Study Guide 6 Flashcards

1
Q

A physical restraint must be removed .
1. Every 2 hours
2. Every 30 minutes
3. Twice per shift
4. As requested by resident

A

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2
Q

Nosocomial infections are associated with .
1. Institutionalization
2. Food and beverage
3. Sexual transmission
4. Post surgical conditions

A

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3
Q

Required daily nursing hours are determined by .
1. CMS
2. OBRA
3. The facility
4. The state with federal approval

A

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4
Q

The most significant aspect of staff providing good resident care is .
.
1. Staff education
2. Staff work experience
3. Staff attitude towards the residents
4. Staff experience in dealing with the elderly

A

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5
Q

A resident may not be discharged by a facility because the .
1. Resident’s needs cannot be met
2. Resident no longer requires services
3. Resident failed to pay facility bill
4. Resident’s payor source changed

A

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6
Q

The social worker may not provide .
1. Psychiatric therapy
2. Counseling
3. Utilization of community resources
4. Services provided by the interdisciplinary team

A

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7
Q

The problem most residents experience when facing nursing home placement is .
1 Fear of death
2. Loss of social identity
3. Anxiety related to the unknown
4. Loss of self respect

A

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8
Q

A discharge summary may be .
1. The last progress note
2. Written by the DON
3. Recorded in the face sheet
4. Written and signed by the attending physician

A

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9
Q

Regarding advanced directives, which is not true?
1. All residents must be informed of their rights
2. A facility must have policies and procedures regarding advanced directives
3. A facility must require residents sign an advance directive upon admission
4. A facility is not required to provide care that may conflict with an advanced directive

A

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10
Q

If a resident is declared mentally incompetent by a court, the rights of the resident would be assigned
to .
1. The facility
2. The ombudsman
3. A court appointed representative
4. The resident’s children

A

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11
Q

A social worker, when dealing with a resident who constantly complains about everything, should
.
1. Ignore the resident’s complaints
2. Resolve the resident’s complaints
3. Explain to the resident they do not have any real problems
4. Explain that everyone has problems

A

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12
Q

works best with severely demented residents.
1. Reality therapy
2. Music Therapy
3. Physical therapy
4. Validation therapy

A

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13
Q

All menus must be approved by the .
.
1. Dietary manager
2. Dietician
3. Attending physician
4. Medical director

A

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14
Q

Hot food must leave the kitchen at degrees.
1. 110
2. 120
3. 130
4. 135
5. 140

A

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15
Q

The percentage of weight loss for a resident who previously weighed 180 pounds and now weighs
171 pounds?
1. 1.9
2. 2.0
3. 5.0
4. 9.0

A

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16
Q

The maximum allowable hours between the evening meal and breakfast is hours.
1. 12
2. 13
3. 14
4. 18

A

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17
Q

Per OBRA, an attending physician must see a resident every 30 days for the first ___ days and then
every ____ days thereafter.
1. 30, 60
2. 60, 30
3. 90, 60
4. 120, 60

A

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18
Q

Under OBRA, the is not required to attend the quality assessment and
improvement committee.
1. Three other staff members
2. Administrator
3. Director of nursing
4. Attending physician

A

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19
Q

The main focus of an activities program is .
1. Fun and enjoyment
2. Number of participants
3. Generating revenue
4. Offering a large number of activities

A

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20
Q

The assessment of a resident’s condition results in .
1. An evaluation of the past
2. A description of current status
3. A forecast of future condition
4. A decision as to action to be taken

A

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21
Q

Medical records belong to the .
1. Resident
2. Facility
3. Attending physician
4. CMS

A

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22
Q

The primary purpose of medical records is .
1. Continuity of care
2. Legal documentation
3. Follow physician orders
4. Conform to state and federal laws

A

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23
Q

Per OBRA, a resident’s medical chart must not contain .
1 Progress Notes
2 Resident assessments
3 Resident plan of care
4 Medicare and Medicaid documentation

A

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24
Q

Oral physician orders cannot be given to the .
1. Ward clerk
2. Nurse
3. Physician
4. Pharmacist

A

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25
Q

The drug regimen of each resident must be checked monthly by the .
1 Medical director
2 Director of Nursing
3 Consultant pharmacist
4 Administrator

A

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26
Q

may be stored in the medication room.
1. Outdated drugs
2. Deteriorated drugs
3. Discontinued drugs
4. Topical medications

A

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27
Q

The physical therapist job is not fully done unless staff .
1. Is fully trained
2. Is involved in the process of helping the resident
3. Is trained to provide therapy in place of the physical therapists
4. Minimum Wage and Hour Act

A

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28
Q

The most effective form of communication is .
1. A memo
2. Face to face
3. An email
4. By telephone

A

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29
Q

Written communication is preferred over oral communication when the information .
1. Has a specific time limit
2. Requires no interpretation
3. Requires immediate feedback
4. Must pass through several levels of management

A

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30
Q

A resident is restrained without a physician’s orders and has not had a bath today. How many
resident rights have been violated?
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

A

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31
Q

An employee enters the administrator’s office visibly upset. The administrator should respond by
.
1 Listening
2. Encoding
3. Analyzing
4. Speaking

A

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32
Q

During an applicant interview, the interviewer may ask about .
.
1. Prior work experience
2. Physical and health problems
3. Ownership of a house or car
4. Number of children and marital status

A

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33
Q

Supervisors contribute to positive employee morale most when dealing with employees by .
1. Disciplining consistently and fairly
2 Permit only self discipline
3. Arrange salary increases at regular intervals
4. Having coffee with employees

A

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34
Q

When an employee makes an error, it is best to correct the employee .
1. At a staff meeting
2. Immediately and in private
3. Off the job on the employee’s time
4. Only when the matter becomes serious

A

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35
Q

A garnishment or attachment requires an employer to withhold monies from an employee’s
paycheck and .
1. Forward it to a creditor
2. Hold it until the debt is paid
3, Deposit it into a designated federal bank
4. Forward the money to the appropriate government agency

A

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36
Q

The primary purpose of a job description is to .
1. Establish job procedures
2. Establish a job schedule
3. Standardize work performance
4. Outline job responsibilities of each job

A

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37
Q

The main purpose of the personnel function is .
1. Staffing
2. Planning
3. Directing
4. Organizing

A

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38
Q

The best source of new employees is usually .
1 Employment agencies
2. Newspaper advertisements
3 Referrals from current employees
4 State unemployment office

A

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39
Q

Relationships between departments and employees and the lines of authority are best shown in the
.
1. Chart of accounts
2. Organizational chart
3. Staff directory
4. Employee handbook

A

2

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40
Q

Fringe benefits are outlined in the .
1. Job Analysis
2. Personnel policies
3. Job Description
4. Procedures manual

A

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41
Q

The goal of the activities program should be focused on .
1. Developing skills
2. Completing specific tasks
3. The activities of daily living
4. Participation and enjoyment

A

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42
Q

The shows the lines of authority between departments and employees.
1. Chart of Accounts
2. Personnel policies
3. Organizational chart
4. The bylaws

A

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43
Q

Which if the following causes the highest number of resident injuries?
1. Cuts
2. Falls
3. Burns
4. Bruises

A

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44
Q

Fringe benefits are outlined in the .
1. Job description
2. Personnel policies
3. Procedure manuals
4. Job analysis

A

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45
Q

An employee works 52 hours in a one week work period at a rate of $8.00 per hour. What would be
the total gross salary including overtime pay?
1. $390
2. $406
3. $416
4. $464

A

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46
Q

is required by the Fair Labor Standards Act.
1. Holiday pay
2. Vacation pay
3 Overtime pay
4. Sick pay

A

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47
Q

The primary fire fighting tools in a nursing facility are .
1. Sprinkler systems and alarm pulls
2. Smoke detectors and telephone lines
3 Smoke barriers, corridor walls and resident doors
4. Internal fire fighting equipment and hand held extinguishers

A

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48
Q

An employee’s right to know relates to .
1. Resident rights
2. Hepatitis B virus
3. Universal precautions
4. Hazardous communications

A

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49
Q

The term lockout-tagout refers to .
1. Controlling hazardous energy
2. Safe Medical Devices Act
3. Methods of identifying chemicals
4. Techniques used to separate residents

A

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50
Q

The MSDS means .
1. Muscular Dystrophy Syndrome
2. Manufacturers Safety Detailed Sheets
3. Materials Safety Data Sheets
4. Manual of Safety Details and Statistics

A

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51
Q

Emergency generators must be tested .
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Annually

A

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52
Q

are covered by both Part A and B of Medicare.
1. Home health visits
2. Hearing aids
3. Physical checkups
4. Private duty nurses

A

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53
Q

A simple definition of strategic planning is .
1. Long range budget planning
2. Marketing and public relations
3. Utilization and allocation of resources
4. Preparing for future eventualities and uncertainties

A

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54
Q

A simple definition of strategic planning is .
1. Long range budget planning
2. Marketing and public relations
3. Utilization and allocation of resources
4. Preparing for future eventualities and uncertainties

A

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55
Q

is not a type of authority.
1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. Direct

A

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56
Q

One of the major mistakes a rookie manager makes is to .
1. Under manage
2. Fail to manage
3. Over manage
4. Not Manage

A

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57
Q

An administrator must be willing to .
1. Perform all tasks
2. Prevent any mistakes
3. Be held accountable
4. Answer all requests

A

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58
Q

The term echelons refer to .
1. Leadership
2. Management styles
3. Levels of management
4. Micromanagement techniques

A

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59
Q

If the wrong medication is given to a resident, the facility would be covered by .
1. Malpractice insurance
2. Product liability insurance
3. Contractual liability insurance
4. Personal injury liability insurance

A

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60
Q

Procedures should be prepared by .
1. Governing body
2. Supervisors
3. Home office
4. The administrator

A

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61
Q

sets forth standards to protect resident medical records.
1. OBRA
2. HIPAA
3. CMS
4. OSHA

A

2

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62
Q

A statute of limitations specifies .
1. Type of lawsuit that may be brought
2. The amount of damages a plaintiff may receive
3. The time period in which a lawsuit may be filed
4. Nature of evidence that can be produced in a lawsuit

A

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63
Q

The Safe Medical Devices Act requires .
1. Medical devices be shipped completely unassembled
2. Annual in-services on the care and handling of medical devices
3. Reporting any incidents where a medical device injured someone
4. Notification to OSHA within 8 hours

A

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64
Q

Subrogation refers to .
1. Plea bargaining
2. Pleading guilty to a crime
3. Using paper towels to dry hands
4. Substituting one person or party for another to a lawful claim or right

A

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65
Q

Chemical manufacturers must convey information about hazards to workers by means of labels and
.
1. Seminars
2. Materials safety data sheets
3. The use of form 2567
4. OSHA bulletins

A

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66
Q

The guidelines and requirements of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act are issued by .
1. EEOC
2. OSHA
3. Dept of Labor
4. Long Term Care Ombudsman

A

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67
Q

Before a resident is eligible for inpatient care in a skilled nursing facility under title XVIII, the resident
must have a night stay in a hospital.
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Five

68
Q

Per OBRA, all contaminated sharps must be .
1. Discarded immediately after use
2. Discarded at the end of a shift
3. Discarded within a reasonable time period
4. Sanitized before re-use

69
Q

The ombudsman was established by .
1. OBRA
2. FSLA
3. Older Americans Act
4. Americans with Disabilities Act

70
Q

Per Title XIX of the Social Security Act, menus for food actually served residents must be retained for
days.
1. 30
2. 60
3. 90
4. 120

71
Q

The major payment source for most long term nursing home residents is .
1. Medicaid
2. Medicare
3. Private pay
4. Insurance

72
Q

Each state is required to license all nursing home facilities and to inspect .
1. Facilities licensed by the state
2. Medicaid certified facilities
3. Medicare certified facilities
4. All of the above

73
Q

The primary purpose of a safety program is .
1. Accident prevention
2. Safety awareness
3. Investigate all accidents
4. Plan safety programs

74
Q

Resident rights have been categorized by .
1, HIPAA
2. OSHA
3. OBRA
4. Civil Rights Act

75
Q

Management by Walking Around is a concept developed by
1. Waterman
2. Maslow
3. Peters
4. McGregor

76
Q

is the most effective method to increase occupancy.
1. Word of Mouth
2. Advertisement
3. Physician recommendations
4. Hospital case managers

77
Q

is not part of the “planning” function.
1. Staffing
2. Budgets
3. Policies
4. Goals

78
Q

Making objectives operational by making them specific to each department is called .
1. Value analysis
2. Objectives by design
3. People oriented objectives
4. Management by objectives

79
Q

MBWA is a .
1. Management style
2. Method of controlling
3. Task oriented system
4. Technique to replace authority and supervision

80
Q

Organizing is basically .
1. Policies and procedures
2. Creation of goals
3. Grouping people and activities
4. Influencing employees to achieve organizational goals

81
Q

When comparing leadership with management, management is .
1. Flexible and spontaneous
2. Challenges the status quo
3. Focused much more on systems
4. Focused on developing long range perspectives

82
Q

Delegation of administrative authority is widely encouraged because it .
1. Relieves the administrator of tedious tasks
2. Leads to greater efficiency by allocating specific duties to individuals
3. Divides the work more equitably
4. Gives employees opportunity to cross train

83
Q

Strategies are plans of action and are part of the _____ function.
1. Staffing
2. Controlling Quality
3. Planning
4. Directing

84
Q

Demographic information relates to .
1. Statistics about population
2. Income level
3. Political party affiliation
4. Health care spending

85
Q

One of the best examples of the resident group dynamic is the .
1. Family night program
2. Resident bingo game
3. Resident dining room
4. Resident council

86
Q

_____drugs are for external use only.
1. Analgesic
2. Topical
3. Schedule II
4. Narcoleptic

87
Q

Training staff in assisting residents with their activities of daily living is the responsibility of the .
1. Administrator
2. Physical Therapist
3. Director of Nursing
4. Occupational Therapist

88
Q

After a comprehensive assessment has been done, the comprehensive care plan is due within days.
1. 7
2. 10
3. 14
4. 21

89
Q

Per OBRA, a resident’s physician is not required to .
1. Sign and date all orders
2. Review all consultant reports
3. Write, sign and date progress notes
4. Review all medication and treatment

90
Q

The policies and procedures for activities programs should include .
1. Volunteers
2. Occupational therapists
3. Physical therapists
4. Administrator

91
Q

An evaluation of the activity program should be aimed at .
1. Variety of activities
2. Number of participants
3. Creating a balance of games and crafts
4. Whether the activities meet the needs and desires of all residents

92
Q

Surveyors are less concerned with how often information is gathered then .
1. Recommendations
2. Who charts the information
3. When the information is charted
4. Whether sufficient progress is recorded in the chart

93
Q

The have most contact with residents and need training most in effective communication.
1. Activity director
2. Housekeeping supervisor
3. Certified nursing assistants
4. Licensed nurses

94
Q

A physiatrist .
1, Works with mental illness
2. Works primarily with athletes
3. Provides physical training programs
4. Works with physical and occupational therapists

95
Q

Flexion, rotation, abduction and ROM are all terms referring to .
1. Menus
2. Exercises
3. Nursing practices
4. Treatment to be provided by a Speech Therapist

96
Q

Heat and hydrotherapy are mostly used by .
1. Physical therapists
2. Speech therapists
3. Occupational therapists
4. Restorative nursing aides

97
Q

is not productive when counseling an employee.
1. Listening
2. Getting personally involved
3. Being nonjudgmental
4. Avoidance of criticism

98
Q

If a nursing assistant has a grievance, the final step in the grievance process is the .
1. Administrator
2. Charge nurse
3. Director of Nursing
4. Resident council

99
Q

The primary purpose of the skilled rehabilitation program is to .
1. Help residents live life to the fullest
2. Help resident’s improve so they can be discharged
3. Return residents to their former level of functioning
4. Help residents improve and be able to handle their activities of daily living

100
Q

Every new employee must complete a Form I-9 within days of hiring.
1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 10

101
Q

During a performance appraisal, the supervisor should .
1. Bring up new issues
2. Select negative incidents
3. Use broad generalizations
4. State well defined job expectations

102
Q

To ensure work is completed on time, the administrator should .
1. Establish work teams
2. Assign only one person to one task
3. Schedule the work and observe the progress
4. Delegate work load evenly to the employees

103
Q

Coordination deals primarily with .
1. Unifying the efforts of people
2. Formulating overall objectives
3. Recognizing needed authority
4. Directing factors in human relations

104
Q

The use of labor pools or agency personnel can .
1. Increase profit
2. Increase morale
3. Improve working conditions
4. Decrease continuity of care

105
Q

Approving a facility’s annual budget is the responsibility of the .
1. Governing body
2. Administrator
3. CMS
4. Stockholders

106
Q

The primary value of financial management is to allow the administrator to .
1. Prepare tax returns
2. Make decisions
3. Discuss financial results with the CPA
4. Inform the home office

107
Q

is a noncash expense.
1. FICA
2. Payroll
3. Insurance
4. Depreciation

108
Q

is not a revenue center.
1. Social services
2. Dietary services
3. Nursing services
4. Beauty salon

109
Q

is an operating expense.
1. Purchasing a computer
2. Paving the parking lot
3. Weekend overtime wages
4. Installing wall partitions in resident areas

110
Q

Labor cost in a nursing home as percentage of all expenses, generally averages _ percent of all
costs.
1. 30 to 40
2. 40 to 50
3. 50 to 60
4. 60 to 70

111
Q

is a payroll tax.
1. Worker’s compensation insurance
2. Social Security tax
3. State unemployment insurance
4. Federal unemployment insurance

112
Q

The primary purpose of an operating budget is to .
1. Determine profit or loss
2. Establish reimbursement rates
3. Record income and expenses
4. Provide a method for ongoing study and control

113
Q

Financial statements are necessary to determine if a business is .
1. Producing income
2. Solvent and profitable
3. Producing capital gains
4. Reducing debt

114
Q

The terms FIFO and LIFO refer to .
1. Depreciation schedules
2. Aging of payables accounts
3. Inventory valuing methods
4. Aging of receivables accounts

115
Q

A facility is required to provide 3.0 hours of nursing care per day per resident. The facility has a capacity of
180 residents with a current occupancy of 90%. How many fulltime employees would be required if each
nurse worked 8 hours per shift?
1. 39
2. 71
3. 75
4. 77

116
Q

When preparing the budget, the administrator should involve department heads by asking department heads
to .
1. Review supplies used last year and calculate needed supplies for next year
2. Calculate maximum costs for supplies based on a 100% occupancy
3. Provide a breakdown of costs for previous year and let administrator determine budget amounts
4. Review supplies used last year and calculate minimum amount that can be purchased in new budget
year

117
Q

A facility purchased a piece of equipment for $40,000 that is expected to reduce costs by $7,000 per year.
How long is the payback period?
1. 2.80 years
2. 5.71 years
3. 7.00 years
4. 17.50 years

118
Q

A cash flow projection is only valid .
1. For a given operation
2. For a specific time period
3. Up to the end of the month
4. Up to the end of the fiscal year

119
Q

The fire rating of building materials is established by .
1. ANSI
2. The State
3. The life safety code
4. OSHA

120
Q

The Food and Drug Administration enforces .
1. SMDA
2. EEOA
3. OSHA
4. OBRA

A

1, SAFE MEDICAL DEVICE ACT

121
Q

The ultimate mission of a nursing home is to .
1. Make a profit
2. Reduce costs wherever practicable
3. Provide quality care
4. Keeping census high

122
Q

Managing a nursing home begins with .
1. Leadership
2. The owners
3. Adequate funds
4. Sources for obtaining residents

123
Q

Long range goals are to be attained within .
1. Several months
2. 1 year
3. 2 years
4. 3 years or more

124
Q

By-laws do not specify .
1. Staffing for each department
2. The mission, purpose and goals of a corporation
3. Overall financial management of a corporation
4. Corporate officers of a company

125
Q

Medicaid would not cover _ .
1. The aged
2. The blind
3. Individuals temporarily disabled
4. Families with dependent children

126
Q

The consultant pharmacist is responsible to.
1. Destroy drugs
2. Check all drug records
3. Record drug destruction
4. Recruit employees
5. Advertise health services

127
Q

A set of books that lists each transaction in the facility is called .
1. The books
2. Financial statements
3. Monetary records
4. Income and revenue statements

128
Q

An owner who takes cash out of the cash register for his personal use has violated the principle.
1. Consistency
2. Entity
3. Time period
4. Full disclosure

129
Q

When a facility records assets at market value but does not record bad debts it cannot collect, it violates the
principle.
1. Entity
2. Good faith
3. Time period
4. Consistency

130
Q

The main purpose of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles is to .
1. Guarantee honesty among providers
2. Maximize comparability of financial statements between companies
3. Create a single view among financial managers
4. Protect the owners

131
Q

When a facility records expenditures and receipts as they occur, this is called the system of
accounting.
1. Accrual
2. Cash
3. Simplified
4. Depreciated

132
Q

Per GAAP, pieces of paper indicating money owed to the facility, including bank statements, checks and
invoices are called .
1. Paper trail
2. Source documents
3. Bill of lading
4. Records

133
Q

Destroying paper records of purchases made by the facility would violate which principle?
1. Objective evidence
2. Consistency
3. Time period
4. Entity

134
Q

Changing a company’s fiscal year from January 1 to June 30, is an example of violating the
principle.
1. On-going concern
2. Consistency
3. Time period
4. Entity

135
Q

When a facility does not record wages paid to workers, it is violating the principle.
1. Consistency
2. Time period
3. Entity
4. Disclosure

136
Q

If the administrator wants to see the journals, the administrator wants to see .
1. The original entries
2. The assets
3. The debits
4. Current summaries of income and expenses

137
Q

If the administrator wanted a listing of every account in the facility, the accountant would produce the
.
1. Financial report
2. Chart of accounts
3. General journal
4. General ledger

138
Q

A summary of a facility’s well being is reflected in the .
1. Balance Sheet
2. Chart of Accounts
3. Profit and loss statement
4. Statement of changes

139
Q

Money invested in a facility is called .
1. Capital
2. Stock
3. Collateral
4. Income stream

140
Q

Things which are owed by the facility to others are called .
1. Capital
2. Invoices
3. Liabilities
4. Assets

141
Q

Things which are owned by the facility are called .
1. Capital
2. Invoices
3. Liabilities
4. Assets

142
Q

The ability to match revenues to expenses in a given time period is the advantage of the system of
accounting.
1. Accrual
2. Cash
3. Deferred
4. Debits and credits

143
Q

It is difficult to recognize depreciation and prepaid expenses in the accounting system.
1. Accrual
2. Cash
3. Deferred
4. Debits and credits

144
Q

Making a debit and a credit for each financial transaction is known as the bookkeeping system.
1. Single/double
2. Double down
3. Double entry
4. Checks and balances

145
Q

Under the accrual accounting system, the purchase of six months of malpractice insurance
would be recorded in the .
1. General ledger
2. Chart of Accounts
3. General journal
4. Balance sheet

146
Q

In the double entry bookkeeping system, if the bookkeeper records a $500 transaction on the debit
side of the journal, the bookkeeper would then .
1. Make a corresponding debit entry in the general journal
2. Make an entry on the credit side of the journal for $500
3. Make a credit entry in the general ledger
4. Would credit the chart of accounts for $500

147
Q

When errors are discovered in the other journals, they can be corrected in the .
1. General ledger
2. Notes to financial statements
3. Balance sheet
4. General journal

148
Q

Per GAAP, the does not need to be distributed to investors.
1. Chart of accounts
2. Income statement
3. Balance sheet
4. Statement of changes in financial position

149
Q

The income or profit and loss statement shows whether was sufficient to cover expenses.
1. Equity
2. Capital
3. Revenues
4. Assets

150
Q

If the administrator deducted total expenses from total revenues, the administrator would be calculating the
.
1. Net income or loss
2. Adjusted income margin
3. Operating income
4. Adjusted capital

151
Q

A financial statement where the assets must equal the liabilities and capital accounts is called the
.
1. General ledger
2. Balance sheet
3. General journal
4. Income statement

152
Q

The would show the ending balance of the revenue and expense accounts.
1. Income statement
2. Balance sheet
3. Statement of changes
4. General journal

153
Q

An asset which can be turned into cash within 12 months is called a(n) .
1. Accelerated asset
2. Non-current asset
3. Depreciated asset
4. Current asset

154
Q

Funds put into the facility by the owners or investors are included in the calculation of a facility’s .
1. Net worth
2. Bottom line
3. Profit or loss
4. Current liabilities

155
Q

Invoices for food supplies and nursing supplies are classified as .
1. Non current liabilities
2. Contingent liabilities
3. Current liabilities
4. Capitalized expenses

156
Q

Depreciation is an expense associated with the use of .
1. An asset
2. A liability
3. An expense
4. A leasehold

157
Q

Subtracting current liabilities from current assets would tell you the facility’s .
1. Net worth
2. Profit or loss
3. Working capital
4. Capital

158
Q

Comparing the relationship of the same financial measurements over a period of time is called .
1. Comparison analysis
2. Ratio analysis
3. Time period analysis
4. Vertical analysis

159
Q

If an administrator wanted a statement of the financial condition of the facility at year’s end, the administrator
would consult the .
1. Balance sheet
2. Income statement
3. Profit and loss statement
4. General ledger

160
Q

A facility has current assets of $420,000 and current liabilities of $350,000. The facility’s current ratio is .
1. .80
2. 1.2
3. 2.1
4. 3

161
Q

Ratios should be .
1. Measured over time
2. Compared to industry averages over time
3. Expressed in simple terms
4. Compared to future results

162
Q

A facility with 200 hundred residents needs to staff 2 hours of nursing care per resident. A nurse works 8
hours per shift. How many nurses do you need to staff that day?
1. 25
2. 40
3. 50
4. 60

163
Q

A facility with long term debt of $4,000,000 and total equity of $3,000,000 has a debt to equity ratio of ,
1. 1.33
2. 2.33
3. 3.33
4. 4.33

164
Q

Laws passed by a state are called .
1. Statutes
2. Ordinances
3. Federal codes
4. Proclamations

165
Q

A form that summarizes the facility’s admissions, discharges and transfers is called a .
1. Daily census report
2. Occupancy report
3. Bed count form
4. Daily census form

166
Q

Nosocomial infection?

A

Hospital acquired infection