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Spirit Airlines Upgrade 7/2018 > Study guide > Flashcards

Study guide Flashcards

1
Q

How do you call a mechanic outside of the airplane?

A

press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.

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2
Q

How do you call the forward flight attendant

A

Press the FWD Button on the calls panel

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3
Q

What happens when you press the EMER pushbutton on the calls panel

A

-2 pink lights flash at all area Call Panels
-Emergency call appears on all attendant indication
panels
-High-low chime sounds 3 times on all loudspeakers

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4
Q

What happens when the Flight Attendants initiate an emergency call?

A
  • white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
  • the amber ATT lights flash on all ACP
  • 3 long buzzers sound consecutively (if not inhibited)
  • In the cabin EMERGENCY CALL message will appear on all attendant indications panels (ACP)
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5
Q

What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY button on the Oxygen panel?

A

Low pressure valve opens to supply oxygen to the masks

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6
Q

How does the passenger oxygen system work

A

Chemical Oxygen generators that can supply oxygen for approx 15 minutes

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7
Q

What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean on the OXY Panel? Does it mean all the masks have deployed?

A

The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually.

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8
Q

What causes automatic deployment of the masks

A

Cabin altitude reaching Appox. 14,000 feet

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9
Q

How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?

A

The reset control slide will accomplish this- it does not happen automatically

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10
Q

What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?

A

The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing.

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11
Q

Why is the GND CTL pushbutton selected to ON during preflight?

A

To record pref light activities in the cockpit.

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12
Q

If the GND CTL pushbutton was not selected to ON how does the system work in automatic mode

A
  • It records for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft.
  • when at least one engine is operating
  • Inflight
  • stops 5 minutes after last engine shut down
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13
Q

What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?

A

ACP 3 PA volume knob out and in the 12 o’clock position

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14
Q

What does the SYS button on the GPWS panel do?

A

All basic GPWS alerts are inhibited (modes 1-5)

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15
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the SYS push button indicate on the GPWS panel?

A

Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5

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16
Q

GPWS Panel-What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS push button have on TERRAIN mode

A

No effect at all

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17
Q

Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3

A

To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing CONF 3

in this case LDG MEMO displays Flaps conf 3 instead of FULL

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18
Q

Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton

A
  • To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
  • FLAP SYS 1(2) Fault would require selection of FLAP MODE off.
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19
Q

What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS

A

No effect Whatsoever

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20
Q

What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light

A

AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost and the RAT is not supplying electrical power

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21
Q

When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate

A

When the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (about 8 seconds)

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22
Q

How can the RAT be deployed

A

-Manually by pushing the MAN ON button (on the EMER ELEC panel) or RAT MAN ON (Hyd panel)
Automatically by the loss of AC BUS 1 and 2

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23
Q

What is the difference between the automatic RAT deployment and the manual RAT deployment by pressing the RAT MAN ON button on the HYD panel?

A

RAT MAN ON supplies blue hydraulic PSI only, no electrical generation

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24
Q

After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON button on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be done?

A

By pressing the MAN ON button on the EMER ELECT PWR

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25
Q

What does the RAT supply

A

Blue hydraulic system and the emergency electrical generator

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26
Q

What buses are powered by the emergency electrical genderator

A
  • AC ESS and AC ESS Shed

- DC ESS and DC ESS Shed

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27
Q

What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting

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28
Q

Aside from GEN 1 LINE Smoke light, what would be other indications of avionics smoke?

A
  • ECAM Warning

- Amber Fault lights on the EXTRACT and BLOWER push button the the VENTILATION Panel

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29
Q

If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE button to OFF what will be accomplished?

A
  • GEN 1 line contactor opens (White OFF light illuminates)
  • AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the bus tie contactor
  • Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank
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30
Q

What is checked on the EVAC panel during the Preliminary cockpit prep?

A

CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position

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31
Q

While conducting the Emergency Evacuation Checklist, the flight crew determines evacuation is required. How should the flight crew command an evacuation?

A

Make a PA announcement

Press the EVAC COMMAND button

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32
Q

What type of flight control system does the 320 family use

A

Fly by wire

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33
Q

Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated

A

Electrically controlled and Hydraulically activated

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34
Q

How is normal law indicated on the PFD

A
  • Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits

- Amber/black (Alpha prot) airspeed tape

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35
Q

How is Alternate law indicated on the PFD

A

Amber Xs (indicating lack of normal law protections)

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36
Q

How is Direct Law indicated on the PFD

A 
Amber "Use man pitch trim"
Amber Xs (indicating lack of normal law protections)
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37
Q

How is Mechanical Backup indicated on the PFD

A
  • Red “Man pitch trim only”

- Amber Xs (indicating lack of normal law protections)

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38
Q

When operating in Normal Law in “flight” mode, what does this side stick command for pitch and roll?

A
  • Pitch is G load

- Bank is roll rate

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39
Q

What is the significance of the side stick priority (Red Arrow) light?

A

The other pilot gained side stick authority

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40
Q

Name the flight control computers and the number of each.

A
  • ELAC- Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
  • SEC- Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
  • FAC- Flight Augmentation Computer (2)
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41
Q

What are some ELAC functions

A
  • Normal Elevator
  • Normal Aileron
  • Normal Pitch and Roll
  • Alternate pitch
  • Direct Pitch and roll
  • Abnormal attitude
  • Aileron Droop
  • Autopilot orders
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42
Q

What are some functions of the SEC computers

A
  • Normal roll
  • Speed brakes
  • Alternate pitch
  • Direct pitch
  • Direct Roll
  • Abnormal attitude
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43
Q

What does the SEC 3 control

A

Spoiler Control- one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing

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44
Q

What are some of the FAC functions

A
  • Rudder Trim
  • Rudder travel limit
  • Yaw Control
  • Flight envelope protection-Vertical
  • Windshear protection
  • Low Energy Warning protection
  • Alpha Floor Protection
  • Characteristic PFD speeds
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45
Q

What should happen to the THS after landing?

A

Reset to Zero

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46
Q

Describe some of the protections a pilot will have in Normal law

A
  • High Speed
  • High angle of Attack (AOA Alpha Protection)
  • Load factor limitation +2.5G/-1.0G +2G/0G slats/flaps)
  • Pitch Attitude (30 degrees up/ 15 degrees down)
  • Bank angle 67 degrees
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47
Q

Describe high speed protections

A

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.

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48
Q

What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?

A

It is not possible to over ride a protection while still in normal law. in this case the aircraft would need to be forced into Alternate law (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example)

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49
Q

What is ALPHA MAX

A

The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.

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50
Q

How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?

A

When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is not proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection.

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51
Q

What protections, if any, does a pilot have in Alternate law?

A
  • Load Factor
  • High-speed stability
  • Low speed stability
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52
Q

What protections if any does a pilot have in Direct law

A

None

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53
Q

When, if at all, does flare mode activate in Alternate Law? Describe the whole process.

A

There is no flare mode if operating in Alternate law. The aircraft proceeds directly from Alternate Law to Direct Law when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available

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54
Q

If in Alternate Law, when will the aircraft revert to Direct Law?

A

If the controls degrade to Alternate Law for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, Direct Law automatically becomes activate with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.

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55
Q

When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection

A
  • When in Direct law

- When below 100 feet

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56
Q

It’s common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in Normal Law. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.

A
  • Faulty Radio Altimeter
  • A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen. Preventative systems such as (Alpha Prot, Alpha max etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle of attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in Normal Law. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.
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57
Q

After recovery from an unusual attitude, what control law would the aircraft likely be in?

A

Abnormal attitude law

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58
Q

How would the aircraft enter Abnormal attitude law

A

By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits.

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59
Q

What is the purpose of Abnormal attitude law?

A

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.

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60
Q

If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up in normal law?

A

30 degrees up

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61
Q

If the flight crew selected 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly?

A

Vls

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62
Q

Describe, in detail, what would happen if the flight crew slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle.

A
  • As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain attitude.
  • If the angle of attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. stick movement commands a specific angle of attack instead of a G load change
  • Since auto trimming is inop, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT.
  • The side stick no longer provides a “G demand.” Instead, the pilot is requesting a specific angle of attack with the side stick.
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63
Q

Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go

A
  • The speed corresponding the ALPHA MAX
  • With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a maximum safe angle of attack (ALPHA MAX). This maximum angle of attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle of attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW.
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64
Q

At some point during the demonstrations the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?

A
  • ALPHA FLOOR is a function of Autothrust. it will activate at any airspeed based on angle of attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
  • Alpha floor is available if the autothrust is functional (does not need to be active) an engine running (not both) and the aircraft is in Normal law.
  • Angle of attack protection does not depend on Alpha floor to function.
  • On NEO aircraft, Alpha floor is inhibited above M0.6
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65
Q

Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to over stress the aircraft while in Normal law.

A
  • Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs
  • If G load becomes greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock
  • When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
  • When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeeed changes.
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66
Q

What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the flight crew?

A
  • An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the mazimum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
  • The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeed indicator as a green = sign
  • An over speed warning is generated as Vmo is exceeded (specifically at Vmo+4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER Cancel button.
  • If the stick is released, the speed will return to Vmo/Mmo. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed to permit any necessary maneuvering but the speed will again slow to the limit.
  • If angle of attack protection is active, and the pilot maintains full lateral deflection on the sidestick, the bank angle will not go beyond 45 degrees
  • If high speed protection is active, bank angle is limited to 40 degrees
  • if high speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero.
  • It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the maximum attainable speed.
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67
Q

Generally what is the total fuel capacity?

A

42,000 (41,285)

68
Q

Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000 lbs indicated on the ECAM FOB

A

It can expand by 2% without vending overboard

69
Q

How many fuel pumps are on the A320

A
  1. 2 center pumps, 4 wing tank pumps (two on each wing) and an APU pump
70
Q

What does a fault light on one of the tank pumps indicate?

A

Low delivery pressure

71
Q

What does a fault light in the mode selector on the fuel panel indicate?

A

Failure of AUTO mode

Center tank has more than 550 lbs and either wing tank is less than 11,000 pounds

72
Q

How do you know if fueling is in process?

A

REFUELG message on ECAM indicates fueling door is open

73
Q

Describe IDG cooling and how it relates to FADEC

A

Some fuel goes from high-pressure fuel line through the IDG heat exchanger and back to the wing
FADEC controls the fuel return valve

74
Q

On aircraft without jet pumps, what happens if the IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tank while the center tanks are feeding?

A

Center tank pumps cut off until the wing tank is reduced by 1,100 lbs

75
Q

What is the appox fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank?

A

1,500 lbs

76
Q

when do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks

A

When one inner tank reaches aprox 1,650 lbs

77
Q

Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?

A

Automatically at the next refueling operation.

78
Q

What are some of the parameters of the Air Data Reference System?

A

Barometric Altitude, airspeed, overspeed warning, temperature, angle of attack, mach.

79
Q

What are some of the parameters of the IR

A

Attitude, FPV, track, heading, acceleration, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position

80
Q

If there was an IR1/ADR1 fault, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

ATT/HDG to Capt 3

81
Q

If the AIR DATA portion of the #1 ADIRU failed, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

Air Data to Capt 3

82
Q

Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.

A
  • Switch from OFF to NAV
  • ON BAT light illuminates then goes out
  • Whight ALIGN light illuminates until Alignment finished
  • In 320’s the E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel
83
Q

What is the importance of observing the ON BAT light?

A

To confirm the ADIRS ability to revert to aircraft battery power

84
Q

what are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?

A
  • An external horn sounds

- An ADIRU&AVNCS light illuminates in blue on the external power panel

85
Q

What is significant about a steady FAULT light on the IR

A

IR has failed and cannot be recovered

86
Q

What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light in the IR?

A

Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.

87
Q

What could cause the flashing light ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?

A
  • PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast alignment
  • Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position
  • Aircraft movement during alignment
88
Q

Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?

A
  • The pilots would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR
  • The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT3 or F/O3 as appropriate
  • At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal
89
Q

If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?

A

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted.

90
Q

What is the difference between position one and two on the nav lights

A

separate bulbs

91
Q

What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?

A

AUTO

92
Q

When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

A

When the computer logic considers the aircraft airborne.

93
Q

What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?

A

Automatic APU shutdown has occurred

94
Q

What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?

A

APU is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.

95
Q

What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?

A

APU fire

96
Q

With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft.

A

2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft

97
Q

If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cool-down cycle?

A

Press the APU master SW pushbutton

98
Q

What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?

A
  • Floor proximity emergency escape path lighting

- Over head emergency lighting

99
Q

What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON

A
  • Overhead emergency lighting
  • Floor proximity escape path lighting
  • Exit lights
100
Q

What occurs when the EMER EXIT light switch is placed to OFF?

A
  • All lights off

- Amber emer exit light off light illuminates

101
Q

Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?

A

It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries

102
Q

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A

Captain instrument panel
Right dome light
standby compass

103
Q

How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, Semi-automatic, and manual modes?

A
  • Automatic FGGC when ldg elevation knob in Auto
  • Semi-Auto by LDG ELEV selector knob
  • Manual- By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch
104
Q

What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?

A
  • Closes outflow valves
  • Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet
  • Closes the AVIONICS ventilation inlet and extract valve
  • Closes pack flow control valves
  • Forward cargo isolation outlet valve (if installed)
  • Cargo re circulation fans stop automatically (if installed)
  • Closes all valves below the waterline
105
Q

How many controllers are in the pressurization system? Do they share the load?

A

Two, Only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.

106
Q

How can a pilot manually switch controllers?

A

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO

107
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

108
Q

What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?

A

Two pressure relief valves

109
Q

What happens if the WING anti ice button is selected to ON while on the ground

A

The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne

110
Q

What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate

A

Valve disagreement

Low pressure

111
Q

What does the ENG FAULT light on the ANTI ICE panel mean

A

Valve disagreement

112
Q

Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic

A

Probes and window heat come on automatically (probes LOW on ground/HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne.

113
Q

What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats

114
Q

What position does the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A

Wing- Fails CLOSED

Engine- Fails Open

115
Q

What is the significance of high swept wings verses less swept wings in ice accumulation?

A

The more swept the wing, the less time the moisture to attach.

116
Q

If Pack Flow is selected to LO, Norm or High and only the APU is providing bleed air or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?

A

High flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic

117
Q

If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?

A

All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value.
Pack 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temp selector knobs.

118
Q

How are the PACKS controlled and operated?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

119
Q

What are some causes for PACK FAULT light

A
  • valve position disagrees with selected
  • compressor outlet overheat
  • pack outlet overheat
120
Q

What are some causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?

A 
Bleed overpressure
bleed overheat
wing or engine leak on the related side
Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
Bleed valve NOT closed with APU Bleed On
121
Q

What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?

A

SHUT- valve is closed
AUTO- open if the APU bleed valve is open and closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak
OPEN- The valve is open

122
Q

What does the APU BLEED FAULT light indicate

A

APU bleed leak

123
Q

What does selecting the RAM AIR button accomplish

A

Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI

124
Q

What is the RAM AIR push button used for

A
  • Smoke removal in the cabin

- Ventilation of the cabin with dual pack failure

125
Q

How long should the batteries be charged?

A

20 minutes then recheck the voltage

126
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage

A

25.6V

127
Q

What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below?

A

Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT button to AUTO

128
Q

How do you do the BAT check? what do you do if it fails.

A
  • Select ELEC on ECAM
  • Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
  • Check BAT charge is <60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
  • If it fails wait until the end of charging cycle and redo test
129
Q

Describe the electrical power system

A

3 generators produce AC power with 3 phase 115/200 volt 400 hertz constant frequency.
DC system is 28-Volt and DC power can be converted to AC power

130
Q

If all AC power is lost what happens?

A

DC power from the batteries is converted into AC

131
Q

What would be an expected indication in the GEN button prior to engine start

A

FAULT indication

132
Q

Define and describe an IDG

A
  • Integrated Drive Generator

- Takes variable engine output and gives constant output.

133
Q

How would a pilot disconnect an IDG

A

By pressing the IDG pushbutton and holding it for longer than 3 seconds

134
Q

How would an IDG be reconnected

A

This cannot be done by the flight crew- MX has to do it

135
Q

Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO

A
  • Allows a single source of power to run entire electrical system
  • Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power system
  • Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
136
Q

If GEN 2 fails to supple AC BUS 2 what happens?

A

GEN 2 pweres the system through the bus tie.

137
Q

How is the AC ESS bus normally powered

A

From AC bus 1

138
Q

If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered

A

AC bus 2 automatically feed the AC ESS bus

139
Q

What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?

A

AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminate

140
Q

What does a GALLEY fault light indicate

A

at least one generator load is above 100% rated output

141
Q

Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY button

A

Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available

142
Q

How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered

A

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor

143
Q

What busses are powered by the EMER GEN?

A
  • AC and DC ESS BUS

- AC and DC SHED BUS

144
Q

What is the difference of the APU GEN FAULT and the ENG GEN FAULT

A

Both are indicators of a line contactor open. The difference is the the ENG GEN fault may also indicate a fault detected by the ENG GCU

145
Q

What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?

A

Battery charging current outside limits

BAT contactor open

146
Q

When are the batteries connected to the battery bus

A
  • Apu start
  • Battery charging
  • AC bus 1&2 not powered and airspeed below 100 ktsw
147
Q

What are the three HYD systems called?

A

Green, Yellow, Blue

148
Q

How is each HYD system powered?

A

Green- Engine Driven
Blue- Electrically Driven
Yellow- Engine or electrically driven

149
Q

How does the Blue pump normally operate?

A

After First engine is started

150
Q

If the BLUE system lost pressure, how would pressure be restored?

A

The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON button.

151
Q

What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication

A

On the ground, coordinate with ground personnel and turn on the beacon and the yellow ELEC pump

152
Q

With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened

A

By using a hand pump

153
Q

What causes the PTU to operate in if selected in AUTO?

A

Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems
After first engine start and until second engine starts unless inhibibited

154
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  • On the ground with master switches split AND either nose wheel steering disconnected, or the parking brake on
  • For 40 seconds after cargo door is operated
155
Q

What are some users of the green system

A
  • Landing gear
  • Normal brakes
  • Slats and flaps
  • Eng 1 thrust reverser
156
Q

What are some of the users of the BLUE system

A
  • Emergency generator

- Slats

157
Q

What are some users of the YELLOW system

A
  • Flaps
  • Nose wheel steering
  • Alternate brakes
158
Q

What do the priority valves do in the HYD system

A

remove hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects flight controls

159
Q

What would cause a fault in the ENG 1 pump?

A
  • Pump low pressure
  • Over temp in reservoir
  • Low air pressure in reservoir
  • Low quantity
160
Q

If the FAULT light illuminated in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the specific reason for the FAULT

A

Ecam will display the reason

161
Q

Where are the engine fire loops installed?

A
  • Pylon nacelle
  • Engine core
  • Fan Section
162
Q

What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?

A

Fire warning will be issued (if the failure occurs within 5 seconds

163
Q

What does an amber DISCH light mean?

A

Bottle has lost its pressure either by fault or pilot selection

164
Q

How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?

A

2

165
Q

What happens when the ENG FIRE button is pushed

A
  • Silences the aural fire warning
  • Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
  • closes the low-pressure fuel valve
  • Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
  • closes the engine bleed valve
  • closes the pack flow control valve
  • Cuts off the FADEC power supply
  • Deactivates the IDG
166
Q

What happens when the ENG FIRE TEST button is pressed?

A
  • Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) sounds
  • MASTER WARNING lights flash
  • ENG FIRE push button lights up
  • SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate
  • ECAM fire warning
  • FIRE light on the ENG panel
167
Q

What would occur if the APU is running and an APU fire is detected on the ground? Inflight?

A

Ground- APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge

Inflight- No automatic functions

Spirit Airlines Upgrade 7/2018 (7 decks)

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