Su 5 Airports, ATC, and Airspace Flashcards
1
Q
(Refer to figure 138 below.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
A
Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights
2
Q
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
A
Arrows leading to the threshold mark
3
Q
(Refer to figure 137 below.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
A
1,000 feet
4
Q
(Refer to figure 137 below.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?
A
500 feet
5
Q
(Refer to Figure 137 above.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
A
500 feet
6
Q
The “ILS critical boundary” sign identifies the
A
Edge of the ILS critical area
7
Q
The “runway hold position” sign denotes
A
an entrance to a runway from a taxiway
8
Q
“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway
A
identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway
9
Q
(Refer to figure 254 on page 159.) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
A
Top red
10
Q
(Refer to Figure 254 below.) While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?
A
Bottom yellow
11
Q
(Refer to Figure 254 below.) Which sign indicates you’re holding short of the ILS critical area
A
Bottom yellow
12
Q
Designation signs indicate
A
The direction to takeoff runways
13
Q
What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A
Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway
14
Q
(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
A
white lettering with a red background
15
Q
(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?
A
Mandatory instruction sign
16
Q
(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) What colors are runway holding position signs
A
white with a red background
17
Q
(refer to Figure 94 on page 161.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
A
yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
18
Q
The “No Entry” sign identifies
A
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited
19
Q
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A
Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway
20
Q
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates
A
designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
21
Q
Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to runway holding position markings?
A
150
22
Q
The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to
A
highlight an approaching runway holding position marking
23
Q
A runway exit sign
A
points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway
24
Q
Within aircraft movements area, “destination signs” identify the
A
direction to the takeoff runway
25
(Refer to figure 135 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
7
26
(Refer to Figure 135 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
4
27
(Refer to Figure 135 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
5
28
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
29
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
White and the far bar as red
30
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white
31
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path
32
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glide path
33
(Refer to Figure 136 on page 165.) Which illustration depicts a "slightly low" (2.8) indication?
11
34
(Refer to Figure 136 below.) As you emerge from the clouds during an instrument approach and make visual contact with the runway environment, you see PAPI lights corresponding to those depicted in illustration 12. You are
below the glidepath
35
(Refer to Figure 136 below.) An "on glidepath" indication is
10
36
(Refer to Figure 136 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?
12
37
(Refer to Figure 136 below.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?
12
38
(Refer to Figure 162 on page 166.) You have accepted a visual approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates
You have lined up with the wrong runway
39
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility
40
Which type of runway lighting consist of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL
41
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
of the high angle of attack and high gross weight
42
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 5 knots have on vortex behavior
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway
43
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
Light quartering tailwind
44
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
Beyond the jet's touchdown point
45
(Refer to figure 158 on page 169.) With winds reported as from 330 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner's vortices?
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway
46
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
Climb on the centerline of the airway expect when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions
47
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you
48
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR
49
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions
Seeing and avoiding other aircraft
50
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
the FSS
51
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMS?
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication
52
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?
FAA FSS
53
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
Chart supplement and NOTAMs (D)
54
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
55
the operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, D, or E airpsace
56
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
57
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimate time en route on an IFR flight plan?
The point of first intended landing
58
What is a waypoint when is used for an IFR flight?
A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach
59
You may cancel an IFR flight plan
if in VMC outside Class A airspace
60
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?
Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility
61
How should an IFR flight plan be closed at the competition of the flight at a controlled airport?
the tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft lands
62
(refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) If more than one cruising altitude is intended, what information should be entered in item 15, "Level", of the flight plan?
Initial cruising altitude
63
(refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) What information should be entered in item 15, "Level", for an IFR flight?
Initial cruising altitude
64
(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 16, "destination Aerodrome" for an IFR flight
The destination airport identifier code
65
(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 19, "Endurance" for an IFR flight?
The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time
66
(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 19, "Endurance" for an IFR flight?
The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes
67
(Refer to Figure 1A on page 175.) what information should be entered in item 16, "destination Aerodrome" for an IFR flight with an intended stopover of 30 minutes
The ICAO four-letter indicator of the destination airport
68
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification
69
When clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment)
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriated
70
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude
71
An abbreviated departure clearance "..Cleared AS FILED..." will always contain the name
of destination airport filed in the flight plan
72
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time
73
On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control
CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED-MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND-SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE- DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the
destination airport and route
74
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ".... Cruise SIX THOUSAND...?
It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000
75
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion
76
What is the rule for a pilot receiving a "Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?
The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions
77
A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC
78
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
when departing from a runway intersection
79
During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceiling, you should contact departure
when the tower instructs the change
80
When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC
81
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,00 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute
82
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
As rapidly practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude
83
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach
84
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute
85
What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated
86
For IFR planning purposes what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Fixes selected to define the route
87
While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?
Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds
88
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
continue as assigned and query ATC
89
During a flight, the controller advises "traffic" 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20 degree correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
40 degree to the right of aircraft's nose
90
What is the pilot in command's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft withing 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)
Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots
91
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION." This phrase means that
You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation
92
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot advised "Radar service terminated." What action is appropriate?
resume normal position reporting
93
What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment
94
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of class C airspace?
Separation from all IFR aicraft and participating VFR aircraft
95
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent
96
When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?
Before entering Class D airspace
97
What does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply?
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur
98
Which of the following reports should always be reported to ATC?
When leaving an assigned holding fix
99
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time
100
You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher
101
You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach
102
What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lose communications?
7600
103
In the event of unlawful interference or hijacking, which transponder code should you input immediately?
7500
104
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA
105
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communication failure?
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable
106
While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
VFR and land as soon as practicable
107
The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in the event of
an emergency
108
What is the hijacking code
7500
109
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made
110
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfuctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide slop capability and the NO.2 receiver has only VOR/Lacalizer capability
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC
111
What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made
112
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En route Low altitude chart?
Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace
113
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends from
18,000 feet to and including FL 600
114
Which airspace is defined as transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
The class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace
115
Class G airspace is that airspace where
ATC does not control air traffic
116
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace
117
In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability and ADS-B Out equipment
118
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircrafting within Class B airspace?
A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
119
MOAs are established to
Separate certain military activities from IFR traffic
120
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two-way communications, and Mode C transponder, and ADS-B Out equipment
121
Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?
Continue the flight as planned
122
When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
When operating in a Class A airspace
123
When is an IFR flight plan required?
In class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace
124
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?
Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace
125
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
3sm, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal
126
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace)
5sm, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal
127
A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet
128
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in Class G airspace?
1 mile; above clear of clouds; horizontally clear of clouds; below clear of clouds
129
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet
130
What is the minimum in-flight visiblity and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours?
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet
131
What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in class G airspace in VFR condition during daylight hours?
1 mile; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet
132
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?
1 mile; above clear of cloud; horizontal clear of clouds; below clear of clouds
133
When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?
Flight into Class A airspace
134
(Refer to Figure 162 on page 191.) You are cleared to land on RWY 16L at Eugene Mahlon Sweet field. As you break out of the clouds, you are lined up with the white lights down the center of the runway, which lets you know that you
are off course
135
(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) What is the slope of RWY 9?
0.4% down
136
(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) When lined up for takeoff on runway 4, the compass and heading indicator should read a heading of about
050 degrees
137
(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) When lined up for takeoff on runway 18, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about
185 degrees
138
(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) what is the actual heading of runway 36 at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH) airport?
003.6 degrees
139
(Refer to Figure 251 on page 193.) When lined up for takeoff RWY 27, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about
275 degrees
