytocin

A

E. Growth hormone

66
Q

Hormones - Testosterone

A. Androgens C. Progestins E. Melatonin
B. Estrogens D. Thymosin

A

A. Androgens

67
Q

Hormones - Estradiol

A. Androgens C. Progestins E. Melatonin
B. Estrogens D. Thymosin

A

B. Estrogens

68
Q

Choose from the following terms.

A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Progesterone
D. Human chorionic
E. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

It triggers ovulation of the secondary oocyte.

A

A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

69
Q

Choose from the following terms.

A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Progesterone
D. Human chorionic
E. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

Hormone produced by the corpus luteum when stimulated by LH.

A

C. Progesterone

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT required for internal fertilization?

A. Copulatory organ 
B. Sperm receptacle 
C. Behavioral interaction
D. Internal development of the embryo
E. All of the above are necessary for internal fertilization
A

D. Internal development of the embryo

70
Q

Choose from the following terms.

A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Progesterone
D. Human chorionic
E. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

Hypothalamic hormone that triggers the secretion of FSH

A

E. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

71
Q

Which of the following structures is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

A. Epididymis - maturation and storage of sperm
B. Fallopian tubes - site of normal embryonic implantation
C. Seminal vesicles - add sugar and mucus to semen
D. Placenta - material / fetal exchange organ; progesterone producing
E. Prostate gland - adds alkaline substances to semen

A

B. Fallopian tubes - site of normal embryonic implantation

72
Q

Which of the following structures is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?

A. Seminiferous tubules - add fluid containing mucus, fructose, and prostaglandin to semen
B. Scrotum - encases testes and holds them below the abdominal cavity
C. Epididymis - stores sperm
D. Prostate gland - adds alkaline secretions to semen
E. Ovary - secretes estrogen and progesterone

A

A. Seminiferous tubules - add fluid containing mucus, fructose, and prostaglandin to semen

73
Q

One function of the corpus luteum is to

A. Nourish and protect the egg cell
B. Produce prolactin in the alveoli
C. Produce progesterone and estrogen 
D. Convert into a hormone- producing follicle after ovulation
E. Stimulate ovulation
A

C. Produce progesterone and estrogen

74
Q

In men, the excretory and reproductive systems share which structure?

A. Vas deferens D. Urethra
B. Urinary bladder E. Ureter
C. Seminal vesicle

A

D. Urethra

75
Q

Which substance can be detected in the urine of females and is a positive test for pregnancy?

A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
E. Hypothalamus releasing factors

A

D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

76
Q

Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the

A. Ovary D. Oviduct
B. Uterus E. Labia minora
C. Vagina

A

D. Oviduct

77
Q

Which of these is NOT a correct statement about human reproduction?

A. The ability if a pregnant woman not to reject her “foreign” fetus may be due to the suppression of the immune response in her uterus.
B. By the eighth week, organogenesis is complete and the embryo is referred to as a fetus.
C. Lactation is the production and release of milk from the mammary glands.
D. Parturition begins with conception and ends with gestation.
E. Puberty is the onset of reproductive ability.

A

D. Parturition begins with conception and ends with gestation.

78
Q

Which of the following are modes of asexual reproduction found in animals?

A. Fission and budding
B. Fragmentation and gemmule production
C. Regeneration
D. Only A and B are correct.

A

D. Only A and B are correct.

79
Q

The archenteron of the developing frog eventually develops into which structure?

A. Reproductive organs D. Digestive tract
B. The blastocoel E. Brain and spinal cord
C. Heart and lungs

A

D. Digestive tract

80
Q

Arrange the following stages of fertilization and early development into a proper sequence.

I. Onset of new DNA synthesis
II. Cortical reaction
III. First cell division
IV. Acrosomal reaction; plasma membrane depolarization
V. Fusion of egg and sperm nuclei complete

A.) III, V, I, IV, II B.) V, I, IV, II, III C.) I, III, II, IV, V D.) V, III, I, II, IV
E.) IV, II, V, I, III

A

E.) IV, II, V, I, III

81
Q

The “slow block” to polyspermy is largely due to

A. A transient voltage change across the membrane 
B. Consumption of yolk protein 
C. The jelly coat 
D. The fertilization membrane 
E. Inactivation of the sperm
A

D. The fertilization membrane

82
Q

Which development sequence is CORRECT?

A. Cleavage, blastula, gastrula, and morula
B. Cleavage, gastrula, morula, and blastula
C. Cleavage, morula, blastula, and gastrula
D. Gastrula, morula, blastula, and cleavage
E. Morula, cleavage, gastrula, and blastula

A

C. Cleavage, morula, blastula, and gastrula

83
Q

Which of the following is a function of the contents of the acrosome during fertilization?

A. To block polyspermy
B. To help propel the sperm
C. To digest the exterior coats of the egg
D. To nourish the mitochondria of the sperm
E. To trigger the completion of meiosis be the sperm cell

A

C. To digest the exterior coats of the egg

84
Q

At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a(n)

A. Blastocyst D. Somite
B. Embryo E. Zygote
C. Fetus

A

A. Blastocyst

85
Q

All of the following statements about fertilization are correct EXCEPT:

A. It reinstates diploidy
B. It invaginates the blastula to form the gastrula.
C. Egg cell depolarization initiates the cortical reaction.
D. Gamete fusion depolarizes the egg cell membrane and sets up a fast block to polyspermy.
E. A slow block to polyspermy occurs when cortical granules erect a fertilization membrane.

A

B. It invaginates the blastula to form the gastrula.

86
Q

What is the process called that involves the movement of cells into new relative positions in an embryo and results in the establishment of three tissue layers?

A. Determination C. Fertilization E. Gastrulation
B. Cleavage D. Induction

A

E. Gastrulation

87
Q

After gastrulation, the outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a vertebrate is

A. Endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm 
B. Mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm 
C. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm 
D. Ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm
E. Endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
A

C. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

88
Q

Thalidomide was a chemical prescribed as a sedative in the early 1960s. If taken by women in their first trimester of pregnancy, the children born had deformities of the arms and legs. What developmental process was affected by this drug?

A. Early cleavage divisions 
B. Determination of the polarity of the zygote
C. Differentiation of bone tissue
D. Morphogenesis
E. Organogenesis
A

D. Morphogenesis

89
Q

Which of the following is NOT an extraembryonic membrane that develops from the embryos of reptiles, birds, and mammals?

A. Chorion B. Yolk sac C. Egg shell D. Amnion
E. Allantois

A

C. Egg shell

90
Q

Which of the following activities would be associated with the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?

A. Resting and digesting
B. Release of both acetylcholine and epinephrine 
C. Increased metabolic rate
D. "Fight-or-flight" response
E. Release of epinephrine only
A

A. Resting and digesting

91
Q

The postsynaptic membrane of a nerve may be stimulated by certain neurotransmitters to permit the influx of negative chloride ions into the cells. This process will result in

A. Membrane polarization.
B. An action potential.
C. The production of an IPSP.
D. The production of an EPSP.
E. The membrane becoming more positive.
A

C. The production of an IPSP.

92
Q

After an action potential, how is the resting potential restored?

A. The opening of sodium activation gates
B. The opening of voltage-sensitive potassium channels and the closing of sodium activation gates
C. An increase in the membrane’s permeability to potassium and chloride ions
D. The delay in the action of the sodium-potassium pump
E. The refractory period in which the membrane is hyperpolarized

A

B. The opening of voltage-sensitive potassium channels and the closing of sodium activation gates

93
Q

The threshold potential of a membrane

A. Is equal to about 35 mV.
B. Is equal to about 70 mV.
C. Opens voltage-sensitive gates that result in the rapid outflow of sodium ions.
D. Is the depolarization that is needed to generate an action potential.
E. Is a graded potential that is proportional to the strength of a stimulus.

A

D. Is the depolarization that is needed to generate an action potential.

95
Q

Which part of the vertebrate nervous system is most involved in preparation for “fight or flight”?

A. Sympathetic 
B. Somatic 
C. Central 
D. Visceral
E. Parasympathetic
A

A. Sympathetic

96
Q

Coordinates muscle actions

A

cerebellum

97
Q

Regulates body temperature

A

hypothalamus

98
Q

Contains control centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems

A

medulla oblongata

99
Q

The motor division of the PNS can be divided into

A

the somatic and autonomic systems

100
Q

The ability of a receptor to absorb the energy of a stimulus is called:

A

reception

101
Q

Which of the following receptors is INCORRECTLY paired with the type of energy it transduces?

mechanoreceptors - sound
electromagnetic receptors - magnetism
chemoreceptors - solute concentrations
thermoreceptors - heat
pain receptors - electricity
A

pain receptors - electricity

102
Q

Which of the following receptors is INCORRECTLY paired with its category?

hair cell - mechanoreceptor
muscle spindle - mechanoreceptor
gustatory receptor - chemoreceptor
rod - photoreceptor
cone - deep-pressure receptor
A

cone - deep-pressure receptor

103
Q

All of the following are CORRECT statements about the vertebrate eye EXCEPT:

  • The vitreous humor regulates the amount of light entering the pupil.
  • The transparent cornea is an extension of the sclera.
  • The fovea is the center of the visual field and contains only cones.
  • The ciliary muscle functions in accommodation.
  • The retina lies just inside the choroid and contains the photoreceptor cells.
A

The vitreous humor regulates the amount of light entering the pupil.

104
Q

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about the cells of the human retina?

  • Cone cells can detect color and rod cells cannot.
  • Cone cells are more sensitive to light than rod cells are.
  • Cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment.
  • Rod cells are most highly concentrated in the center of the retina.
  • Rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells.
A

Cone cells can detect color and rod cells cannot.

105
Q

A sustained muscle contraction due to a lack of relaxations between successive stimuli is called:

A

tetanus

106
Q

Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis along the digestive tract?

A

smooth

Biology CSET (11 decks)

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