Study Guide 19 Flashcards

1
Q

The annual survey is the .
1. Standard survey
2. Extended Survey
3. Partial extended survey
4. Abbreviated standard survey

A

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2
Q

The must review the medications taken by each resident on a monthly basis.
1. DON
2. Consultant pharmacist
3. Pharmacist
4. Attending physician

A

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3
Q

Physical restraints must be released every 2 hours for .
1. 10 minutes
2. 1 hour
3. 1 1/2 hours
4. 2 hours

A

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4
Q

Which of the following must be on a resident trust fund surety bond?
1. The resident and the facility
2. The facility and the state
3. The resident and the state
4. The resident

A

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5
Q

No soliciting on facility premises would be contained in the .
1. Business office policies
2. Resident care policies
3. Administrative policies
4. Employee handbook

A

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6
Q

Filling a vacant position such as a nurse aide position would customarily be filled through
.
1. A national recruitment effort
2. Local recruiter
3. Employee referrals
4. A temporary personnel agency

A

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7
Q

The pressure to open a door cannot exceed lbs.
1. 3
2. 5
3. 15
4. 20

A

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8
Q

What is the minimum width for 2 wheel chairs to pass?
1. 36 inches
2. 40 inches
3. 48 inches
4. 60 inches

A

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9
Q

The key consideration in determining the minimum level of staffing in a nursing facility is
.
1. Federal and state staffing requirements
2. Facility census
3. Patient acuity levels
4. Direction from corporate

A

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10
Q

Which departments attend the utilization review committee?
1. Business Office
2. Nursing
3. Social Services
4. Rehab
5. MDS
6. All of The Above

A

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11
Q

An emergency power source does not have to power _ .
1. Lights for all entrances and exits
2. Fire detection alarms and extinguishing systems
3. Medicinal prep areas
4. Administrator’s office

A

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12
Q

The maximum audible alarm decibel level is decibels.
1. 95
2. 105
3. 120
4. 130

A

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13
Q

What is the width of a single wheelchair?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 32
4. 36
5. 44

A

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14
Q

If a nurse aide applies for a job but has lived out of state, which registry should the facility
check?
1. School records
2. Abuse registry
3. State nurse registry
4. Multi-state nurse registry

A

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15
Q

For questions concerning union election procedures, the administrator must contact the
1. Department of Labor
2. Wagner Act
3. CMS
4. National Labor Relations Board

A

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16
Q

If a union had a complaint against an employer, it would file the complaint with which of the
following?
1. Department of Labor
2. NLRB
3. OSHA
4. EEOC

A

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17
Q

Which entity must supervise and approve a union election and union bargaining units?
1. Department of Labor
2. OSHA
3. NLRB
4. Taft Hartley Act

A

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18
Q

The percentage of gross profit for a facility with a gross income of $555,000, fixed expenses of
$195,000, and variable expenses of $305,000 is approximately %
1. 2.5%
2. 5.5%
3. 9.9%
4. 11.1%

A

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19
Q

To determine the net worth of a publicly traded company, an investor would look at which
financial statement to determine the financial well-being of the company
1. Income statement
2. Profit and loss statement
3. Ledger
4. Balance sheet

A

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20
Q

The purchase of a building would be from which budget?
1. Capital
2. Income
3. Expense
4. Operating

A

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21
Q

Which of the following is responsible to ensure resident’s rights are respected by staff?
1. Attending physician
2. Administrator
3. Social worker
4. DON

A

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22
Q

Assuming all medications are available and accounted for, the would be responsible to
check the medication records monthly?
1. Attending physician
2. Medical director
3. Consultant pharmacist
4. DON

A

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23
Q

The most effective marketing tool for a nursing home is/are .
1. Ads in newspapers
2. A tour of the facility
3. Ads on television
4. Health care fairs

A

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24
Q

When the DON compares nursing salaries to the nursing salaries being paid by other facilities in
the area, this called ?
1. Manpower inventory
2. Salary survey
3. Wage comparison
4. Benchmarking

A

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25
Q

When the DON compares nursing services to the quality of nursing services offered in other
facilities in the area, this called ?
1. Manpower inventory
2. Salary survey
3. Benchmarking
4. Wage comparison

A

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26
Q

The administrator begins work when the owners or governing body set forth the for the
organization.
1. Mission statement
2. Full Rules
3. Day to day rules and regulations
4. Procedures to be followed

A

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27
Q

If a medication has an automatic stop order, the nurse must:
1. Notify the pharmacist
2. Never renew the medication
3. Notify the physician at the time the drug is last administered
4. Notify the physician before the last dose is administered

A

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28
Q

The accrual method of accounting is required by Medicaid and Medicare and therefore income
and expenses are recorded .
1. On a monthly basis
2. As they are capitalized
3. When they are incurred
4. When they are paid or received

A

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29
Q

How are internal and external drugs stored in the facility?
1. In the same compartment
2. In the same area
3. In separate room
4. In separate compartments

A

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30
Q

The administrator while doing rounds in the facility notices a resident is more confused than
normal and cannot locate their room. The administrator’s most appropriate action would be to
.
1. Discuss the cognitive changes with the physician
2. Request a nurse to evaluate the resident’s condition and report it to the attending
physician if necessary
3. Enter the observations in the residents medical chart
4. Require the nurses to report further changes to the administrator

A

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31
Q

If the administrator wants to know if the facility made money, she would look at the .
1. Balance sheet
2. Profit and loss statement
3. Income statement
4. Both 2 and 3

A

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32
Q

Medicare claims are billed on a form .
1. UB 25
2. UB 04
3. UB 55
4. UB 80

A

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33
Q

The is permitted to dispense medications.
1. LPN
2. DON
3. Med tech
4. Pharmacist

A

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34
Q

To establish a union in a nursing home, the union must get % of the vote of all employees
in a nursing home.
1. 50%
2. 50% plus 1
3. 75%
4. 90%

A

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35
Q

Where a manager and subordinate employees jointly set goals and priorities, this is called
.
1. MBWA
2. MBO
3. Management by Exception
4. Delegation

A

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36
Q

Hospitals with beds or less may have a limited number of beds certified for use as long
term care beds or swing beds
1. 50
2. 75
3. 99
4. 105

A

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37
Q

When a resident participates in experimental research or an investigational drug, the facility
must ensure all of the following except .
1. The resident has a right to participate in experimental research.
2. The resident may be identified by name by the researchers in any publication of the
research results
3. The resident must be fully informed of the nature of the experiment including treatment
and consequences.
4. The resident must be given an opportunity to decline participation before the start of the
experimental research

A

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38
Q

A swing bed is a bed that is certified in a hospital with fewer than beds that may swing
between being used as a certified acute care bed or as a Medicaid/Medicare certified nursing
home bed for patients who no longer require acute care and need sub-acute nursing home care,
but there may not be any nursing homes close to the hospital and the hospital is certified to
serve the needs of patients who need both acute and sub-acute nursing home care.
1. 40
2. 59
3. 80
4. 100
5. 160

A

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39
Q

A 200 bed facility with 140 occupied beds would have a % occupancy rate?
1. 30%
2. 60%
3. 70%
4. 80%

A

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40
Q

HIPAA stands for .
1. Health Information Portability Accountability Act
2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
3. Health Insurance Portability Act
4. Health Information Protection Act

A

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41
Q

If the administrator wants to see the facility’s net worth, he/she would look at the .
1. Balance sheet
2. Profit and loss statement
3. Income statement
4. Both 2 and 3

A

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42
Q

The main objective of OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard does not include .
1. Requiring employers to post Materials Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for employees to
review
2. Providing workers key information to protect themselves
3. Inform workers of the chemicals in the workplace
4. Reporting worker injuries

A

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43
Q

Facility written policies must be reviewed at least as evidenced by written, signed and
dated minutes.
1. Weekly
2. Annually
3. Quarterly
4. Monthly

A

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44
Q

True or False - All persons seeking admission to a nursing facility must be screened for severe
mental illness or developmental disabilities (PASSR) prior to being admitted, regardless of
income, assets, or funding source.
1. True
2. False

A

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45
Q

The main purpose of a pre-admission screening for mental retardation or severe mental illness
is .
1. The facility gets paid a higher reimbursement if a resident is diagnosed with either.
2. A facility cannot admit a resident with either diagnosis for any reason.
3. Medicaid will not pay to keep someone in a nursing facility if their only diagnosis is
mental illness or a developmental disability and they have no other condition requiring
skilled care.
4. A nursing facility cannot meet the needs of a resident with mental illness of
developmental disabilities.

A

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46
Q

If a level 1 PASSR screen indicates an individual has mental illness or developmental
disabilities, then a more comprehensive Level assessment must be completed by the
appropriate state agency.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

A

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47
Q

Residents must be seen by their physician at least .
1. Once every month during their stay
2. Every other month during their stay
3. Once every 30 days for the first 3 months and then every other month thereafter
4. Every 2 months

A

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48
Q

The nursing assistant must successfully complete the training program within days after
the date of initial employment.
1. 30
2. 90
3. 120
4. 150

A

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49
Q

Cost reports must be submitted to the state Medicaid agency within days at the end of the
fiscal year of a facility.
1. 90
2. 120
3. 180
4. 360

A

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50
Q

A resident wearing a physical restraint must have it released for 10 minutes at least once every
,
1. 30 minutes
2. 1 hour
3. 2 hours
4. 3 hours

A

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51
Q

An unnecessary drug is any drug used .
1. In an excessive dose
2. For excessive duration.
3. Without adequate indications or rationale for its use.
4. In the presence of adverse consequences that indicate the drugs should be reduced or
discontinued.
5. All of the above

A

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52
Q

True or False - Residents may be prescribed anti-psychotic drugs without documenting in the
resident chart and comprehensive assessment a rationale for its use.
1. True
2. False

A

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53
Q

Duplicative drug therapy” means .
1. The use of two or more drugs, whether from the same drug category or not, that
produce the same effect
2. Skipping a dose to reduce the amount in the resident’s blood stream
3. Using several different medications at the same time
4. Using anti-coagulants to thin the blood

A

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54
Q

An investor would look at which financial statement to determine the financial well-being of the
company
1. Income statement
2. Profit and loss statement
3. Balance sheet
4. Ledger

A

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55
Q

Must have at least one registered nurse on duty 7 days per week, consecutive hours per
day, in a skilled nursing facility.
1. 24
2. 12
3. 16
4. 8

A

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56
Q

True or False - A facility may stock drugs that are regularly available without prescription.
1. True
2. False

A

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57
Q

Stock drugs must be administered upon the order of a .
1. Consultant pharmacist
2. Licensed prescriber
3. Medical director
4. Pharmacy

A

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58
Q

A list of the contents of each emergency medication kit must be kept .
1. Outside the kit
2. Inside the kit
3. In the Office of the Director of Nursing
4. In medication administration record.

A

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59
Q

The must determine if there are irregularities in each resident’s drug regimen that may
cause potential adverse reactions, allergies, contraindications, medication errors or
ineffectiveness.
1. Director of nursing
2. Registered nurse
3. Licensed practical nurse
4. Consultant pharmacist

A

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60
Q

A medication order not specifically limiting the time or number of doses must .
1. Be followed until changed by the prescriber
2. Be automatically stopped
3. Be stopped if ordered by the Medical director
4. All of the above are correct

A

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61
Q

Medications must be administered by .
1. The licensed prescriber
2. A licensed nurse
3. The same person who prepared the doses for administration
4. A pharmacist

A

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62
Q

Tardives Dyskinesia is a side effect of which type of medication?
1. Anti-psychotic
2. Anti-depressant
3. Anti-Anxiety
4. Sleep inducing

A

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63
Q

All treatments and procedures must be administered as ordered by .
1. The administrator
2. The Director of nursing
3. A Physician
4. An advisory physician.

A

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64
Q

True or False – A physician’s order to administer an anti-depressant medication to a resident is
sufficient justification for its use?
1. True
2. False

A

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65
Q

A critical program to help resident’s attain and maintain their highest practicable physical,
mental and psychosocial well being is the .
1. Restorative nursing program
2. Therapeutic activities program
3. Quality improvement program
4. Infection control program

66
Q

Hazardous food must be kept at a temperatures of ºF or below and ºF or above,
except during necessary periods of preparation and service.
1. 32 ºF and 130 ºF 3. 45 ºF and 140 ºF
2. 41 ºF and 135 ºF 4. 45 ºF and 160 ºF

67
Q

Food must be stored a minimum of inches above the floor.
1. 6 inches 3. 18 inches
2. 12 inches 4. 24 inches

68
Q

A metal stem-type product thermometer with a digital or numerical scale and accurate to plus or
minus ºF must be used to check internal food temperatures.
1. 1 ºF 3. 4 ºF
2. 3 ºF 4. 5 ºF

69
Q

The middle compartment of a 3 compartment sink contains .
1. Hot detergent 3. Sanitizing Solution
2. Fresh water 4. Cold water

70
Q

The final rinse cycle on a hot water dishwasher is .
1. 100 degrees F
2. 120 Degrees F
3. 180 degrees F
4. 230 degrees F

71
Q

E-coli is transmitted from .
1. Beef
2. Fish
3. Chicken
4. Lamb

72
Q

A therapeutic diet must be ordered by a .
1. Licensed physician
2. Dietician
3. Dietary manager
4. Ombudsman

73
Q

All therapeutic diets must be medically prescribed by a physician and must be planned or
approved by a .
1. Licensed physician
2. Dietary manager
3. Speech therapist
4. Dietician

74
Q

Must serve a minimum of meals daily.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

75
Q

All menus as actually served must be kept on file at the facility for not less than days.
1. 15
2. 30
3. 60
4. 90

76
Q

Each diet change must be ordered by the .
1. Dietary manager
2. Dietician
3. Physician
4. Speech therapist.

77
Q

No more than hours may elapse between a substantial evening meal and breakfast.
1. 12
2. 14
3. 16
4. 18

78
Q

True or False – A resident room cannot be used as a public pathway to access other parts of a
facility.
1. True
2. False

79
Q

How often must a nursing facility provide a written record of all financial transactions involving a
resident’s funds?
1. At least quarterly
2. At least monthly
3. At least semi-annually
4. At least annually

80
Q

Title XIX is the Social Security Act is .
1. Medicare
2. EEOA
3. Medicaid
4. Supplemental Security Income

81
Q

Title XVIII of the Social Security Act is .
1. EEOA
2. Medicaid
3. Supplemental Security Income
4. Medicare

82
Q

The national organization that sets the standards for the Life Safety Code is the .
1. American Society for Testing and Materials
2. American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning Engineers
3. National Fire Protection Association
4. American Society of Mechanical Engineers Elevators

83
Q

Which agency is responsible for the prevention and control of infectious diseases in the United
States?
1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
2. CMS
3. OSHA
4. Department of Health and Human Services

84
Q

Which federal law prohibits discrimination based on race, religion, gender, color and national
origin?
1. HIPAA
2. OBRA 1987
3. Civil Rights Act of 1964
4. COBRA

85
Q

“Guardian” means .
1. A person appointed by a court to make decisions for a person determined to be lack
capacity
2. A person designated by a resident to make health care decisions for them
3. A spouse, an adult child, a parent, an adult brother or sister, or an adult grandchild of a
person.
4. A nursing home administrator

86
Q

A resident’s chart should document progress in attaining goals set by the .
1. CMS
2. State surveyors
3. Resident
4. Nursing staff

87
Q

Telephone orders must be transcribed into the resident’s medical record or a telephone order
form and signed by the .
1. Administrator
2. Director of nursing
3. Attending physician
4. Nurse taking the order

88
Q

A facility has days from the date the survey team exits a facility to dispute a tag that was
challenged during the exit conference.
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 30

89
Q

The care plan must be reviewed at least how often?
1. Monthly
2. Weekly
3. Quarterly
4. Annually

90
Q

Personal functions like walking, bathing, shaving, brushing teeth, dressing, eating, getting out of
bed and toileting are called .
1. Core Functions
2. Activities of daily living
3. Baseline activities
4. Therapeutic activities

91
Q

A power of attorney, a healthcare directive or a living will are examples of .
1. A bill of resident rights
2. A tort
3. An advanced directive
4. Resident contracts

92
Q

Harm, injury or death of staff or residents ( e.g., medication errors) or elopement of a resident
are examples of a(n) .
1. Incident
2. Event
3. Impact
4. Infraction

93
Q

A group of residents that meet to address resident issues and to make recommendations to
improve resident care and services is called the .
1. Family Counsel
2. Resident Council
3. Grievance forum
4. Dispute resolution process

94
Q

A written plan of care and services for each resident is called a .
1. Comprehensive assessment
2. Quality improvement
3. Care plan
4. Risk assessment

95
Q

The process used by a facility to examine its practices of providing care and identify ways to
improve performance is called
1. Comprehensive assessment
2. Quality improvement
3. Care plan
4. Risk assessment

96
Q

Short-term care (a period of six (6) weeks or less) provided to an individual to relieve the family
members or other individuals caring for the individual, but for not less than twenty-four (24)
hours is called
1. Custodial Care
2. Skilled Care
3. Respite care
4. Hospice care

97
Q

A person authorized to make decisions for a resident is called the
1. Social worker
2. Nursing home administrator
3. Facility employee willing to make decisions
4. Responsible party

98
Q

How often must facility policies be reviewed and updated?
1. Monthly
2. Quarterly
3. Bi annually
4. Annually

99
Q

Staffing of nurses and nurses aides must be based on .
1. Established budgetary limits
2. Minimum state staffing hours
3. Resident acuity
4. Minimum federal staffing hours

100
Q

True or false – If a facility staffs according to minimum state staffing hours, then it cannot be
cited for insufficient staff.
1. True
2. False

101
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the implementation of policies and procedures that
pertain to resident care and treatment?
1. The administrator
2. The Director of Nursing
3. The Medical Director
4. The governing body

102
Q

Private Sitters and private duty nurses employees of the facility.
1. Are
2. Are not

103
Q

Volunteers, direct care volunteers and paid feeding assistants included in the minimum
staffing requirements.
1. Are
2. Are not

104
Q

A discharge summary would not contain which of the following?
1. Condition at discharge or transfer
2. Date and time of discharge or transfer
3. The final bill
4. Instructions for self-care
5. Instructions for obtaining post-treatment or procedure emergency care
6. Signature of physician authorizing discharge or transfer

105
Q

Resident records may be destroyed after years.
1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 10

106
Q

Resident records are the property of the .
1. The CMS
2. The resident
3. The Facility
4. The resident’s physician

107
Q

Resident records are or are not confidential?
1. Are
2. Are not

108
Q

Records of menus as served must be maintained for at least days and be available for
inspection.
1. 14 days
2. 30 days
3. 60 days
4. 90 days

109
Q

Per OBRA 1987, a dietician must be registered with the .
1. American Medical Association
2. Commission on Dietetic Registration
3. American Dietetic Association
4. American Dietary Association

110
Q

Therapeutic activities for residents are provided by the .
1. Activities department
2. Licensed therapists
3. Nursing department
4. All of the above

111
Q

When state surveyors tour a facility in the early morning, they should observe residents .
1. Lying in bed watching television
2. Sitting in their gowns and smiling
3. Sitting around the nurses station waiting for their meds
4. Neatly dressed and properly groomed

112
Q

Caring for residents in recognition and respect for cultural differences and personal preferences
is called
1. Multi-culturalism
2. Resident centered care
3. Progressive Care
4. Individualism

113
Q

A written report of the balance of resident finances must be physically provided to each resident
on a basis.
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Annual

114
Q

Any personal monies due a resident must be refunded within days.
1. 7
2. 14
3. 30
4. 60

115
Q

True or False – A facility can place reasonable restrictions on visiting hours for residents
1. True
2. False

116
Q

Most post at least month(s) resident activity schedule(s) in order for residents to be made
aware of activities offered.
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

117
Q

Residents must be seen by the attending physician at least once every days for the first
90 days, unless more frequent visits are indicated
1. 30
2. 60
3. 90
4. 120

118
Q

Which federal law sets the standards for overtime and minimum wage?
1. Civil Right Act
2. Equal Pay Act
3. EEOA
4. Fair Labor Standards Act

119
Q

Physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech therapy are services which must be ordered
by .
1. A Registered nurse
2. The rehab director
3. The Medical Director
4. A licensed physician

120
Q

Restrained residents must be allowed to move around and exercise at least every .
1. 15 minutes
2. 2 hours
3. 30 minutes
4. Hour

121
Q

Other than residents transferred back to their home, residents requiring care and/or supervision
must be transferred to .
1. A hospice in-patient care center
2. An adult day care center
3. An assisted living facility
4. A location that is licensed to provide the care that is appropriate to the resident’s needs

122
Q

Which federal law establishes adverse impact as the current standard for discrimination in
employment?
1. Civil Right Act
2. Equal Pay Act
3. EEOA
4. Fair Labor Standards Act

123
Q

Worker’s compensation premiums depend on which of the following factors?
1. Risk class of the occupation
2. The claims experience of the facility
3. State regulations
4. Total amount of payroll for both full time and part time workers
5. All of the above

124
Q

Incoming and outgoing licensed nurses must document and count all Schedule II controlled
substances how often?
1. Once daily
2. Once Weekly
3. At the end of each shift
4. As directed by the consultant pharmacist

125
Q

Keys to the medicine preparation room, cabinet, refrigerator or medication cart at the staff work
area must be under the control of a .
1, Licensed nurse
2. Attending physician
3. Consultant Pharmacist
4. Administrator

126
Q

is a legend medication.
1. Aspirin
2. Milk of magnesia
3. Mineral oil
4. Vicodin

127
Q

Must serve a minimum of meals in each twenty-four-hour (24-hour) period
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

128
Q

Cubicle curtains, window dressings, portable partitions, wastebaskets, mattresses and pillows
must be in accordance with NFPA 701.
1. Noncombustible, inherently flame-resistant, or treated or maintained flame-resistant
2. Water resistant, stain resistant and non-porous
3. Fire ignition resistant and asbestos coated
4. All of the above

129
Q

Each resident room must open directly to .
1. An enclosed porch or patio
2. An exit below grade level
3. A dead end
4. An exit access corridor

130
Q

Plumbing fixtures that require hot water and that are accessible to residents must be at least
degrees Fahrenheit.
1. 90
2. 100
3. 110
4. 120

131
Q

The facility must provide residents an environment that ,
1. Is homelike
2. Emphasizes an institutional appearance
3. Is devoid of personal objects, furniture and pictures
4. Is pleasing to the administrator and staff

132
Q

Meal service operations must be separated from living and sleeping quarters by complete,
ceiling-high walls, and self closing door made of inch solid wood core.
1. 1 inch
2. 1 ½ inch
3. 1 ¾ inch
4. 2 inch

133
Q

Emergency generators must be operated for at least 30 minutes.
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Annually

134
Q

When counseling an upset employee, the administrator should do which of the following?
1. Let the employee talk and listen intently
2. Provide the employee an oral warning that such behavior is disruptive and the next time
it occurs the employee will be written up
3. Send the employee home to cool off
4. Anticipate what the employee will say

135
Q

The administrator works with three types of budgets: 1) operating budget, 2) cash budget and 3)
capital budget. The operating budget would detail and .
1. Cash receipts and cash disbursements
2. Capital purchases and repairs
3. Revenues and expenses
4. Assets and liabilities

136
Q

Specific and authoritative guides to specific action are called .
1. Procedures
2. Guidelines
3. Policies
4. Rule

137
Q

Which federal law requires a facility to inform residents of their right to make an advanced
directive?
1. OBRA 1987
2. Patient Self Determination Act
3. Patient Decision and Directives Act
4. False Claims Act

138
Q

A class D fire extinguisher would be used for a fire.
1. Grease or flammable liquids
2. Electrical
3. Paper or ash
4. Metal

139
Q

A class C Fire extinguisher would be used for a(n) fire.
1. Grease or flammable liquids
2. Electrical
3. Paper or ash
4. Metal

140
Q

A class B fire extinguisher would be used for a fire.
1. Grease or flammable liquids
2. Electrical
3. Paper or ash
4. Metal

141
Q

A class A fire extinguisher would be used for a fire.
1. Grease or flammable liquids
2. Electrical
3. Paper or ash
4. Metal

142
Q

What does current ratio mean?
1. Whether a facility can meet its long term obligations
2. Whether a facility can meet its current obligations
3. Whether a facility can pay its non-current obligations
4. Whether a facility will have enough money to pay its bills

143
Q

What does liquidity mean?
1. A facility has sufficient assets to pay its debts
2. A facility’s debt obligations exceed its assets
3. A facility’s assets equal the amount of debt the company has incurred
4. A facility is bankrupt

144
Q

Residents in restraints must be released from restraints for at least minutes?
1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 30
5. 60

145
Q

What does a debt to equity ratio tell an administrator?
1. Whether a facility can pay its non-current obligations
2. Whether a facility can meet its current obligations
3. Whether a facility has sufficient assets to pay its debts immediately
4. Whether a facility can pay its long term debt obligations

146
Q

Grouping people and activities to carry out plans and accomplish goals is the function called
.
1. Evaluating
2. Planning
3. Organizing
4. Controlling quality
5. Directing

147
Q

Deciding what to do, when to do it, and who will do it is the function called .
1. Evaluating
2. Planning
3. Organizing
4. Controlling quality
5. Directing

148
Q

Influencing employees to strive to achieve company goals is the function of .
1. Evaluating
2. Planning
3. Organizing
4. Controlling quality
5. Directing

149
Q

Taking action to correct a deficient situation is the function of .
1. Evaluating
2. Planning
3. Organizing
4. Controlling quality
5. Directing

150
Q

Exercising limited authority or a specific restricted function is called .
1. Line authority
2. Staff Authority
3. Functional
4. Advisory

151
Q

The grapevine is an example of communication.
1. Formal
2. Upward
3. Downward
4. Informal

152
Q

The patient census report is produced by .
1. The nursing department
2. Bookkeeper or business office
3. Administrator
4. Social worker

153
Q

The patient census form is produced by .
1. The nursing department
2. Bookkeeper or business office
3. Administrator
4. Social worker

154
Q

The average accounts receivables collection ratio is calculated as .
1. 365 x net operating revenues / account receivables
2. 365 x account receivables / net operating revenues
3. 365 x account receivables / gross operating revenues
4. 365 x account payables / net operating revenues

155
Q

The formula to calculate the average time it takes to pay the facility’s supplies expense?
1. Accounts payables / supplies expense x 365
2. 365 x supplies expense / accounts payables
3. Supplies expense x accounts payables / 365
4. 365 x accounts payables / supplies expense

156
Q

Which of the following would attend the utilization review committee meetings?
1. Business office
2. Nursing
3. Therapists
4. Social worker
5. MDS coordinator
6. All of the above

157
Q

What is the main purpose of the utilization review process?
1. Calculate RUG rates
2. Maximize reimbursement
3. Ensure each resident receives all necessary and appropriate care and services
4. Ensure the facility is in compliance with all regulations

158
Q

A person paralyzed on one side of their body would benefit from which type of therapy?
1. Physical therapy
2. Speech therapy
3. Occupational therapy
4. Respiratory therapy

159
Q

Which of the following snack times would you change?
1. 10 AM
2. 1 PM
3. 4PM
4. 9PM

160
Q

General statements which guide thinking are .
1. Procedures
2. Guidelines
3. Policies
4. Rules

161
Q

What does a quick ratio calculation tell an administrator?
1. Whether a facility can pay its long term obligations
2. Whether a facility can pay its current obligations
3. Whether a facility can pay its non-current obligations
4. How much the facility has available immediately to pay urgent bills

162
Q

What does the acid test ratio calculation tell an administrator?
1. Whether a facility can meet it long term obligations
2. Whether a facility can meet its current obligations
3. Whether a facility can pay its non-current obligations
4. How much the facility has available immediately to pay urgent bills