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Instrument > Gleim su 8 Aviation weather > Flashcards

Gleim su 8 Aviation weather Flashcards

1
Q

The primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather is

A

variation of solar energy received by the Earth’s regions

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2
Q

Which force, in the Northern hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars

A

coriolis

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3
Q

What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?

A

The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while at the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker

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4
Q

Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

A

friction between the wind and the surface

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5
Q

What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?

A

Surface friction

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6
Q

An air mass is a body of air that

A

covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture

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7
Q

A characteristic of the stratosphere is

A

relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude

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8
Q

The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is

A

37,000 feet

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9
Q

where do squall lines most often develop

A

ahead of a cold front

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10
Q

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally

A

weaker and farther north in the summer

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11
Q

a jet stream is defined as wind of

A

50 knots or greater

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12
Q

Which feature is associated with the troposphere?

A

Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate

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13
Q

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?

A

A wind change

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14
Q

Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

A

With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport

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15
Q

Frontal waves normally form on

A

slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts

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16
Q

When compared to winds at the surface, winds at 2,000 feet are

A

higher due to absence of friction

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17
Q

Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

A

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of stable air?

A

Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus-type clouds

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19
Q

What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?

A

clouds with extensive vertical development

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20
Q

which is a characteristics of stable air?

A

Stratiform clouds

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21
Q

The general characteristics of unstable are

A

good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds

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22
Q

What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?

A

Stratified clouds with little vertical development

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23
Q

Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers preceding a front is an indication of

A

stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

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24
Q

What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?

A

Upward currents

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25
Q

Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, rain showers and possible clear-type icing in clouds

A

Unstable, moist-air, and orographic lifting

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26
Q

What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

A

The stability of the air before lifting occurs

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27
Q

Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?

A

Ambient lapse rate

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28
Q

what are some characteristics of unstable air?

A

turbulence and good surface visibility

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29
Q

Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate)

A

3 Celsius per 1,000 feet

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30
Q

What are the characteristics of an unstable atmosphere

A

a warm, humid air mass

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31
Q

clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain are a sign of

A

an unstable air mass

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32
Q

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by

A

cloud types and the type of precipitation

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33
Q

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A

A stable layer of air

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34
Q

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A

Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds

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35
Q

A common type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

A

ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light

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36
Q

A temperature inversion will normally form only

A

in stable air

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37
Q

An increase in temperature with an altitude increase

A

is indication of an inversion

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38
Q

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to

A

minimum temperature occurring after sunrise

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39
Q

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?

A

Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/ dew point spread, and over a land surface

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40
Q

What situation is most conductive to the formation of radiation fog?

A

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights

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41
Q

The most frequent type of ground- or surface- based temperature inversion is that produced by

A

radiation on a clear, relatively still night

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42
Q

What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?

A

Advection fog and up slope fog

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43
Q

Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?

A

Fog

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44
Q

Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of

A

an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products

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45
Q

In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?

A

Coastal areas

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46
Q

In which situation advection fog most likely to form?

A

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter

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47
Q

Under which condition does advection fog usually form?

A

Moist air moving over colder ground or water

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48
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on

A

air temperature

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49
Q

To which meteorological condition does the term “dew point” refer?

A

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

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50
Q

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

A

water vapor condenses

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51
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing

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52
Q

Penetrating fog while flying an approach at night, you might experience the illusion of

A

pitching up

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53
Q

What are the four families of clouds?

A

High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development

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54
Q

Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

A

high clouds

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55
Q

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a god indication of

A

very strong turbulence

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56
Q

Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate

A

turbulence

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57
Q

The suffix “nimbus”, used in naming clouds, means a

A

rain cloud

58
Q

A high cloud is composed mostly of

A

ice crystals

59
Q

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A

Cumulonimbus

60
Q

Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate

A

turbulence at and below the cloud level

61
Q

When is an airplane most likely to be struck by lightning?

A

OAT between -5 celsius and +5 celsius

62
Q

If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?

A

Sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute

63
Q

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?

A

Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base

64
Q

Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?

A

Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude

65
Q

Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?

A

Squall line

66
Q

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorms?

A

Lightning

67
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?

A

Dissipating

68
Q

Cumulus clouds often indicate

A

possible turbulence

69
Q

What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A

Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action

70
Q

What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”

A

Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen

71
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

The start of rain at the surface

72
Q

The use of airborne weather-avoidance radar

A

provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions

73
Q

You are avoiding a thunderstorm that is in your flightpath. You are over 20 miles from the cell however, you are under the anvil of the cell. Is this a hazard?

A

Yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil

74
Q

When approaching a cumulonimbus cell that is on your route of flight, a pilot should

A

circumnavigate the cell by at least 20 nautical miles

75
Q

In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?

A

Freezing rain

76
Q

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can

A

reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase by 40 percent

77
Q

Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A

ice pellets

78
Q

What visual clue would alert a pilot to the presence of large supercooled water droplets?

A

Formation of a glossy, transparent ice

79
Q

When large supercooled water droplets (SLD) are present in temperatures below +5 Celsius, outside air temperature, what type of icing would be expected to form?

A

Ice that is glossy, clear, or trasnlucent

80
Q

Which of the following would be an accurate description of supercooled large droplets (SLD)?

A

Subfreezing water drops greater than 50 micrometers located in or below clouds

81
Q

What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?

A

Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude

82
Q

What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?

A

The temperature is above freezing at your altitude

83
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

A

there is freezing rain at a higher altitude

84
Q

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?

A

Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift

85
Q

If the air temperature is +8 degrees Celsius at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

A

5,350 feet MSL

86
Q

A pilot who experiences tailplane icing on the approach should

A

disengage the autopilot and retract flaps

87
Q

When using inflight deicing systems in icing conditions, you should be aware that

A

there will be residual or some stage of intercycle ice on the wings

88
Q

What happens to residual ice that remains after deice boots are inflated and shed ice?

A

Residual ice increases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature

89
Q

On which surface of the aircraft could a pilot generally expect to see the first sign of ice accumulation?

A

Pitot tube

90
Q

Tailplane icing can be detected by a(n)

A

sudden uncommanded nose-down pitch

91
Q

What types of surfaces are most likely to see the first signs of ice accumulation?

A

Small narrow areas

92
Q

While flying a standard instrument departure procedure (DP) you encounter icing conditions and the autopilot is engaged, you should

A

disengage the autopilot

93
Q

The most susceptible surface of the aircraft for ice accumulation is the

A

tailplane

94
Q

If you detect icing accumulation in flight, especially if the aircraft is not equipped with a deicing system, you should

A

leave the area of precipitation, if able, or fly to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing

95
Q

In an aircraft equipped with a pneumatic deicing system, the appropriate technique for removing ice is to

A

operate the pneumatic deicing system several times

96
Q

To recover from a tailplane stall brought on by ice accumulation, the pilot should

A

retract the flaps and increase power, but only to compensate for the reduction in lift

97
Q

Tailplane icing can be detected by

A

elevator control pulsing, oscillations, or vibrations

98
Q

A tailplane tall as the result of ice accumulation is most likely to occur during

A

approach and landing

99
Q

With regards to icing, which is true?

A

Heavy icing on the leading edge is not as bad as light icing on the upper surface

100
Q

When using deicing boots, the pilot should

A

activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing and do so in accordance with the manufacturer’s guidance

101
Q

Should you experience buffeting or vibrations after extending the flaps upon exiting or during icing conditions, the most likely reasons is

A

incipient tailplane stall

102
Q

Which of the following is true about icing?

A

Small patches of ice sparsely distributed on the upper surface of the wing can cause asymmetrical stalls that result in roll control issues on takeoff

103
Q

Should you experience uncommanded roll due to icing forward of the ailerons, the most appropriate responses is to

A

reduce the angle of attack by reducing the aircraft pitch, and if in a turn, roll wings level

104
Q

Which is true concerning aircraft icing?

A

Small amounts of ice on the wing’s surface usually result in correspondingly less performance degradation than larger amounts

105
Q

The best technique for using deicing boots is to

A

use them immediately upon visual detection of any ice

106
Q

The proper use of deicing boots should include

A

activation of the system at the first indication of icing and the continued cycling of the boots after leaving icing conditions to ensure any residual ice has been removed

107
Q

How should deicing boots be used after exiting flight in icing conditions?

A

You should continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation

108
Q

Test data indicates that ice, snow, or frost having thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can

A

reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent

109
Q

Ice tends to accumulate first on parts of the plane that are

A

small and narrow

110
Q

During or after flight in icing conditions, vibration or buffeting that follows, but was not evident prior to, flap deployment is

A

an incipient tailplane stall as a result of negative tailplane angle after flap deployment

111
Q

Where would you see the first sign of ice buildup?

A

The pitot tube

112
Q

Roll upsets caused by ice accumulation forward of the ailerons can be remedied by

A

reducing the angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and rolling wings level

113
Q

Which is true regarding Supercooled Large Droplets (SLD) and their accumulation

A

SLD can accrue aloft even if the droplets are not being observed at the surface

114
Q

What is true regarding ice accumulation on a wing surface?

A

Small, visually imperceptible amounts of ice on a wing’s surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation

115
Q

If you experience icing during an approach, you should

A

retract the flaps as necessary and disengage the autopilot

116
Q

What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperature below +5 Celsius OAT?

A

Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots

117
Q

Which of the following is true about icing characteristics?

A

Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing

118
Q

After cycling of the deicing boots, residual ice will

A

increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases

119
Q

On initial climbout after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation, you can expect

A

Ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA

120
Q

Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice?

A

On the air temperature probe

121
Q

Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify?

A

on the flat upper wing surface

122
Q

A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is

A

periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane

123
Q

On the intitial climbout after takeoff with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation, it is recommended that

A

the vertical speed mode be disconnected

124
Q

Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface?

A

Ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off

125
Q

When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following changes in airplane performance?

A

A sudden change in airspeed

126
Q

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A

It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone

127
Q

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A

It may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere

128
Q

Where does wind shear occur?

A

With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere

129
Q

Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer

A

On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell

130
Q

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground

A

during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms

131
Q

When climbing or descending through an area of possible wind shear, the pilot should be aware of

A

a rapid change of airpspeed

132
Q

Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to low-level temperature inversions?

A

It allows airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed

133
Q

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or altitude should report it as

A

light turbulence

134
Q

(refer to figure 13 above) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?

A

Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft

135
Q

(refer to figure 13 above) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?

A

1

136
Q

(refer to figure 13 above) The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter?

A

Strong downdraft

137
Q

(refer to figure 13 above) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?

A

Strong tailwind

138
Q

(refer to figure 13 on page 366) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?

A

3 and 4

139
Q

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

A

90 knots

140
Q

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

A

6,000 feet per minute

141
Q

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strike the ground until dissipation

142
Q

As you approach an airport to land, you observe a convective cloud over the airport with virga below it. This could indicate

A

the presence of a microburst

Instrument (10 decks)

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