STUDY Flashcards

1
Q

Purposes of FNMOC

A

Fleet Numerical Meteorology and Oceanography Center

Provides METOC models

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3
Q

5 step process to OPSEC (hint - IAAAA)

A
Identify Critical information
Analyze the threat
Analyze the vulnerabilities 
Assess risk
Apply countermeasures
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5
Q

Expeditionary Roles

A

MEU
EOD
Divers
NSW

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6
Q

Define EA

A

The use of EM energy to attack enemy personnel, facilities or equipment with the intent to degrade or destroy enemy combat capability (ex. Jamming) (SLQ-32)

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7
Q

State the function of Naval Computer and Telecommunication Station (NCTS)

A

Provides secure, relatable, and timely voice, video, and data service commands.

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10
Q

Define NSW

A

Small flexible units, stealth, speed, precise

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11
Q

State the applications provided by NIAPS

A
eSOMS
SKED
FSM
TORIS
WEB ATIS
FEDLOG
CTA
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12
Q

Thermal crossover

A

Occurs in IR imagery twice a day (sunrise and sunset) when the target and the background are the same temperature

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13
Q

Purpose of commplan

A

List what communication circuits are required and indicates where and when needed

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14
Q

Three ocean layers

A

Mixed layer - Salinity
Main Thermocline - Temperature
Deep Layer - Pressure

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15
Q

Two things satellites know?

A

Time and location

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18
Q

Define ELINT (Electronic Intel)

A

Technical and Electronic Intelligence derived from foreign non-communications

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20
Q

What is the architecture use for imagery?

A

Joint Concentrator Architecture

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21
Q

4 CENTRIXS enclaves

A

Combine Enterprise Regional Information Exchange System

J - Japan Server
K - Korea Server
CNFC - Coalition Naval Forces CENTCOM
CMFP - Combined Maritime Forces Pacific

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23
Q

IPL vs. NIL

A

Image Product Library: is local storage and archive for individual unit

National Image Library is the central repository for all imagery

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25
Q

Define Risk Assessment Code (RAC) and list the five RACs

A

RAC - combines the hazard severity and mishap probability into a single Arabic numeral.

  1. Critical risk
  2. Serious risk
  3. Moderate risk
  4. Negligible risk
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26
Q

State the function of Navy Cyber Defense Operations Command (NCDOC)

A

Oversees and monitors networks.

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29
Q

HVT vs. HPT

A

High Value Target - enemy requires this person for their mission

High Pay off Target - HVT’s that we need to attack for our mission

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30
Q

Define the purpose of SUPPLOT

A

Fusion center onboard a Carrier

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31
Q

Main purpose for AG’s

A

Resource protection

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32
Q

Define FST

A

Fleet Survey Team

Based out of Stennis Space Center

Embarks on survey ships/jet skies to perform Hydrographic surveys

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34
Q

Parent agency responsible for HUMINT

A

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

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35
Q

Stated the BHR instruction that governs all computer network incidents responses:

A

BHRINST 5239.1E

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36
Q

SP0009 - SIGINT ________?

A

SIGINT Policies - Host Nation

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37
Q

How does RAMDERC (Radiant Mercury) interface with GCCS-M?

A

It classes and declasses information allowing users to transfer data

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40
Q

Purpose of KH-11

A

First imaging system to provide all weather, NRT imagery

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41
Q

ATF vs. LF Target Intelligence Officers

A

Amphibious Task Force - PHIBRON 11

Landing Force - 31st MEU

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42
Q

Radio watch stations

A

CWO - coordinates all comms efforts
JMC Sup - responsible for proper release of messages
JMC Watch - processes incoming and outgoing messages
Tech Control - Troubleshoots, restores, and constructs circuits

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43
Q

Vulnerability vs. Threat

A

Vulnerability - weakness that could be exploited

Threat - a potential to adversely impact operations

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44
Q

Purpose of ASI (Authorized Service Interruption)

A

A coordinated downtime which could impact operations.

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46
Q

Purpose of MIO

A

Maritime Interdiction Operations

Operations to delay, distrust, or destroy enemy forces or supplies en route of battle area before they harm against friendly forces

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48
Q

SE2000 - SIGINT _____________ ?

A

Enterprise Maritime

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52
Q

Hand Salute

A

The hand salute is centuries old, and probably originated when men in armor raised their helmet visors so they could be identified.

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53
Q

How was imagery first recognized in battle?

A

In the American Civil ware the Union Army deployed aeronautics in hot air balloons to hover above enemy lines and report on Confederate activities

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55
Q

Define Duplex

A

Communications system that can communicate in both directions, simultaneously

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56
Q

Define WEBSAR

A

Web Search and Rescue

Used for man overboard situations

Computer wave height, current movement, and sea surface temperature to determine where the individual is and how long they have to live

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58
Q

Four types of amphibious operations

A

Assault
Raid
Demonstration
Withdrawal

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61
Q

Describe the three categories of intelligence

A

Strategic Intelligence
Operational Intelligence
Tactical Intelligence

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62
Q

Define IDNX

A

Integrated Digital Network Exchange: A type of switch use to route information over a network

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63
Q

Define Collaboration at Sea (CAS)

A

Provides a web based application for uses with low bandwidth consumption

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64
Q

State the instruction that governs safety and mishap reporting

A

OPNAVINST 5102.1D

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65
Q

PIR vs. CCIR

A

Priority Intelligence Requirements - critical to mission accomplishment

Commander’s Critical Intelligence Requirements - requires the immediate attention of the commander

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66
Q

How many GPS satellites does it take to locate and track a target?

A

3 on ground
4 in air
1 to track

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67
Q

Apogee vs. Perigee

A

Apogee - point of orbit furthest away from earth’s center

Perigee - point of orbit closes to earth’s center

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68
Q

Define NSL

A

No strike list

A list of geographical areas or installations not planned for capture or destruction

Attacking these may violate law (ex schools)

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70
Q

Define Electro-optical (EO)

A

Detects electromagnetic energy. Black and white imagery only.

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71
Q

MILDEC vs PSYOPS

A

MILDEC - misleads adversary decision makers, misinformation

PSYOPS - targets civilian mass population hearts and minds, can be truth

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72
Q

Define PTW

A

Precision Targeting Workstation

Strike analyst use for targeting purposes

Uses several overlapping images to best coordinate a strike

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74
Q

Two Fleet Weather Centers

A

San Diego

Norfolk

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75
Q

Define OTSR

A

Optimum Track Ship Routing – weather avoidance and for ships that don’t have AG’s onboard.

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76
Q

Define FISINT (Foreign Instrumentation Signals Intelligence)

A

Information derived from Electromagnetic emissions

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78
Q

Define COMIT (Communications Intelligence)

A

A subcategory of COMINT

Involves voice information

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82
Q

List the three imaging systems.

A

Radar (SAR)
EO (Electro-Optical)
IR (Infared)

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84
Q

Define TAF

A

24 hour forecast for a given location

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85
Q

EW Watch positions and systems

A

EW Sup - keeps TAO informed of tactical ES, monitors JTT

EW Op - Operators SLQ 32

Fire by negation - power given to EW to jam missiles without permission from CAPT

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86
Q

Types of orbit

A

POLAR (orbits along polar axis, higher coverage)

GEOSYNCHRONIZED (monitoring certain area)

87
Q

Define Simplex

A

Communications in one direction at one time

88
Q

Define EMCON

A

Authority to impose - CO/TAO/IWC

90
Q

What does FIWO (Flag Intel Watch Officer) do?

A

Maintains the all-source I&W watch picture

91
Q

Two types of targeting

A

Deliberate - planned

Dynamic - target of opportunity

92
Q

Primary imagery system on LHD

A

DCGS-N

Distributed Common Ground Systems - Navy

94
Q

Define EOD

A

Deals with highly explosive munitions

96
Q

Define Half Duplex

A

Provides communication in both directions but not simultaneously

97
Q

How does METOC support ASW?

A

Acoustic propagation in the ocean

99
Q

Discuss how EW Module (Electronic Warfare) interacts with EXPLOT.

A

EXPLOT provides I&W to support Electronic Support/Attack Missions.

100
Q

Define IO (Information Operations)

A

Actions to control friendly forces uses of information. It also mitigates effects of adversary use.

101
Q

Information Warfare includes.

A
  • Military Information Support operations
  • Electronic Warfare
  • Military Deception
  • Computer Network Operations
  • Operational Security
102
Q

What is the EA-6B Prowler used for?

A

Radar and communications jammer aircraft.

Uses ALQ-99 and USQ-113

103
Q

E-2C Hawkeyes

A

Early Warning Platform

104
Q

P3-C Orion

A

Navy’s ASW and Maritime Patrol Aircraft

105
Q

What is the EP-3E?

A

Navy’s primary COMINT/ELINT electronic support air platform. Conducts ISR Missions.

106
Q

Name the basic components of RADAR.

A
  • Transmitter
  • Receiver
  • Antenna
107
Q

SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging)

A

Used to detect acoustic energy from ships.

108
Q

HULLTEC (Hull-to-Emitter)

A

Hull to emitter correlation is the equation of a unique electronic emission to an identifiable platform.

109
Q

SLQ-32A/B is used for what?

A

Used for Anti-ship missile defense and electronic search for ELINT production.

110
Q

What is the ULQ-16?

A

Performs precision measurement of emitter characteristics detected by an AN/SLQ-32

111
Q

SLQ-25 (NIXIE)

A

Provides torpedo countermeasures

112
Q

BEWT/BFTT provides what?

A

Provides watch standees with simulate tactical environment.

113
Q

MK-36 DLS is used for what?

A

Used to combat different missile variants utilizing both distraction and seduction techniques

114
Q

ALQ-142

A

Electronic search system onboard SH-60B LAMPS MK III Seahawk.

115
Q

HERO (hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance)

A

System designed to prevent an inadvertent activation of an ordnance electro explosive device.

116
Q

Technical ELINT

A

Describes the signature structure, emission characteristics, modes of operation, emitter functions, and weapons systems associations of such emitters as radars, beacons, jammers and navigational signals.

117
Q

Combined Emitter Database (CED)

A

Is NSA’s National TechENLINT database. It replaces the EPL and KILTING databases.

118
Q

Fire by Negation?

A

Authorizes EW Supervisor or operator to utilize EA for defense of ship.

119
Q

Differences between MISO and MILDEC.

A

MISO is used to induce or influence foreign attitudes and behaviors favorable to the initiators objectives.

MILDEC is actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military decision makers as to intent of friendly military mission.

120
Q

SESS

A

Where specialized cryptologic personnel monitor, collect, identify, and exploit signals of interests to produce COMINT.

121
Q

What is USSID SP Series?

A

Directives on SIGNIT Fundamental Policy

122
Q

What is the form SF86?

A

A questionnaire for National Security positions which are background investigations to determine suitability for sensitive positions.

123
Q

Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU)

A

Smallest of the Marine air-to-ground task force (MAGTF). A quick reaction force and Deployed and ready for immediate response to any crisis, Embarked on LHD’s of ESG’s

124
Q

Mission of NCTAMS

A

NCTAMS LANT The mission of NCTAMS LANT is to provide classified and unclassified voice, messaging, data and video to ships, submarines, aircraft and ground forces operating worldwide in support of Naval and joint missions.

NCTAMS PAC Deliver and operate a reliable, secure and battle-ready Navy Network, providing sustained information superiority to Navy, Joint and Coalition warfighters in the Pacific and Indian Ocean areas of responsibility.

125
Q

What is the EDVR?

A

List of all personnel assigned and provides rate and rating summary, projected manning, historical personnel record activity.

126
Q

Contents of the EDVR?

A

Section 1 - Prospective Gains
Section 2 - Prospective Losses
Section 3 - Personnel on board for temporary duty
Section 4 - Total personnel on board

127
Q

Enlisted Evaluation Due Dates…

E1, E2, E3

E4

E5

E6

E7 & E8

E9

A

E1, E2, E3. - 15JUL

E4 - 15JUN

E5 - 15MAR

E6 - 15NOV

E7 & E8 - 15SEP

E9 - 15APR

128
Q

Explain what Defense Language Proficiency Test (DLPT)

A

The test is a group of foreign language tests intended to assess the general language proficiency of native English speakers in a specific foreign language.

129
Q

Defense Property Accountability System

A

Web-based database management system used to support the accounting and tracking throughout the life-cycle to include all aspects of financial reporting.

130
Q

Material Obligation Validation (MOV)

A

Improves requisition validity and ensures sound financial management practices are in effect in all TYCOM commands

131
Q

Mandatory Quarterly External MOVs

A

Conducted by Inventory Control Points (ICPs)

132
Q

Mandatory Monthly Internal MOVs

A
  • Conduct by individual departments
  • Maximizes limited OPTAR funds
  • Depot level Repairable (DLR’s)
133
Q

Explain what is meant by “need to know”

A

Access to classified information is not authorized by the favorable conclusion of a clearance eligibility determination.

134
Q

State the type of investigation and how often it is updated for access: SCI

A
  • Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI)

- Valid for 5 years

135
Q

State the type of investigation and how often it is updated for access: Top Secret

A
  • Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI)

- Valid for 5 years

136
Q

State the type of investigation and how often it is updated for access: Secret

A
  • National Agency Check with Local Agency and Credit Checks (NACLC)
  • Valid for 5 years
137
Q

State the type of investigation and how often it is updated for access: Confidential

A
  • National Agency Check With Local Agency and Credit Checks (NACLC)
  • Valid for 5 years
138
Q

SAER (Security Access Eligibility Report)

A

A SAER is used when trying to get a SCI clearance but have to explain something in detail i.e.

  • Financial issues
  • Legal issues
  • U/A
  • Illness
139
Q

Identify the following forms:

SF-700
SF-701
SF-702
SF-703
SF-153
SF-312
A
SF-700 - Stores combos
SF-701 - End of day checks
SF-702 - Open/close log
SF-703 - TS Cover sheet
SF-153 - COMSEC Material Report
SF-312 - Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement
141
Q

CBSP (Nomenclature)

A

USC-69

142
Q

Define MEU

A

Primary purpose is to take beaches, quick reaction force, crisis response, smallest air ground task force in USMC

143
Q

What is DISN

A

Defense Information System Network

Provides voice, data, and VTC for classified and unclassified users

146
Q

SE5000 - SIGINT __________?

A

Enterprise NSA/JOINT

147
Q

Define TAWS

A

Target Acquisition Weapons Software

Determines the best direction to fire a missle/bullet

148
Q

Four categories of deception tactics

A

Acoustic
Visual
Electromagnetic
Communication

150
Q
Explain the following as they apply to ORM:
A. Identify hazards
B. Assessing hazards
C. Making risk decisions
D. Implementing controls
E. Supervision
A

Identifying hazards- Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps in operation (operational analysis)

Assessing hazards - determine associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity

Making risk decisions - develop risk control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select controls that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment.

Implementing controls - ENG controls, ADMIN controls and personal protective equipment

Supervising - Conduct follow-up evaluations of the controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect.

151
Q

Intelligence Disciplines

A
COMINT (Parent agency - NSA)
ELINT (Parent agency - NSA)
IMINT (Parent agency - NSA)
HUMINT (Parent agency - NSA)
ACINT
MASINT
OSINT
FISNT
152
Q

EXPLOT watch positions

A

FIWO - Fleet Intel Watch officer
FIWA - Assistant, manages tasking of EXPLOT team
SICOR - Signals Intel Correlator; monitors KL’s through message traffic
RDBM - Red Database Manager

153
Q

NIAPS

A

Navy Integrated Application Suite

154
Q

FLTNOC

A

Fleet Network Operation Center provides IP services to the fleet

UARNOC - Norfolk
PRNOC - Hawaii
ECRNOC - Naples
IORNOC - Bahrain

155
Q

Define MSI

A

Marine Surface Index

Go/no go for beach landings/small boat ops.
Considers wave height, beach type, and tides

158
Q

Voice imitative deception is suspected not this net

A

GINGERBREAD

159
Q

Define AREPS

A

Advance Refractive Effects Prediction

Informs how far a radar can operate

161
Q

Frequency Bands

ELF
VLF
LF

A

ELF - 30-300Hz
VLF - 3-30KHz
LF - 30-300KHz

165
Q

Purpose of EXPLOT?

A

All source fusion watch floor

Provides operational and tactical level intelligence

Provides I&W support to CIC

169
Q

Frequency Bands

MF
HF
VHF
UHF

A
MF - (300-3000KHz)
HF - (3-30MHz)
VHF - (30-300MHz) Green gear
UHF - (300-3000MHz) voice circuits
SHF - (3-30GHz) IP services, high data rate
172
Q

Define MK-36 DLS

A

Decoy Launching System (Chaff)

SRBOC - Super Rapid Blooming Offboard Chaff

6 launchers, 6 tubes each launcher. Port and stud catwalks

Two concerns of chaff: Wind speed/direction could backfire. Flight deck activity could negate chaff rounds.

175
Q

What is the purpose of the CWC doctrine?

A

Enables the OTC (Officer in Tactical Command) to wage combat operations against air, surface, and subsurface threats while carrying out the primary mission.

180
Q

IAVA vs. IAVB vs. IAVT

A

IAVA - Severe network vulnerabilities that pose an immediate risk

IAVB - vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate risk

IAVT - vulnerabilities pose a low risk, no action required

181
Q

Define Divers

A

Salvage operations

188
Q

Define ES

A

To search for, intercept, identify, and locate sources of EM energy for purpose of I&W (SLQ-32)

191
Q

Define PTA

A

Precision Timing and Astrometry

Naval Observatory is a PTA facility

192
Q

Certification vs. Accreditation

A

Certification - evaluation of security features of an information system

Accreditation - official management decision to open rate an information system in a specified environment

194
Q

DEFINE JTWC

A

Joint Typhoon Warning Center, based out of Hawaii and provides TCCOR warnings

197
Q

SP0018 - SIGINT ________?

A

SP0018 SIGINT Policies - US Person

199
Q

SNOOPIE Team

A

Ships Nautical or other Photographic Interpretation Exploitation (SNOOPIE)

  • reaction team
  • records photos of unknown contacts
  • TEAM Consists of: Team leader, photographer, recorder, lookout
206
Q

GBS (Nomenclature)

A

USR-10

209
Q

Define EP

A

Passive and active means of protecting, personnel, facilities, and equipment from friendly and enemy EA (ex EMCON)

211
Q

Space environment entities that effect communications

A
  • Sun
  • Solar wind
  • Solar cycle
  • Atmospheric drag
214
Q

Operational Risk Management

A

A systematic, decision making process use to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.

218
Q

NCDOC

A

Navy Cyber Defense Operations Command

219
Q

DSCS (Nomenclature)

A

WSC-6

228
Q

Define and discuss the FOUR categories of hazard severity

A

CAT 1 - may cause death

CAT 2 - may cause severe injury

CAT 3 - may cause minor injury

CAT 4 - presents a minimal threat to personnel safety or health