Study Guide 16 Flashcards

1
Q

When an asset can be quickly converted to cash without appreciable loss, it is said to be:
1. Transferable
2. Convertible
3. Liquid
4. Current

A

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2
Q

The minimum staffing level required by CMS is:
1. 2.0 PPD
2. 2.5 PPD
3. 3.0 PPD
4. Determined by the individual states

A

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3
Q

Under which circumstance may the DON serve as charge nurse:
1. The average census is less than 60
2. A waiver has been obtained from the state health department
3. No other licensed nurses are willing to serve as charge nurse
4. The DON may never serve as charge nurse

A

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of inadequate nurse staffing?
1. Staff responding slowly to resident requests for help
2. Residents cannot locate staff quickly
3. Nurse staffing information is not posted as required
4. Residents have to make repetitive calls for help

A

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5
Q

The most important aspect of resident care is:
1. Staff attitudes towards residents
2. Prevention and treatment of pressure ulcers
3. A well-rounded activities program
4. Prompt attention to incontinence episodes

A

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT recommended as part of an infection control program:
1. Infection log
2. Antibiotic log
3. Infection record individualized for each resident
4. Facility floor plans used to track outbreaks

A

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7
Q

Which type of incontinence is characterized by urine leakage with coughing or laughing?
1. Stress
2. Urge
3. Overflow
4. Functional

A

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8
Q

Which type of vision problem is characterized by seeing straight lines as crooked?
1. Glaucoma
2. Legal blindness
3. Macular degeneration
4. Cataracts

A

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9
Q

Which type of behavioral intervention may not be appropriate for demented individuals?
1. Re-motivation
2. Reality orientation
3. Validation therapy
4. Sensory training

A

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10
Q

Door locks that are engaged by wandering residents can only work for how long?
1. 15 seconds
2. 30 seconds
3. 1 minute
4. Doors are never allowed to be locked

A

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11
Q

The single best preventative measure for pressure ulcers is:
1. Prompt incontinence care
2. Adequate hydration
3. Use of “donut” cushions when in a wheelchair
4. Frequent turning and re-positioning

A

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12
Q

Which model of care attempts to use the presence of plants, pets, and children to combat boredom,
loneliness, and helplessness in nursing facility residents?
1. Eden Alternative
2. Pioneer Network
3. Greenhouse Model
4. Gentle care

A

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13
Q

PASSAR is a process for:
1. Assessing pressure ulcer risk
2. Screening for fall risk
3. Classifying level of protein deficiency
4. Screening for mental illness or developmental disabilities

A

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14
Q

Which of the following is permissible as part of an admission contract?
1. Third party guarantee of payment
2. Waiver of the right to receive Medicaid
3. Mandatory charitable contributions
4. Requirement of arbitration to resolve legal conflicts

A

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15
Q

Under which situation would a MDS not need to be completed?
1. A resident’s payor source is private pay
2. A resident on insurance only stays for 21 days
3. A resident on Medicare stays for 12 days
4. A resident on Medicaid stays for 12 days

A

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16
Q

Which of the following does not constitute a significant change for MDS purposes?
1. A resident has a stroke that causes dysphasia and aphasia
2. A resident requires IV therapy but has run out of available skilled days
3. A resident has fallen and broken her hip
4. A resident has a mild case of pneumonia but is expected to recover within a week

A

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17
Q

Who is required to coordinate the RAI process?
1. A licensed nursing home administrator
2. An individual who has a MDS certification
3. Any registered nurse
4. Any member of the interdisciplinary team

A

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18
Q

How soon after the MDS is completed must the care plan be developed?
1. 7 days
2. 14 days
3. 21 days
4. 30 days

A

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19
Q

If state law does not say otherwise, how long should clinical records be retained after the resident has
been discharged?
1. 3 years
2. 5 years
3. 20 years
4. Indefinitely

A

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20
Q

Which of the following is universally regarded as the best way to reduce food wastage?
1. Utilize buffet lines in the dining room
2. Reduce meal portions to the smallest feasible amount
3. Provide more snacks in between meals
4. Prepare and serve attractive and tasty food

A

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21
Q

OBRA 87 requires what of dietary managers?
1. Licensure as a registered dietitian
2. Certification as a certified dietary manager
3. Completion of a state approved course
4. The ability to communicate with a qualified dietitian

A

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22
Q

Which of the following indicates a significant weight loss?
1. 5% over three months
2. 7.5% over three months
3. 7.5% over six months
4. 10% over twelve months

A

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23
Q

At what temperature must hot foods leave the kitchen?
1. 90 degrees
2. 100 degrees
3. 120 degrees
4. 135 degrees
5. 140 degrees

A

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24
Q

After a resident has been in the facility for 3 months, how often must they see a physician?
1. Every 30 days
2. Every 60 days
3. Every 90 days
4. Only when medically necessary

A

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25
Q

How often must a pharmacist conduct a drug regimen review?
1. Monthly
2. Bi-monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Annually

A

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26
Q

Which of the following would not constitute a significant medication error?
1. Two multivitamin tablets were administered when only one was ordered
2. Three ounces of water were given with a laxative
3. Twelve units of insulin were ordered and fifteen units were administered
4. The licensed nurse failed to obtain an apical pulse before administering digoxin

A

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27
Q

Which is not an OBRA approved indication for anti-psychotic usage?
1. Hiccups
2. Itching
3. Schizophrenia
4. Wandering

A

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28
Q

Which therapist would be able to best help a post-stroke resident with aphasia who needs to improve
her ability to use her hands (for buttoning and fastening clothing, turning on/off water faucets, etc.)?
1. Recreation therapist
2. Physical therapist
3. Occupational therapist
4. Speech-language pathologist

A

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29
Q

Which individual is required to serve on the facility’s QAA committee?
1. Medical director
2. Nursing home administrator
3. Director of nursing
4. Certified nursing assistant

A

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30
Q

Residents do NOT have which of the following rights?
1. Immediate access to the secretary of the US department of Health and Human Services
2. Refuse to participate in research which consists only of aggregated statistics
3. The right to work for a facility
4. The right to self administer medications

A

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31
Q

A person diagnosed with dementia usually .
1. Complains a lot
2. Stresses failures
3. Displays a loss of intellectual capacity
4. Appears to be completely unconcerned

A

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32
Q

Gerontology is best defined as the study of the .
1. Aging process
2. Psychology of aging
3. Illnesses of the aged
4. ADL levels of the aged

A

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33
Q

One of the current proposals regarding the developmentally disabled stresses changing the emphasis in
active treatment to:
1. Independent living
2. Occupational therapy
3. Acquiring social skills
4. individuals operating as sole proprietors

A

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34
Q

The most important factor in the treatment and care of the developmentally disabled is:
1. The process
2. The end result
3. Documentation
4. Record keeping

A

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35
Q

A resident cannot be discharged or transferred if the resident :
1. Contracts HIV
2. Needs cannot be met
3. Health significantly improved
4. Failed to pay after reasonable notice

A

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36
Q

Assume that 150 doses of medication were prescribed by the resident’s physician to be administered in
a given time period. However, 2 doses ordered were not given and 3 doses were incorrectly
administered as prescribed. What was the medication error rate?
1. 2.0 %
2. 3.0%
3. 3.3%
4. 5.0%

A

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37
Q

It is not standard operating procedure to:
1. Monitor restraints every 2 hours
2. Monitor restraints every 30 minutes
3. Release patients from restraints every two hours and leave them out of the restraint for at 10
minutes
4. Release patients from restraints every hour and leave them out of the restraint for at least 10
minutes

A

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38
Q

The DON may serve as charge nurse only if the facility:
1. Has applied for a waiver
2. Is licensed for less than 100 beds
3. Has an average daily occupancy of 60 residents or less
4. Accepts only residents requiring minimal nursing services

A

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39
Q

The OBRA outcome-oriented survey is focused on the:
1. Review of physical resources
2. Quality of care actually provided
3. Monitoring of management procedures
4. Compliance with state and federal regulations

A

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40
Q

When a new resident is admitted, the social worker should help the family during the initial separation
period by:
1. Maintaining family contact regarding the resident’s condition
2. Telling the family that the facility will handle the resident’s condition
3. Advising the family not to visit until the resident has adjusted to the facility
4. Advising the family to have someone visit each day until the resident is adjusted

A

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41
Q

Empathy may be best defined as the:
1. Capacity to share the interest of another person
2. Process whereby one strives to be like another person
3. Unconscious conferring of undesirable traits or tendencies on another person
4. Ability to comprehend the meaning and relevance of the thoughts and feelings of another

A

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42
Q

In most states, which of the following cannot be appointed as the agent under an advance directive?
1. A friend
2. An attorney
3. A family member
4. The attending physician

A

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43
Q

The Resident Self-Determination Act should be:
1. Enforced by the social service department
2. Discussed during the resident assessment
3. Mailed out annually to all residents and families
4. Given to the resident and family at the time of admission

A

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44
Q

To be effective, a resident council should: .
1. Be controlled by the administrator
2. Have the participation of residents and employees
3. Be given the opportunity to control the activities of the facility
4. Have continued support by the administrator and the residents

A

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45
Q

A curator, as used in civil law, equates to a :
1. Payee
2. Guardian
3. Next of kin
4. Family member

A

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46
Q

The most common cause of food poisoning is :
1. Infected food handlers
2. Communication with sick persons
3. Contamination of food by insects
4. Improper refrigeration of perishable foods

A

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47
Q

Nursing personnel should encourage a resident to eat in the dining area unless the resident:
1. Is incontinent
2. Cannot eat unassisted
3. Is confined to a wheelchair
4. Has been contraindicated to do so by physician’s orders

A

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48
Q

According to research studies, the most indispensable mineral found to be lacking in the diet of the
elderly is :
1. Iron
2. Sodium
3. Potassium
4. Magnesium

A

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49
Q

To maximize the destruction of bacteria on dinnerware, the temperature of rinse water in dishwashers
should be :
1. 110 F
2. 140 F
3. 160 F
4. 180 F

A

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50
Q

Proper food storage is very important. Of the following problems listed, which is usually the most
significant?
1. Dented cans
2. Temperature control
3. Labeling of cans and leftovers
4. Utensils left in large containers

A

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51
Q

An unplanned and/or undesired weight loss would be classified as significant if the percentage of loss
during a six-month interval was:
1. 4%
2. 6%
3. 8%
4. 10%

A

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52
Q

Carcinoma is the medical term for:
1. Cancer
2. Cataracts
3. Liver spots
4. Heart disease

A

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53
Q

The physician who is primarily involved with the causes and histories of diseases is:
1. An internist
2. A pathologist
3. A geriatrician
4. A general practitioner

A

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54
Q

Who is responsible for implementation of the resident-care policies in the facility?
1. Medical director
2. DON
3. The assessment team
4. Licensed nursing home administrator

A

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55
Q

The physician must write, sign, and date progress notes:
1. Each month
2. At each visit
3. As deemed necessary
4. Monthly for the first 90 days

A

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56
Q

The Social Security Act provides that a facility must have a written transfer agreement with one or more
hospitals that are:
1. Equipped with CAT scan and MRI
2. Within a radius of 5 miles of the facility
3. Able to provide ambulance transportation
4. Approved for participation under both Medicare and Medicaid

A

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57
Q

Under OBRA, the quality improvement committee is required to meet at least .
1. Weekly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Annually

A

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58
Q

Under OBRA, the implementation of which of the following policies is not the responsibility of the
Medical Director?
1. Dietary
2. Admission
3. Personnel
4. Infection control

A

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59
Q

A “re-motivation” program as applied to the senile resident generally refers to a :
1. Procedure used to recruit residents for group activities
2. Procedure used to encourage resident-staff cooperation
3. Program designed to stimulate the resident’s interest in community affairs
4. Group therapy program designed to stimulate the resident’s interest in the real world around him

A

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60
Q

Care plans address activities that are appropriate for each resident based on which of the following?:
1. Age and sex of the resident
2. Comprehensive assessment
3. Former lifestyle of the resident
4. Recommendations of the nursing staff

A

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61
Q

Which of the following would not usually be a primary interdisciplinary team member?
1. Activity director
2. Rehabilitation staff
3. Nursing facility administrator
4. Therapeutic recreation staff

A

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62
Q

A resident spends most of his time in his room alone and he has few interests except he watches the
news on television. Which of the following activity approaches would perhaps be the most
beneficial?
1. Take him on group walks in the community
2. Enroll him in male craft projects like building bird houses
3. Invite him to participate in current events including small group discussions
4. Suggest to the attending physician that antidepressant medication be considered

A

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63
Q

The resident activity director has many roles and duties. However, the first responsibility should be:
1. Maintaining adequate records
2. Planning and organizing activity programs
3. Preparing care plans and writing progress notes
4. Completing the assessments and identifying the interests and needs of the residents

A

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64
Q

Activity coordinators must plan, coordinate, and direct the resident activity programs, and in
addition must do which of the following?
1. Supervise therapeutic programs
2. Record notes in the resident’s medical record
3. Conduct the interdisciplinary assessment program
4. Conduct in-service training programs for all employees

A

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65
Q

Medical records are also referred to as clinical records and are utilized by various members of the staff.
However, the person ultimately responsible for accurate and adequate medical records is the _ :
1. Administrator
2. DON
3. Attending physician
4. Medical records librarian

A

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66
Q

Medical records may be released by written permission of the resident and if required by any of the
following except:
1. A court order
2. An attorney at law
3. A third party contract including Medicare
4. Another nursing home to which the resident is being transferred

A

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67
Q

In cases in which facilities have created the option for an individual’s record to be maintained by
computer, rather than hard copy:
1. Electronic signatures are acceptable
2. Electronic signatures are acceptable only for the medical staff
3. Signatures must be recorded both electronically and on hard copy
4. Electronic signatures can only be used by full-time employees of the facility

A

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68
Q

The person designated as the clinical record clerk must be :
1. Certified
2. Licensed
3. A consultant
4. A full-time staff member

A

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69
Q

According to Medicare and Medicaid requirements, upon an oral or written request, the residents must
have access to all records, including clinical records, pertaining to himself/herself within .
1. 24 hours
2. 48 hours
3. 3 days
4. 1 week

A

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70
Q

Which of the following types of drugs are for external use only?
1. Topical
2. Diuretic
3. Laxative
4. Sedative

A

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71
Q

Stop-order procedures were formerly developed by the pharmaceutical service committee but are now
developed by the:
1. Pharmacist
2. Medical director
3. Pharmacist and the medical director
4. Pharmacist and the DON

A

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72
Q

If a medication has an automatic stop order, the nurse must:
1. Notify the pharmacist
2. Never renew the medication
3. Notify the physician before the last dose is administered
4. Notify the physician at the time the drug is last administered

A

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73
Q

Drugs prepared (poured) for administration at 8:00 am should be administered and recorded before
subsequent doses are prepared and administered before:
1. 9:00 am
2. 10:00 am
3. 11:00 am
4. 12:00 noon

74
Q

Abbreviations are used by nurses in completing charts and other medical records. The abbreviation stat
means:
1. Status
2. Statistic
3. Continue
4. Immediately

75
Q

The 1987 OBRA regulations changed the role of the pharmacists in nursing facilities and greatly
increased their responsibility. Therefore, today the pharmacist must perform all of the following duties
except:
1. Destroy all unused prescriptions
2. Determine that drug records are in order
3. Conduct a review of each resident’s drug regimen
4. Determine that an account of all controlled drugs is maintained and periodically reconciled

76
Q

If a resident wants to self-administer medication, who is responsible for drug storage and recording the
self-administered doses?
1. The resident
2. The nursing staff
3. A family member
4. The legal guardian

77
Q

According to OBRA, the facility is required to offer therapeutic activities that:
1. Must include games and crafts
2. Support, maintain, and empower
3. Are first approved by the medical staff
4. Are based upon past interests and hobbies

78
Q

Flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction are all terms referring to:
1. Menus
2. Exercises
3. Nursing modalities
4. Treatment to be provided only be a therapist

79
Q

Which of the following statements relative to range of motion is incorrect?
1. Passive ROM is performed by the resident
2. Active ROM is performed by the resident
3. Adequate preventive care must include ROM
4. Active assistive ROM exercises are performed by the resident and the staff

80
Q

If specialized rehabilitation services are required in the resident’s comprehensive plan of care, the
facility must provide the services or:
1. Dismiss the resident
2. Transfer the resident
3. Obtain the required services from an outside resource
4. Utilize the services available in the nursing department and in the activity department

81
Q

The administrator may want to ensure that a rehabilitative team approaches being implemented for a
resident and that:
1. Some family members assist
2. The staff, including nursing, is involved
3. The physician observes the process and follows up
4. Therapy has its own department and dedicated room

82
Q

Which of the following is not considered a life-sustaining treatment?
1. Physical therapy
2. Dialysis treatment
3. Use of ventilators
4. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

83
Q

In monitoring work performance, the most essential activity for the administrator is to:
1. Hold individual conferences with department heads
2. Review written reports from all department heads and consultants
3. Visit each department and observe daily activities and the environment
4. Conduct staff meetings and secure verbal reports from each department

84
Q

Placing a message in an oral form or in written words, a diagram, picture, or chart is called:
1. Encoding
2. Decoding
3. Formatting
4. Transmitting

85
Q

The key to understanding communication is:
1. Reading
2. Listening
3. Watching
4. Interpreting

86
Q

Which of the following relationships is not regarded as having “privileged communication?
1. Husband/wife
2. Attorney/client
3. Physician/patient
4. Administrator/family

87
Q

The lack of adequate communication creates a vacuum which will cause the staff to:
1. Listen to rumors
2. Reject any information
3. Cease communication
4. Ignore all communication

88
Q

It is very important that staff meetings do not become a:
1. Time to complain
2. Learning situation
3. Sharing experience
4. Time to share challenges

89
Q

The 1996 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act:
1. Encourages all employees to elect the option of participating in COBRA
2. Caps health care plans pre-existing condition limitation of exclusion at12 months
3. Provides for insurance coverage for children and spouses at the time of death of the employee
4. Allows for divorced parents to continue insurance coverage for the former spouse and children
up to age 21

90
Q

Under FMLA, if paid leave is provided by the employer:
1. Company rules apply in lieu of FMLA
2. The employee is not eligible for coverage under FMLA
3. The rate paid to the employee must equal the employee’s current salary
4. The employer can require the employee to substitute eligible leave for any part of the 12
weeks required by the Act

91
Q

The diversity of needs within a specified market is correctly referred to as:
1. Marketability
2. Target marketing
3. Market segmentation
4. Diversified media campaigning

92
Q

Which of the following determines the tasks, the employee behavior, and the knowledge and skills
necessary to carry out a certain job?
1. Job analysis
2. Job assignment
3. Job relationship
4. Job classification

93
Q

Pay scales are required for:
1. Only wage employees
2. Only salaried employees
3. Only non-administrative personnel
4. Both salaried and wage employees

94
Q

During an employee interview you may ask:
1. For a photograph
2. About child care plans
3. About willingness to work religious holidays
4. About willingness to work a required schedule

95
Q

Over 75% of the administrator’s problems relate to:
1. Families
2. Residents
3. Employees
4. Community

96
Q

“Job” is a term that refers to:
1. A collection of tasks that can be performed by an employee
2. The behavior, knowledge, and skills necessary to perform a duty
3. The duties, authority, and qualifications of each employees classification
4. A classification of employees such as secretaries, housekeepers, and nurses

97
Q

Affirmative action relates to:
1. Firing practices
2. Hiring practices
3. Benefit programs
4. Compensation programs

98
Q

To develop effective staff rapport, an administrator should:
1. Establish a program of peer review
2. Discourage all formal and informal “grapevines”
3. Promote employees from within the organization
4. Establish clear lines of authority and responsibility

99
Q

What is the average daily absentee rate for a facility with a total of 80 full-time employees and 184 lost
workdays or absences during a 60-day period?
1. 2.3
2. 2.5
3. 2.6
4. 3.8

100
Q

The primary function of disciplinary action is to:
1. Extract compliance
2. Impose punishment
3. Effect a desired behavior change
4. Ensure that the behavior will never be tolerated in the future

101
Q

It is reasonable to expect that employees who are formally evaluated by their supervisor will:
1. Experience no effect from the lack of evaluation
2. Make less progress than those who are not evaluated
3. Make more progress than those who are not evaluated
4. Make about the same progress as those who are evaluated

102
Q

EEOC enforces all of the following laws except the:
1. Equal Pay Act
2. Fair Labor Standards Act
3. Title VII of the Civil Rights Acts
4. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

103
Q

The “employment-at-will relationship” provides that employer may:
1. Discharge an employee without cause
2. Not discharge an employee without due notice
3. Discharge an employee only with a valid reason
4. Not discharge an employee if the employee is following the job description

104
Q

Any effective sexual-harassment policy should contain all of the following essential elements except:
1. The establishment of a complaint procedure
2. A statement clearly prohibiting sexual harassment
3. A description of conduct that constitutes sexual harassment
4. A warning that anyone who violates the policy will be immediately dismissed

105
Q

Under COBRA, continuation of employee group medical insurance must be offered except if the:
1. Employee retires
2. Employee’s marriage is dissolved
3. Employee’s work hours are reduced
4. Employee is fired for gross misconduct

106
Q

In planning a budget, it is most important to know:
1. Assets and liabilities
2. Net profit and net worth
3. Past cost and future cost
4. Past experience and projected expectations

107
Q

After liquidity, the second major objective of financial management is usually:
1. Payroll
2. Inventory
3. Profitability
4. Rate structure

108
Q

The accrual method of accounting is required by Medicaid and Medicare and therefore income and
expenses are recorded:
1. On a monthly basis
2. As they are capitalized
3. When they are incurred
4. When they are paid or received

109
Q

Depreciation is correctly defined as:
1. A declining balance
2. A cost allocation of equipment
3. The change in value over a stipulated period
4. The decrease in value due to obsolescence, wear, and tear

110
Q

Working capital equals the current assets:
1. Minus fixed assets
2. Minus current liabilities
3. Divided by current assets
4. Minus inventories divided by current liabilities

111
Q

Which paid fringe benefit is usually the most costly?
1. Holidays
2. Jury duty
3. Vacations
4. Sick leave

112
Q

If an employee works 40 hours in a one-week period and worked 10 hours per day at a rate of $8.00
per hour, what would be the total salary before deductions and including overtime pay if required?
1. $200.00
2. $256.00
3. $320.00
4. $386.00

113
Q

When a facility is being sold, which of the following is an intangible asset that is very marketable?
1. Supplies
2. Goodwill
3. Buildings
4. Equipment

114
Q

In which of the following areas will an employed nursing home administrator usually have the most
input?
1. Budget
2. Benefits
3. Salary schedules
4. Mission statement

115
Q

The income of a proprietary corporation remaining after all costs, taxes, and dividends have been paid
is known as .
1. Profit
2. Net profit
3. Gross income
4. Retained earnings

116
Q

Which of the following is not a primary source of health care malpractice suits .
1. Breach or violation of a contract or promise
2. Rendering substandard or poor quality care
3. Failure to obtain effective consent before intervening in the life of a resident
4. Agreeing to withhold prescribed treatment at the request of a competent resident

117
Q

Risk management is identifying and solving problems .
1. As soon as possible
2. Before they get out of hand
3. That only involve a legal risk
4. To adhere to federal guidelines

118
Q

Workers’ compensation insurance premium rates depend upon the claim experience, state regulations,
and .
1. Are discount based upon volume
2. The risk class of the occupations involved
3. Safety programs provided for the employees
4. The number of years insured by the same carrier

119
Q

The key to purchasing supplies is to .
1. Obtain bids and accept the lowest price available
2. Purchase in the largest quantity available to reduce cost
3. Let each department purchase their own supplies since they will use them and know what is
needed
4. Standardize the products and vendors used, organize a central purchasing department, and
minimize the people authorized to purchase.

120
Q

Which of the following ratios will reflect the facility’s ability to meet obligations?
1. ROI
2. Equity ratio
3. Current ratio
4. Acid test ratio

121
Q

The best way to maintain an inventory is to .
1. Place all orders with a single supplier
2. Observe supply levels in the storeroom
3. Limit access to supplies and requisitioning to specified individuals
4. Record requisitions in an inventory-control system utilizing reorder levels

122
Q

A fiscal intermediary is usually .
1. A CPA
2. An HMO
3. An insurance company
4. A state nursing home association

123
Q

The percentage of gross profit for a facility with a gross income of $555,000, fixed expenses of
$195,000, and variable expenses of $305,000 is approximately:
1. 2.5%
2. 5.5%
3. 9.9%
4. 11.1%

124
Q

Employees pay only 50% of the cost of .
1. FICA
2. FUTA
3. Workers’ Compensation
4. Federal Withholding Tax

125
Q

Which of the following financial statements includes assets and liabilities?
1. Balance sheet
2. Statement of cash flow
3. Statement of revenues and expenses
4. Statement of changes in fund balances

126
Q

Payroll checks should include all of the following information except:
1. Gross pay
2. FICA deductions
3. Income tax with-holdings
4. Federal unemployment tax

127
Q

An administrator has been advised that utility costs far exceed those of comparable facilities. The first
action should be to:
1. Arrange for an energy audit
2. Determine whether excessive hot water is being used
3. Have all lights and equipment turned off when not in use
4. Check all heating and air conditioning units for efficiency

128
Q

When two agencies or governmental bodies do not agree on interpretations relative to requirements
and standards, it is prudent to comply with the order that is .
1. More stringent
2. Outlined in OBRA
3. Federal versus state
4. More recently enforced

129
Q

According to surveyors, to determine the comfortable and safe levels of the air temperature in resident
rooms and in dining areas, the air temperature should be measured:
1. 2 feet above the floor
2. 3 feet above the floor
3. 4 feet above the floor
4. 4.5 feet above the floor

130
Q

An administrator determines that his laundry is slightly understaffed, but the shortage is not enough to
hire a full-time employee. What would be the least economical solution?
1. Hire a part-time employee
2. Allow laundry employees to work overtime
3. Stagger employee schedules to provide extended daily laundry service
4. Assign underutilized personnel in another department to the laundry on a part-time basis

131
Q

According to OSHA, all contaminated sharps must be discarded in sharp containers:
1. Immediately after used
2. At the end of every shift
3. Within a reasonable time period
4. After being sheared and broken

132
Q

The principal cause of odors in an NF is .
1. Ventilation systems
2. Incontinent residents
3. Not using disinfectants
4. Improper garbage storage

133
Q

The major advantage in contracting with a professional pest control company is that:
1. Contracting is less expensive than operating the facility’s own program
2. The facility staff is not efficient in identifying key areas to target for control
3. Contractors are more thorough in their pest control measures than facility staff.
4. Contractors are generally more knowledgeable than staff about rotating appropriate pesticides
to ensure effectiveness

134
Q

The most common accident occurring to employees in a health-care facility is caused by .
1. Lifting
2. Burns
3. Falling
4. Lacerations

135
Q

The handrails in stairwells must extend beyond the first and last steps by .
1. 6 inches
2. 8 inches
3. 10 inches
4. 12 inches

136
Q

According to Safe Medical Device Reporting, user facilities must keep records for:
1. 1 year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 5 years

137
Q

The safety program should include which of the following policies regarding the personal electrical
appliances residents bring into the facility?
1. Personal appliances should not be allowed in the facility
2. Personal appliances should be inspected prior to initial use and at regular intervals
3. Personal appliances should always be removed from the resident’s room and stored when not in
use
4. Personal appliances must be inspected and certified as safe by an outside appliance technician

138
Q

The fires that involve energized electrical equipment are classified as .
1. Class A fires
2. Class B fires
3. Class C fires
4. Class D fires

139
Q

Hazardous communication programs, hepatitis B virus, HIV immunization, and universal precautions
are all enforced by_ .
1. ANSI
2. DHHS
3. OSHA
4. EEOC

140
Q

Chemical manufacturers and importers must convey the hazard information to employers by means of
labels and:
1. Seminars
2. Suppliers
3. A list provided by OSHA
4. Material safety data sheets

141
Q

All exit doors must swing .
1. To the egress
2. To the ingress
3. One to the egress and one to the ingress
4. In either direction but never be propped open

142
Q

According to the Life Safety Code, there must be at least one Class A fire extinguisher for every travel
distance of .
1. 25 feet
2. 50 feet
3. 75 feet
4. 100 feet

143
Q

OSHA accident reports must be posted .
1. Annually
2. At the end of the fiscal year
3. Every year from February 1 through April 30
4. When an accident involves more than three persons

144
Q

The primary advantage of the fire-detection systems is .
1. A warning time
2. That everyone is informed
3. That communication problems are reduced
4. That the fire department is always notified immediately

145
Q

Backup batteries for generators must provide light for certain areas in a nursing home during
emergency situations, however waivers may be obtained for all areas except:
1. Entrances
2. Nurse’s station
3. Exits and doors
4. Resident call system

146
Q

A Medicaid agency need not be notified if a change occurs in the .
1. Facility’s stock value
2. Ownership of the facility
3. Facility’s nursing home administrator
4. Officers of the managing company of the facility

147
Q

HIPAA requires nursing homes to
1. Give hospitals immediate access to a resident’s records
2. Employ a person who handles all HIPAA requirements
3. Have written policies and procedures to ensure the protection of clinical records
4. Have a family member or legal representative approve all transfers of resident clinical
information

148
Q

Which of the following is paid for under Part B of Medicare?
1. Dentures
2. Prostheses
3. Eye glasses
4. Hearing aids

149
Q

Which of the following does not license, register, or certify professionals such as nurses and
therapists?
1. Associations
2. State boards
3. State Agencies
4. Federal government

150
Q

Disclosure of ownership is not required of .
1. Corporations
2. Governmental agencies
3. Non-profit organization.
4. Individuals operating as sole proprietors

151
Q

In which type of business entity does the owner have the most limited liability?
1. Partnership
2. Corporation
3. Joint venture
4. Sole proprietorship

152
Q

Bylaws usually contain all of the following except:
1. Rules
2. Regulations
3. Job descriptions
4. The mission statement

153
Q

It is not the role of the ethics committee to .
1. Make decisions
2. Evaluate alternate solutions
3. Review policies and procedures from an ethical perspective
4. Educate the residents, families, and staff about ethical decision-making

154
Q

When a facility wishes to transfer a resident for reasons other than the health of the resident being in
danger, generally the notice to transfer must be provided at least:
1. 1 week prior to the transfer
2. 10 days prior to the transfer
3. 15 days prior to the transfer
4. 30 days prior to the transfer

155
Q

A resident has the right to work in a facility under certain circumstances except when the:
1. Position replaces a full-time employee
2. Resident agrees to the work arrangement
3. Compensation is at or above prevailing wage rates
4. Plan of care specifies the nature of the service performed

156
Q

Which of the following may not be considered abuse?
1. Threats
2. Hand mitts
3. Deprivation
4. Voluntary seclusion

157
Q

Which of the following is seldom handled by the governing board?
1. Hiring all staff
2. Practicing stewardship
3. Establishing goals and objectives
4. Appointing the licensed nursing home administrator

158
Q

The primary purpose of departmentalization is to .
1. Reduce cost
2. Increase personal goals
3. Promote efficient operation
4. Prevent employee arguments

159
Q

All of the following are usually functions of the governing body of a health-care facility except the:
1. Funding sources
2. Organizational structure
3. Creation of a mission statement
4. Creation and implementation of procedures

160
Q

A resident who dies without leaving a will is said to have died:
1. Testate
2. Intestate
3. Inter vivos
4. Without probate

161
Q

It is considered a good administrative practice in a nursing facility to adopt regulations covering
emergency nursing care for residents who may suffer acute coronary attacks. Which one of the
following approaches to assuring such care is likely to be most effective?
1. Obtain signed standing cardiac orders for all residents in advance
2. Frequently review standing orders for a procedure to be followed in the event of such an
emergency
3. Institute an ongoing in-service training program to teach the nursing personnel the use of
cardiac monitoring equipment
4. Insist that all physicians who admit residents with histories of cardiac disorders write cardiac
orders at the time of admission

162
Q

The ombudsman cannot .
1. Have access to residents
2. Issue citations against a facility
3. Serve as an advocate for the elderly
4. See resident records without written consent or a court order

163
Q

The goals of providing resident support and increasing public awareness may be accomplished by the:
1. Resident council
2. Ethics committee
3. Community council
4. Quality improvement team

164
Q

Demographic information relates primarily to .
1. Topography
2. Health care institutions
3. Educational institutions
4. Statistics regarding population

165
Q

The number of those who need and who will purchase the services offered by a facility can be
determined by .
1. A market-opportunity analysis
2. A study of hospital census ratios
3. A review of existing advertisements
4. As assessment of competitive institutions

166
Q

Marketing is oriented to .
1. Research
2. Advertising
3. Consumers’ wants and needs
4. Various public relation programs

167
Q

Which of the following marketing efforts is perhaps the least effective to increase occupancy?
1. Supplementing the work of the nursing staff
2. Meeting the personal needs of the resident
3. Changing attitudes toward the physically disabled
4. Bringing the nursing facility and the community closer together

168
Q

Effective delegation has been established when decisions are made:
1. Very quickly
2. By first-line supervisors
3. At the lowest level authorized to make them
4. Through the contribution of ideas by several people

169
Q

When comparing leadership with management, leadership:
1. Is rigid
2. Inspires
3. Specializes
4. Requires authority

170
Q

When a resident feels that everyone is against him/her, it is best to .
1. Try to help by agreeing
2. Be logical and explain everything
3. Realize that there is usually no truth in such statements
4. Have clear communication among staff so all will be consistent

171
Q

Conflict is best resolved by .
1. Orientation
2. Problem solving
3. In-service training.
4. Professional training

172
Q

Which of the following is not a type of authority?
1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. Span of management

173
Q

A basic management principle is to put one person in charge when there are:
1. Two or more employees working together
2. Three or more employees working together
3. Five or more employees working together
4. Seven or more employees working together

174
Q

A governing body or designated person(s) is required by .
1. ANSI
2. OSHA
3. OBRA
4. EEOC

175
Q

Goal orientation focuses on:
1. Missions
2. Strategies
3. Controlling
4. Future accomplishments

176
Q

Purpose or mission is the basic task assigned to an enterprise by .
1. Law
2. Society
3. Ownership
4. The board of directors

177
Q

The maximum number of shareholders in a closely held corporation is:
1. 25
2. 50
3. 100
4. 250

178
Q

Employees are primarily concerned with which three plans?
1. Plans, budgets, and missions
2. Policies, budgets, and programs
3. Policies, procedures, and rules
4. Policies, budgets, and procedures

179
Q

Laissez-faire, autocratic, and paternal are all forms of .
1. Staffing
2. Authority
3. Goal setting
4. Leadership styles

180
Q

Before attempting to improve its public image, it is mandatory that the nursing facility:
1. Involve all staff
2. Provide good resident care
3. Hire specialists in public relations
4. Develop a public relations program