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EIWS > 100 EIWS Series > Flashcards

100 EIWS Series Flashcards

1
Q

Discuss ORM

A

ORM is a systematic decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources. Purpose is to increase operational readiness.

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2
Q

State the instruction that governs safety and mishap reporting.

A

OPNAVINST 5102.1D - Navy and Marine Corps Mishap and Safety Investigation, Reporting and Record Keeping Manual.

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3
Q

Define and discuss the four categories of hazard severity.

A

Hazard Severity is an assessment of the expected consequence.

CAT 1 - May cause death
CAT 2 - May cause serious injury, illness, property damage
CAT 3 - May cause minor injury
CAT 4 - Presents minimal threat

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4
Q

Define Risk Assessment Code (RAC) and list the five RAC’s

A

RAC is an expression of the risk associate with a hazard that combines the hazard severity and mishap probability into a single Arabic numeral.

  1. Critical risk
  2. Serious risk
  3. Moderate risk
  4. Minor risk
  5. Negligible risk
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5
Q

Mishap Investigation Reports

A

All mishap reports must be submitted within 30 days of mishap occurrence.

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6
Q

Name the four required mishap reportable items.

A
  1. On duty DOD Civilian and all on and off duty military class A mishaps
  2. DON on duty civilian fatalities occurring within the USA
  3. Laser or radio frequency radiation exposures
  4. Navy and Marine Corps ordnance related Class A explosive mishaps
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7
Q

State the purpose of a HAZREP message

A

Assist all leaders in identifying casual factors and formulating corrective measures to prevent mishap recurrence.

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8
Q

State the three objectives of first aid

A
  1. Save lives
  2. Prevent further injury
  3. Prevent infection
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9
Q

State the three methods of controlling bleeding

A
  1. Direct pressure
  2. Pressure points
  3. Tourniquet
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10
Q

Describe the symptoms and treatment for shock

A

Shock is disruption of circulatory system. Individuals usually faint due to the poor supply of oxygen to the brain.

  1. vacant or lackluster eyes
  2. Shallow or irregular breathing
  3. cold pale skin
  4. Nausea
  5. A weak or absent pulse
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11
Q

State the difference between an open and close fracture

A

Open fracture - bone protrudes skin

Close fracture - skin remains intact

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12
Q

Define the following (HERO, HERP and HERF)

A

HERO - ordinance
HERP - people
HERF - fuel

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation…

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13
Q

Define Hazmat

A

Any item or agent which as the potential to cause harm to humans, animals or the environment, even by itself of through interaction with other factors.

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14
Q

Discuss how to store HAZMAT

A

Store acids separately from bases; oxidizers away from combustibles and flammables; store dry materials such as powder above liquids or wet materials. Leaking liquids can drip down onto dry materials and cause a reaction

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15
Q

Describe potential risk of improperly labeled and stored HAZMAT

A

Can cause injury or a reaction that could be life threatening

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16
Q

Describe what an MSDS is and the information it provides

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) are technical bulletins that contains info about hazardous material. According to OPNAVINST 5100.19 all hands are required to follow these guidelines.

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17
Q

State the goal of the Navy’s hearing conversation program

A

Prevent occupational hearing loss and assure auditory fitness for duty of all Navy personnel.

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18
Q

State the six areas of naval doctrine

A

WIPLOC

  1. Naval Warfare
  2. Naval Intelligence
  3. Naval Operations
  4. Naval Logistics
  5. Naval Planning
  6. Naval Command and Control
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19
Q

State the seven principles of Naval Logistics

A
  1. Responsiveness
  2. Simplicity
  3. Flexibility
  4. Economy
  5. Attainability
  6. Sustainability
  7. Survivability
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20
Q

The first Navy ship was named after an enlisted man, what was his name?

A

Osmond Ingram (DD 255). The ship was launched 28FEB 1919. Ingram was the first enlisted man killed in action in WWI, lost when the destroyer Cassin (DD 43) was torpedoed in OCT 1917.

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21
Q

Discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the US Navy

A

The king of England allowed the colonies to trade only with England. Problems arose between the colonists and England as years passed. English parliament passed several laws that affected the colonists in a problem know as “taxation without representation”

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22
Q

What are the three classes of Naval vessels existed at the inception of the Navy?

A

Ships-of-the-line: The battleships of the sailing days
Frigates: The cruisers of the 18th century
Sloops-of-war: The small sailing warships

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23
Q

State the mission of the US Navy

A

This mission of the navy is to maintain, train, equip combat-ready naval forces capable of winning wars, deterring aggression and maintaining freedom of the seas.

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24
Q

Discuss the difference between OPCON and ADCON

A

OPCON - Operational Control

ADCON - Administrative Control

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25
Q

Describe the six programs of Brilliant on the Basics

A 
Sponsorship 
Assign Mentor
Indoctrination 
Leadership
Ombudsman Programs
Recognition Programs
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26
Q

State the duties and responsibilities of Command ESO

A

Assist the XO administer educational programs for the command. ESO coordinates office and enlisted training and also PBFT.

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27
Q

Explain the purpose of the US Navy Drug Screening Program

A

A computer based application developed to assist CO’s in administering the command’s urinalysis testing program.

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28
Q

Discuss the NCA, its members and functions

A

National Command Authority (NCA) is a term used by the United States Military and United States government to refer to the ultimate lawful source of military orders. The NCA comprises of the President (as Commander in Chief) and the United States Secretary of Defense.

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29
Q

Define Combatant Command (COCOM)

A

Is the command authority over assigned forces vested in the CINCs by title 10, U.S. Code, Section 164, and is not transferable – There are 10 Unified COCOMs; six regional and four functional. United States Africa Command became initially operational in OCT 2007. NORTCOM, CENTCOM, EUCOM, PACOM, SOTHCOM, AFRICOM, SOCOM, JFCOM, STRATCOM, and TRANSCOM.

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30
Q

Define the FLTCOM

A

Fleet Commanders have a dual chain of command. Administratively, they report to the Chief of Naval Operations and provide, train, and equip naval forces. Operationally, the provide naval forces and report to the appropriate unified commanders.

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31
Q

Define TYCOM

A

Type Commander - All ships are organized into categories by type. Aircraft carries, aircraft squadrons, and air stations are under the administrative control of the appropriate Command Naval Air Force. Submarines come under the Commander Submarine Force. All other ships fall under Commander Naval Surface Force.

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32
Q

State the location, mission and component commands for the following: CNO N2 / N6

A

CNO N2 - The director of Naval Intelligence (OPNAV N2)

CNO N6 - Leads the Navy Space Team for the Chief of Naval Operations

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33
Q

Define the following (TF, TG, TU, TE) - Task Force, Group, Unit and Element

A

A task force (TF) is divided into tasks groups (TGs). Task groups are assigned numbers corresponding to the particular task force of which they are a part. For instance, TF 77 may have a task group assigned to reconnaissance, and its designated number will be TG 77.3. Tasks groups may be even further subdivided into task units (TU’s) and task elements (TE’s)

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34
Q

Describe the 8 IDC Ratings (AG/CTI/CTM/CTN/CTR/CTT/IS/IT)

A

AG - observe, collect, record and analyze meteorological and ocean data
CTI - Radiotelephone communications and foreign language translation
CTM - The installation, servicing and repair of electronic and electromechanical equipment
CTN - Plans and execute computer network operations (CNO) actions/counter-actions in support of defending and exploiting computer network systems
CTR - Voice/Morse communications and operation of radio direction finding equipment. Similar with US ARMY job specially 35S
CTT - Non-communications signals Intelligence (ELINT), Electronic Warfare Support (ES), Electronic Attack (EA) and Electronic Protection (EP)
IS - Intelligence Specialist rating was established in 1975 by combining the Photo Intelligencman (PT) rating and parts of the Yeoman (YN) rating. - Duties include analyzing intel information; identifying and producing intel from raw information.
IT -

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35
Q

Navy Cyber Defense Operations Command (NCDOC)

A

Responsible for coordinating, monitoring and overseeing the defense of the Navy’s computer networks and systems and their 700,000 users worldwide. - Based in Norfolk VA

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36
Q

Define SECDEF

A

The head of department for US Navy, Army, Marines and Air Force. These civilian appointees all report to SECDEF.

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37
Q

Define Fleet Master Chief / Force Master Chief / CMC

A

Provide leadership to the enlisted force and advise Commanders/Commanding Officers on enlisted matters that support mission accomplishment. They enforce the highest standards of professionalism, integrity and enhance active communication at all levels of the command throughout the Navy.

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38
Q

State NAVYCYBERFOR’s role in a CCRI.

A

Command Cyber Readiness Inspections (CCRIs) are to Improve the over all security posture of the Global Information Grid (GIG)

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39
Q

EDVR

A

Monthly statement of an commands enlisted personnel account i.e. Manning status

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40
Q

AMD - Activity Manning Document

A

Single source document that provides the quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements

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41
Q

Discuss the importance of the IG

A

Mission is to promote integrity, accountability, and improvement of the DOD personnel, programs and operations to support the Dept’s mission an server the public interest.

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42
Q

State the purpose of the Navy Correspondence Manual

A

SECNAV Manual 5216.5 prescribe uniform standards for management and preparation of correspondence throughout the department of the Navy

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43
Q

List the office accession programs that are available to enlisted personnel

A
  1. Seaman to Admiral
  2. Enlisted Commissing Program (ECP)
  3. United State Naval Academy Admissions
  4. LDO / CWO program
  5. Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training (BOOST)
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44
Q

Explain what the DLPT is

A

Defense Language Proficiency Test (DLPT) is a batter for foreign language test produced by the Defense Language Institute and used by the United States DOD. Intended to assess general language proficiency of native English speakers and specific foreign language, in the skills of reading and listening.

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45
Q

Discuss the purpose of the 3M/PMS System

A

Provides efficient and uniform methods of conducting and recording preventative and corrective maintenance. Supports and ensures maximum equipment operational readiness.

46
Q

Explain how DPAS is used to track equipment

A

DPAS is a web based Defense Property Accountability System is used to track physical Accountability of DOD property and provides data to the DON Financial Statements for inclusion to the Plant, Property, and Equipment (PP&E)

47
Q

Discuss the purpose of the MOV program

A

Material Obligation Validation (MOV) represents unfilled quantity of a requisition that is not immediately available for issue. The program allows for the periodic validation of all outstanding requisitions. If the requisition is no longer required a cancellation request is generated and if received a receipt is processed.

48
Q

Explain the procedures for NRFI DLRs

A

Not ready of issue depot level repairable

a. TURN-IN - a not ready for issue repairable component that requires turn-in to a repair facility or designated overhaul point.
b. RIP - remain in place are items that are repairable components that cannot be removed until receipt of a replacement item.

49
Q

What are MAMs (supply)

A

MAMs - Maintenance Assistance Modules (MAMs) are avionics system parts used for isolating faults within an avionics system or test set normally located in the operating space of a division.

50
Q

Define the term CASREP and explain the four categories.

A

INITIAL - identifies, to an appropriate level of detail, the status of the casualty and parts and/or assistance requirements.
UPDATE - Contains information similar to that submitted in the INITIAL CASREP and or submit changes to previously submitted info.
CORRECTION - Submitted when equipment has been repaired and back in operational condition
CANCELLATION - Submitted upon commencement of an overhaul or other scheduled availability period

51
Q

CHRIMP

A

Consolidated Hazardous Material Reutilization and Inventory Management Program serves as a fundamental element of the Navy’s life-cycle control and management of HAZMAT.

52
Q

DRMS

A

Defense Reutilization Marketing Service - mission is to provide the DOD’s best value services and deliver great performance to our customers for reuse, transfer, donation, sale or disposal of excess property.

53
Q

Explain OPTAR and its components

A

Defined as an estimate of the amount of money that will be required by an operating ship, staff, squadron, or other unit to perform assigned tasks and functions. Repair/Repairable and Consumables.

54
Q

Identify the directives that govern personnel security.

A

There are 4 directives:

  1. DOD 5105.21-M-1
  2. SECNAV M-5510-30
  3. DCID 6/4 and 6/9
  4. JOINTDODISS
55
Q

Define the following classification categories

A

TOP SECRET - Grave damage to national security (color code is ORANGE)

SECRET - Serious damage to national security (color code is RED)

CONFIDENTIAL - Damage to national security (color code is BLUE)

UNCLASSIFIED - Little damage to national security (color code is Green)

56
Q

Explain what it meant by “need-to-know”

A

The authorized holder must determine that the prospective recipient needs-to-know that information in order to perform lawful and authorized government functions. Need-to-know is a preventative measure to identify and deter unauthorized access.

57
Q

State the type of investigation classification levels: TS/SEC/CON/SCI

A

Top Secret - is favorably completed SSBI, SSBI-PR or PPR. Updated every 5 years.

SECRET/CONFIDENTIAL - is favorably completed NACLC or ANACI. For a secret clearance its updated every 10 to 15 years.

SCI - is a favorably adjudicated SSBI. A SSBI-PR is required to be submitted every 5 years.

58
Q

Identify what a SAER is and its purpose

A

Security Access Eligibility Report (SAER) - used to identify an incident or any change in eligibility if an employee is still eligible for the security clearance.

59
Q

Identify the events that should be reported the SSO

A
  1. Unlawful practice or advocate the overflow or alteration of the US Government by unconstitutional means.
  2. Foreign influences concerns, foreign citizenship or foreign monetary interests
  3. Sexual behavior that is a crime or reflects a lack of judgement or discretion
  4. Unwillingness to comply with the rules and refs or cooperate with security processing
  5. Change of marital status or marriage/cohabitation with a foreign national
60
Q

Identify who has overall authority of a SCIF

A

The Special Security Officer (SSO) will be responsible for the operation of the SCIF and the security controls and use of the SCIF. All SCIF matters shall be referred to the SSO.

61
Q

Identify the use of the following forms (SF 700, 701, 702, 703, 153, 312)

A

SF 700 - Security container information (open and unattended)

SF 701 - Activity security checklist (filled out at the end of the day)

SF 702 - Security container check sheet (form provides a record of the names and times that persons have opened, closed and checked a particular container that holds classified information)

SF 703 - Top Secret cover sheet (ORANGE)

SF 153 - COMSEC Material report

SF 312 - Classified information non-disclosure agreement (provide contractural agreement between US Government and cleared employees)

62
Q

State when safe combinations should be changed

A
  1. When first placed in use
  2. When and individual knowing the combination no longer requires access
  3. When subjected to compromise
  4. When taken out of service. Built in combinations locks will then be reset to the standard comb 50-25-50; padlocks will be reset to the standard combo of 10-20-30
63
Q

What is an FDO and state their responsibility

A

Foreign Disclosure Officer. Process all foreign visit requests to the command. Responsible for any foreign disclosure of information to foreign nationals.

64
Q

State the purpose of the DCS

A

The Defense Courier Service (DCS) is a joint command and direct reporting unit (DRU) under the Commander in Chief United States Transportation Command (CINCTRANS)

65
Q

State the responsibilities of the TSCO

A

The Top Secret Control Officer (TSCO) maintains a system of accountability and handling of TS information

66
Q

State the THREATCON recognition and Force Protection levels.

A

FPCON NORMAL - no current terrorist activity
FPCON ALPHA - there is a small and general terrorist activity
FPCON BRAVO - Somewhat predictable terrorist threat
FPCON CHARLIE - There is terrorist activity imminent
FPCON DELTA - Terrorist attack is taking place or has just occurred

67
Q

Explain what a RAM is

A

Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAM) - To maximize the effectiveness and deterrence value, and be implemented with a set pattern, either in terms of the measures selected, time, place, or other variables. (ex. Random implementation of FPCONs measures)

68
Q

Explain and state the purpose of an EAP

A

Emergency Action Plan (EAP) is utilized when anticipating natural disasters. Protect COMSEC materials from natural disasters and the enemy.

69
Q

Emergency Destruction (Priority 1-3)

A

Material will be identified for emergency destruction/removal following the general guidelines listed below:

Priority One: All Cryptographic equipment and documents

Priority Two: All operational SCI code word materials

Priority Three: Less sensitive administrative SCI materials and collateral classified material not included above.

70
Q

Define SCI

A

Sensitive Compartmented Information - required to be handled within formal access control systems established by the Director of Central Intelligence

71
Q

List of items prohibited in a SCIF

A

No device that transmits, receives, records or stores data is authorized into a SCIF without prior approval (CO or SSO or IAM)

72
Q

The definitions of each INFOCON are:

A

INFOCON 5 - Normal Readiness Procedures
INFOCON 4 - Increased Military Vigilance Procedures
INFOCON 3 - Enhanced Readiness Procedures
INFOCON 2 - Greater Readiness Procedures
INFOCON 1 - Maximum Readiness Procedures

73
Q

Explain the difference between vulnerability and threat

A

Threat - the potential to adversely impact organizational operations. Ex. Unauthorized access, destruction, disclosure,

Vulnerability - Weakness in an information system, system security procedures, internal controls, or implementation that could be exploited by a threat source

74
Q

State the duties and responsibilities of the IAM

A

Individual responsible for the information assurance of a program, organization, system, or enclave.

75
Q

Describe function and risk associate with following activities

A
  1. Network enumeration - occurs after scanning and is the process of gathering and compiling usernames, machine names (like taking an inventory) BLUF: actively querying or connecting to a target to acquire information
  2. Buffer overflow - exploits that hackers use against an operating system or application; buffer overflow exploit causes the system to fail by overloading its memory
  3. SQL Injections - can give an attacker access to database content or allow the hacker to remotely execute system commands
  4. Dictionary Attack - An attempt to crack a password using a list of dictionary words
  5. Privilege Escalation - Sailors starts out as a user, then sysadmin, then domain admin etc.
  6. Brute Force - Complex password that use letters, numbers and special characters
  7. Social Engineering - nontechnical method of breaking into a system or network. The process of deciding users of a system and convincing them to perform actions for the hackers.
76
Q

Describe ADNS

A

Automated Digital Networking System - primary function is to connect Navy shipboard networks to other ship and shore networks for transferring IP date of various classifications levels. Also converts IP into RF signals…

77
Q

Describe CUDIXS

A

CUDIXS - Common User Digital Information Exchange Subsystem: Has the capability to both send and recieve narrative message traffic. Up to 60 subscribers per CUDIXS suite. Each subscriber can send and receive operator-to-operator type messages in free form and up to 80 characters in length.

78
Q

Describe VERDIN

A

The VLF Digital Information Network broadcast system provides a highly reliable and secure system for worldwide delivery of operational, tactical, and admin messages… (Part of TACAMO)

79
Q

Discuss GINGERBREAD

A

A codeword meaning that voice imitative deception is suspected on this net.

80
Q

Discuss BEAD WINDOW

A

Bead window is a real-time procedure which brings to the immediate attention of circuit operators the fact that an EFFI disclosure has occurred. Proper response for a net member receiving a BEADWINDOW will be “Roger Out” using proper net call signs.

81
Q

List the components of a standard navy message (format lines)

A 
FL 6 - From 
FL 7 - To
FL 8 - Info
FL 12 - Message Text
FL 16 - End of Message
82
Q

Define the following message precedence

A

R - Routine, 6 hours
P - Priority, 3 hours
O - Immediate, 30 minutes
Z - Flash, as fast as possible with an objective of less than 10 mins
W - The CRITIC message contains info vital importance

83
Q

Define the roles of the Navy BLUE and RED teams

A

BLUF TEAM - conduct operational network vulnerability evaluations and provide mitigation techniques to customers.

RED TEAM - an authorized group to emulate a potential adversary attack or exploitation against an enterprise security posture. GOAL is improve security posture by demonstrating impacts of successful attacks and what works for the defenders.

84
Q

Discuss the five step planning process for OPSEC

A

Step One - Identification of Critical information
Step Two - Analysis of Threats
Step Three - Analysis of Vulnerabilities
Step Four - Risk Assessment
Step Five - Application of the Countermeasures

85
Q

Describe the following Types of Intelligence (HUMINT/OSINT/MASINT/SIGINT/COMINT/FISINT/ELINT/IMINT/ACINT)

A

HUMINT - Human intelligence is gathering info through human contact
OSINT - Open source information derived from newspapers, journals, radio, TV and the internet.
MASINT - Measurement and Signature Intelligence derived from special technical sensors for purpose of identifying and distinctive features associate with the source, emitter..
SIGINT - Signal Intelligence includes transmissions associated with comms, radar, and weapons systems used by our adversaries
COMINT - Communications Intelligence gained through the interception of foreign communications, excluding open radio and TV.
FISINT - Foreign Instrumentation Signals Intelligence derives from the interception of foreign Electromagnetic emissions associated with testing operational deployment surface and subsurface systems.
ELINT - Electronic Intelligence derive from foreign non-communications Electromagnetic Radiation emanating from detonations.
IMINT - Imagery Intelligence derive from the exploitation of collection by visual photography, infrared sensors, lasers etc.
ACINT - Acoustic Intelligence derive from the collection and processing of acoustic phenomena

86
Q

Give 3 examples of Intelligence briefs

A
  1. Commanders Briefings
  2. Aircrew Briefings
  3. By voice radio (usually encrypted)
87
Q

The communication capabilities of bands below:

A 
ELF 3Hz - 30Hz
SLF 30Hz - 300Hz
ULF 300Hz - 3KHz
VLF 3KHz - 30KHz
LF 30KHz - 300KHz
MF 300KHz - 3MHz
HF 3MHz - 30MHz
VHF 30MHz - 300MHz
UHF 300MHz - 3GHz
SHF 3GHz - 30GHz
EHF 30GHz - 300GHz
88
Q

Half Duplex / Duplex / Simplex Definitions

A

Half Duplex - has one-way flow of information between terminals

Full Duplex - comms take place simultaneously in both directions at the same time

SIMPLEX - Communicates in one direction only

89
Q

Geostationary Operational Environment Satellite (GOES)

A

GOES satellites are a mainstay of weather forecasting in the US an are the backbone of short-term forecasting. The real-time weather data gathered by GOES satellites, combined with data from weather surveillance radar (WSR-88D)

90
Q

There are four GOES currently in orbit

A

GOES-10 - Stationed 60 degrees west; provides 24 hour coverage of South America

GOES-11 - Stationed 135 degrees west; primary western US Satellite
GOES-12 - Stationed 75 degrees west; provides 24-hour coverage for the eastern portion of US
GOES-13 - “New” Stationed 105 degrees west; Serves as a backup to GOES 11 and 12.

91
Q

Polar Operational Environmental Satellite (POES)

A

POES is able to collect global data on a daily basis for a variety of land, ocean, and atmospheric applications.

92
Q

Defense Meteorological Satellite Program (DMSP)

A

There are currently 6 DMSP satellites in orbit:

  • F-12: Used to provide tactical data
  • F-13/14/15: Secondary satellites
  • F-16/17: Serve as primary satellites
93
Q

Discuss NOVA

A

Navy shore base message handling system, processes GENSER messages. Has been replaced by DMS.

94
Q

Discuss IBS

A

Integrated Broadcast Service, integration of various SIGINT broadcast dissemination systems into a standardized protocol with compatible hardware and software

95
Q

Discuss INMARSAT

A

International Maritime Satellite - Telecommunications offering global, mobile services

96
Q

Discuss meaconing

A

Transmission of signals designed to deceive users of navigational aids

97
Q

Discuss Jamming

A

Deliberate radiation, re-radiation, or reflection of electromagnetic energy to disrupt use of electronic devices, equipment, or systems.

98
Q

Discuss spectrum management

A

Planning, coordinating and managing joint use of the Electromagnetic Spectrum

99
Q

State the purpose of an OPTASK COMMS

A

Defines nets/circuits and approved frequencies w/ in an area

100
Q

State the purpose of a COMMPLAN

A

A communications plan lists what communication circuits are required and indicate where and when they are needed

101
Q

State the purpose of a TSR

A

A telephone service request is a request for services over the phone lines

102
Q

State the purpose of a COMSPOT

A

A communications spot outage report provides pertinent information concerning conditions that impose serious degradation of communications operations.

103
Q

State the purpose of the electronic key management system

A

To manage the use, control and destruction of sensitive cryptographic material essential to operations.

104
Q

State the purpose of OTAT/OTAR

A

Over the air key transfer/Over the air rekey allows users to update their cryptographic requirements via RF

105
Q

Discuss the security procedures involved when performing cross-domain transfers.

A
  1. Review the security attributes of each system to determine additional security requirements to be implemented.
  2. Document the requirements as part of the accreditation
106
Q

Discuss risk management

A

Allows IT managers to balance the cost of protective measures while achieving gains in mission capability

107
Q

Define the 5 attributes of IA:

A
  1. Confidentiality - assurance that info is no disclosed to unauthorized persons, processes or devices.
  2. Integrity - Assurance that info is not modified by unauthorized parties in an unauthorized manner
  3. Availability - assurance of timely, reliable access to data and information systems by authorized users
  4. Non-repudiation - assurance that the sender of data is provided with proof of delivery and the recipient is provided with proof of senders identity
  5. Authentication - assurance of the identity of an email message sender or receiver
108
Q

List and define 9 categories of computer incidents

A
  1. Malicious Logic
  2. User level intrusion
  3. Root level intrusion
  4. Denial of Service
  5. Explained Anomaly
  6. Reconnaissance
  7. Unsuccessful Activity Attempt
  8. Non-compliance Activity
  9. Investigating
109
Q

Describe the DON World Wide Web Security policy:

A

All websites must be registered through the Navy website registration system

110
Q

Define vulnerability assessment:

A

Examination of information system or product to determine the efficiency of security measures.

111
Q

Explain the difference between vulnerability and threat

A

Vulnerability- a security weakness that could be exploited by a threat
Threat - Any circumstance with the potential to adversely impact organizational operations

EIWS (4 decks)

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